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Enterobacteriaceae (without Salmonella) Flashcards

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1
Q

In general, what do Enterobacteriaceae look like on gram stain?

A

gram-negative, medium-sized rods

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2
Q

How do ALL Enterobacteriaceae react to an oxidase test?

A

negative

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3
Q

All Enterobacteriaceae ferment what?

A

glucose

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4
Q

The H antigen is associated with what?

A

flagella

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5
Q

The K antigen is associated with what?

A

capsules

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6
Q

The F antigen is associated with what?

A

fimbria

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7
Q

The O antigen is associated with what?

A

O-Ag side chains

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8
Q

The P antigen is associated with what?

A

pili

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9
Q

What disease is associated with the O157:H7 antigen in E. coli?

A

hemolytic/uremic syndrome

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10
Q

What disease is associated with the O78 antigen in E. coli?

A

respiratory disease and septicemia in chickens

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11
Q

What disease is associated with the F18 antigen of E. coli?

A

edema disease in swine

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12
Q

Enterobacteriaceae is part of the ________ ________ of ____ of most mammals and birds.

A

normal flora; intestines

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13
Q

Generally, how is Enterobacteriacea transmited?

A

fecal-oral, contamination of wounds, via a respiratory route, or via vectors

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14
Q

Generally, what is Enterobacteriaceae resistant to?

A

freezing

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15
Q

Generally, what is Enterobacteriaceae killed by?

A

pasteurization, disinfectants, and drying

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16
Q

Does Escerichia coli produce gas?

A

yes

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17
Q

Does Escerichia coli ferment lactose?

A

yes; most of the time

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18
Q

Is Escerichia coli indole positive or negative?

A

positive

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19
Q

How does Escerichia coli react to lysine?

A

it decarboxylates it

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20
Q

What do Escerichia coli colonies look like?

A

medium sized, heaped or raised, with smooth edges - some are hemolytic and can be mucoid

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21
Q

What diseases are hemolytic strains of Escerichia coli associated with?

A

pyelonephritis in humans and post-weaning diarrhea in pigs

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22
Q

What is alpha hemolysin in Escerichia coli?

A

an RTX toxin

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23
Q

What disease is alpha hemolysin in Escerichia coli associated with?

A

human extraintestinal infections

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24
Q

What secretion system does Alpha hemolysin associated with Escerichia coli use?

A

type 1 secretion - it inserts monomeric subunits into cell membranse and forms a pore

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25
Q

What is beta hemolysin in Escerichia coli?

A

the same as alpha hemolysin except that some of the C-terminal amino acids have been cleaved

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26
Q

What is the term used for E. coli infections in domestic animals?

A

colibacillosis

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27
Q

What diseases can the term colibacillosis denote?

A

enteritis, septicemia, or both

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28
Q

What disease does colibacilliosis cause in swine?

A

scours (neonatal diarrhea)

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29
Q

How does scours present in swine?

A

it occurs to piglets usually 1-4 days old and they have perfuse, pale, yellow diarrhea with dehydration that quickly leads to death

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30
Q

Where is E. coli found in piglets that have swine colibacillosis?

A

in the small intestine

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31
Q

What fimbriae are associated with swine colibacillosis?

A

F-4 (arguably the most important), F5, F6, and F41

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32
Q

What can the fimbriae do if they attach to the small intestine in swine colibacillosis?

A

they may invade and cause septicemia and they may express entereotoxins

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33
Q

What does ETEC stand for?

A

Enterotoxigenic E. coli

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34
Q

What major toxins are associateed with swine colibacillosis?

A

Labile toxin and two stable toxins (STa and STb)

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35
Q

What is the structure of the labile toxin?

A

it is an A-B structure toxin where 1 A subunit is surrounded by B subunits

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36
Q

What produces E. coli’s labile toxin (i.e. what species)?

A

porcine, human,, and some calf ETEC

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37
Q

What is E. coli’s labile toxin neutralized by?

A

anti-toxic antibody and antibody to cholera toxin

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38
Q

How does E. coli’s liable toxin work?

A

it ADP-ribosylates a Gs alpha protein leading to activation of adenylate cyclase which increases cAMP, causes the excretion of Cl and inhibitionof Na absorption leading to excessive fluid loss

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39
Q

What is the function of E. coli’s STa toxin?

