Enterobacteriaceae (without Salmonella) Flashcards

(158 cards)

1
Q

In general, what do Enterobacteriaceae look like on gram stain?

A

gram-negative, medium-sized rods

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2
Q

How do ALL Enterobacteriaceae react to an oxidase test?

A

negative

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3
Q

All Enterobacteriaceae ferment what?

A

glucose

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4
Q

The H antigen is associated with what?

A

flagella

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5
Q

The K antigen is associated with what?

A

capsules

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6
Q

The F antigen is associated with what?

A

fimbria

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7
Q

The O antigen is associated with what?

A

O-Ag side chains

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8
Q

The P antigen is associated with what?

A

pili

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9
Q

What disease is associated with the O157:H7 antigen in E. coli?

A

hemolytic/uremic syndrome

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10
Q

What disease is associated with the O78 antigen in E. coli?

A

respiratory disease and septicemia in chickens

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11
Q

What disease is associated with the F18 antigen of E. coli?

A

edema disease in swine

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12
Q

Enterobacteriaceae is part of the ________ ________ of ____ of most mammals and birds.

A

normal flora; intestines

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13
Q

Generally, how is Enterobacteriacea transmited?

A

fecal-oral, contamination of wounds, via a respiratory route, or via vectors

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14
Q

Generally, what is Enterobacteriaceae resistant to?

A

freezing

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15
Q

Generally, what is Enterobacteriaceae killed by?

A

pasteurization, disinfectants, and drying

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16
Q

Does Escerichia coli produce gas?

A

yes

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17
Q

Does Escerichia coli ferment lactose?

A

yes; most of the time

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18
Q

Is Escerichia coli indole positive or negative?

A

positive

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19
Q

How does Escerichia coli react to lysine?

A

it decarboxylates it

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20
Q

What do Escerichia coli colonies look like?

A

medium sized, heaped or raised, with smooth edges - some are hemolytic and can be mucoid

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21
Q

What diseases are hemolytic strains of Escerichia coli associated with?

A

pyelonephritis in humans and post-weaning diarrhea in pigs

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22
Q

What is alpha hemolysin in Escerichia coli?

A

an RTX toxin

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23
Q

What disease is alpha hemolysin in Escerichia coli associated with?

A

human extraintestinal infections

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24
Q

What secretion system does Alpha hemolysin associated with Escerichia coli use?

A

type 1 secretion - it inserts monomeric subunits into cell membranse and forms a pore

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25
What is beta hemolysin in Escerichia coli?
the same as alpha hemolysin except that some of the C-terminal amino acids have been cleaved
26
What is the term used for E. coli infections in domestic animals?
colibacillosis
27
What diseases can the term colibacillosis denote?
enteritis, septicemia, or both
28
What disease does colibacilliosis cause in swine?
scours (neonatal diarrhea)
29
How does scours present in swine?
it occurs to piglets usually 1-4 days old and they have perfuse, pale, yellow diarrhea with dehydration that quickly leads to death
30
Where is E. coli found in piglets that have swine colibacillosis?
in the small intestine
31
What fimbriae are associated with swine colibacillosis?
F-4 (arguably the most important), F5, F6, and F41
32
What can the fimbriae do if they attach to the small intestine in swine colibacillosis?
they may invade and cause septicemia and they may express entereotoxins
33
What does ETEC stand for?
Enterotoxigenic E. coli
34
What major toxins are associateed with swine colibacillosis?
Labile toxin and two stable toxins (STa and STb)
35
What is the structure of the labile toxin?
it is an A-B structure toxin where 1 A subunit is surrounded by B subunits
36
What produces E. coli's labile toxin (i.e. what species)?
porcine, human,, and some calf ETEC
37
What is E. coli's labile toxin neutralized by?
anti-toxic antibody and antibody to cholera toxin
38
How does E. coli's liable toxin work?
it ADP-ribosylates a Gs alpha protein leading to activation of adenylate cyclase which increases cAMP, causes the excretion of Cl and inhibitionof Na absorption leading to excessive fluid loss
39
What is the function of E. coli's STa toxin?
it stimulates guanylate cyclase which catalyzes the intracellular production