A

it stimulates guanylate cyclase which catalyzes the intracellular production of cyclic GMP which leads to loss of water and electrolytes from the intestinal mucosa

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40
Q

STa toxin is the major effector of what?

A

diarrhea

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41
Q

What is the function of E. coli’s STb toxin?

A

it binds to sulfatide on cell surfaces and is internalized where it triggers a cascade of events resulting in opening of ion channels through which ions and water are lost

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42
Q

Which stable toxin of E. coli is longer acting?

A

STb

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43
Q

How is swine colibacillosis treated?

A

some antibiotics help but it is better to prevent it by stimulating colostral antibody production with immunization of dams and management to ensure colostral intake

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44
Q

How do you immunize for swine colibacillosis?

A

with killed bacterins or live-oral products administered through water supply to sows

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45
Q

What E. coli strains are associated with post-weaning diarrhea in pigs?

A

strains that produce STb toxin - these strains are hemolytic

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46
Q

What environmental factors are associated with post-weaning diarrhea in pigs?

A

change in feeding and stress

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47
Q

What is edema disease in swine caused by?

A

F18ac- and F18ab-bearing strains of STEC (shiga toxin) E. coli

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48
Q

When do receptors for F18ac and F18ab-bearing strains develop?

A

not until 15-20 days of age

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49
Q

Where on the body is edema disease from swine colibacillosis usually seen?

A

the eyelids, facial area, stomach, and other places

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50
Q

Aside from edema, what other symptoms are associated with edema disease?

A

muscular spasms and tremors

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51
Q

What is the majority of the disease syndrome of edema disease due to?

A

elaboration of Stx2e

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52
Q

What does shiga toxin do?

A

it inhibits protein synthesis in the vascular endothelium which leads to edema and necrosis

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53
Q

What disease is associated with cattle colibacillosis?

A

white scours in calves

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54
Q

What toxins and fimbria are associated with cattle colibacillosis?

A

Sta toxin and F5

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55
Q

What diseases are associated with lamb colibacillosis?

A

enteric and septicemic disease similar to calves

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56
Q

What fimbriae are found in isolates of E. coli in lambs?

A

the F-5 fimbriae

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57
Q

How do E. coli infect poultry?

A

dust carrying the E. coli and then entering the respiratory tract

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58
Q

What diseases does E. coli cause in poultry?

A

airsacculitis, acute septicemia, pericarditis, fibrinopurulent serositis, and granulomatous lesions in the wall of the intestine

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59
Q

When pet birds get infected with E. coli, what diseases are caused?

A

enteritis and septicemia

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60
Q

What ‘other’ diseases are associated with E. coli?

A

diarrheas in other animals/humans, umbilical infections leading to septicemia and arthritis, urinary tract infections, metritis, pyometra, bacteremia in puppies, and mastitis in cows

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61
Q

What is used to protect against endotoxemia in dairy cattle?

A

J5 and Endovac immunizing products

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62
Q

What diseases does E. coli cause in humans?

A

urinary tract infections, neonatal meningitis, pulomary infections, wound infections, and diarrhea

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63
Q

What is STEC?

A

Shiga toxin producing e. coli

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64
Q

What are the two groups of Shiga toxins?

A

Stx1 and Stx2

65
Q

What disease processes are STEC organisms associated with?

A

diarrhea, hemorrhagic colitis, and hemolytic uremic syndrome

66
Q

What are the common species of Shigella?

A

Shigella dysenteriae, flexneri, sonnei, and boydii

67
Q

What sepcies of Shigella is the most pathogenic?

A

Shigella dysenteriae

68
Q

In the United States, what are the most common isolates of Shigella?

A

Shigella sonnei and flexneri

69
Q

What species is Shigella pathogenic to?

A

primates and humans

70
Q

In lesser developed companies, what disease processes are associated with Shigella?

A

diarrhea and mortality

71
Q

How is Shigella transmitted?

A

fecal-oral

72
Q

Does Shigella ferment lactose?

A

no

73
Q

Is Shigella motile or non-motile?

A

non-motile

74
Q

Is Shigella H2S positive or negative?

A

negative

75
Q

What disease is associated with Shigella?

A

bacillary dysentery

76
Q

What is bacillary dysentery characterized by?

A

severe abdominal cramps and frequent passage of a low-volume, bloody stool containing mucus

77
Q

What lesions are associated with Shigella?

A

acute inflammation and ulceration of the epithelium of the large intestine

78
Q

What results from perforation of ulcers caused by Shigella?

A

peritonitis and death

79
Q

What chemical factors are involved with the pathogenesis of Shigella?

A

O-antigen, hemolysin, shiga toxins, and enterotoxins

80
Q

What are the Klebsiella species?

A

pneumoniae, subspecies ozaenae, and oxytoca

81
Q

What is the most common Klebsiella species?

A

Klebsiella pneumoniae

82
Q

What do colonies of Klebsiella look like?

A

they are capsulated, large and mucoid

83
Q

Klebsiella may possess _____ with either _____-sensitive or ______-resistant adhesions.

A

fibriae; mannose; mannose

84
Q

Do Klebsiella produce toxins?

A

yes but they are not common and do not play a major role in production of most diseases

85
Q

Is Klebsiella motile?

A

no

86
Q

Is Klebsiella VP positive or negative?

A

positive

87
Q

What type of parasite is Klebsiella?

A

opportunist

88
Q

What type of infections is Klebsiella associated with in humans?

A

nosocomial

89
Q

What disease processes does Klebsiella cause in humans?

A

pneumonia and septicemia

90
Q

What specifically does Klebsiella pneumoniae cause in humans?

A

meningitis, bacteremia, and wound infections

91
Q

What does Klebsiella cause in cattle?

A

mastitis

92
Q

What other infections can Klebsiella cause in animals?

A

urinary tract infections and reproductive tract infections

93
Q

What is Klebsiella always resistant to?

A

ampicillin

94
Q

What are the most common Enterobacter species?

A

cloacae, aerogenes, pantoea (previously Enterobacter) and agglomerans

95
Q

Is Enterobacter VP positive or negative?

A

positive

96
Q

Is Enterobacter ONPG positive or negative?

A

positive

97
Q

Is Enterobacter motile?

A

yes

98
Q

In what species is Enterobacter an enteric pathogen in?

A

psittacine birds

99
Q

What does Enterobacter cause in cattle?

A

mastitis

100
Q

Generally, what disease does Enterobacter cause in animals and humans?

A

urinary tract infections

101
Q

What is the cause of Sterwart’s wilt of corn?

A

Pantoea stewartii

102
Q

Do antibiotics work to treat Enterobacter?

A

this species can be highly resistant, but 2nd and 3rd generation cephalosporins may be active

103
Q

What does Erwinia carotovora cause?

A

rot in carrots and potatoes

104
Q

What does Erwinia amylovora cause?

A

fire blight

105
Q

Pantoea agglomerans produces _____ that inhibit the growth of ______ _____.

A

antibiotics; Erwinia amylovora

106
Q

What is the best known Serratia species?

A

Serratia marcescens

107
Q

What do Serratia marcescens colonies look like?

A

distinctive pink color

108
Q

What does Serratia marcescens cause in dogs?

A

proliferative osteomyelitis

109
Q

What does Serratia marcescens cause in cattle?

A

mastitits

110
Q

What are the two most common Proteus species?

A

mirabilis and vulgaris

111
Q

What diagnostic tests differentiate Proteus mirabilis and from Proteus vulgaris?

A

Indole (mirabilis is negative, vulgaris is positive) and ODC (mirabilis is postive and vulgaris is negative)

112
Q

Is the Proteus genus urease positive or negative?

A

positive

113
Q

Is the Proteus genus lactose negative or positive?

A

negative

114
Q

Is the Proteus genus H2S positive or negative?

A

positive

115
Q

What is a characteristic factor of Proteus?

A

swarming

116
Q

What is the natural habitat of Proteus?

A

in the intestinal tract in low numbers

117
Q

Which species of Proteus is most responsible for infections?

A

mirabilis

118
Q

What diseases does Proteus cause?

A

UTIs, otitis externa in dogs, secondary invaders in wounds, peritonitis, and may be associated with diarrhea in the young

119
Q

What is the common species of Morganella?

A

Morganella morganii

120
Q

What genus did Morganella used to be a part of?

A

Proteus

121
Q

Is Morganella urease positive or negative?

A

positive

122
Q

What is the natural habitat of Morganella?

A

in the environment and in feces - it is also commonly found in the mouth of snakes

123
Q

What disease processes does Morganella cause in humans?

A

neonatal meningitis, fasciitis, arthritis, skin infections, bacteremia, and CNS infections

124
Q

How does Morganella morganii cause scromboid poisoning?

A

it produces histidine decarboxylase which reacts with free histidine in the muscle tissues of some fish which results in high levels of histamine - the high levels of histamine causes this

125
Q

How many species are in the Providencia genus?

A

five

126
Q

What are the most common Providencia species?

A

stuartii, rettgeri, and alcalifaciens

127
Q

What is the most common isolate of Providencia in humans?

A

Providencia stuartii

128
Q

What disease processes does Providencia cause?

A

UTIs, wound infections, and septicemia

129
Q

What animals does Edwardsiella infect?

A

cold-blooded animals

130
Q

What temperature is Edwardsiella cultured at?

A

room temperature

131
Q

What disease does Edwardsiella ictaluri cause and in what species?

A

enteric septicemia in cat fish (ESC)

132
Q

What disease is associated with Hafnia alvei?

A

extraintestinal disease in humans

133
Q

Where is Citrobacter found?

A

in soil, water, sewage, and food

134
Q

What do organisms in the Citrobacter genus cause?

A

urinary tract infections, neonatal meningitis, and septicemia in humans

135
Q

What genus is Citrobacter similar to biochemically?

A

Salmonella

136
Q

What is the morphology of Yersinia?

A

small coccobacills

137
Q

What is Yersinia pestis the cause of?

A

the bubonic plague

138
Q

In what temperature is Yersinia pestis best grown at?

A

27-29 degrees C

139
Q

Yersinia pestis exists in endemic areas in rodent populations as _______ ______.

A

sylvatic plague

140
Q

How is Yersinia pestis transmitted?

A

via fleas feeding on infected animals

141
Q

What specific flea is a good vector for Yersinia pestis transmission?

A

the oriental rat flea

142
Q

When transmitted to humans, what does Yersinia pestis infect first and what is this termed?

A

the lymph nodes - they become very swollen and this is referred to as the bubonic form

143
Q

Clinically what is the plague characterized by?

A

rapid rise in temperature, regional buboes, and a characteristic conjunctivitis

144
Q

What is an extremely fatal form of the plague that is spread via droplet?

A

the pneumonic form that is essentially 100% fatal

145
Q

What is another extremely fatal form of the plague that is hard to diagnose because buboes take a while to develop?

A

the septicemic form of the plague

146
Q

How is immunity to the plague acquired?

A

basically you need to be infected with it and survive or it is in your genetics

147
Q

When do you need to treat for the plague?

A

very quickly - within 12-15 hours after the fever starts

148
Q

What antimicrobial is useless against Yersinia pestis?

A

penicillin

149
Q

What are the approved treatments for the plague?

A

Levofloxacin, tetracycline, chloramphenicol, and kanamycin

150
Q

What disease does Yersinia psuedotuberculosis cause?

A

epizootics in all animal species

151
Q

What lesions/disease processes are associated with Yersinia pseudotuberculosis in humans?

A

mesenteric lymphadenitis, diarrhea, and abdominal pain that mimics appendicitis

152
Q

What species is Yersinia enterocolitica pathogenic to?

A

humans, monkeys, chinchillas, and hares

153
Q

What disease does Yersinia enterocolitica cause?

A

acute mesenteric lymphadenitis and diarrhea in children

154
Q

Yersinia enterocolitica is the cause for a lot of false ________ in humans.

A

appendectomies

155
Q

What is disease caused by Yersinia pseudotuberculosis and enterocolitica reffered to?

A

yersinioses

156
Q

How is yersinioses intitially transmitted?

A

through food

157
Q

Where is yersinioses most often seen?

A

in rural areas

158
Q

What diseases and lesions does yersinioses mimic when severe enough?

A

shigellosis, salmonellosis, and typhoid fever

Microbiology (50 decks)

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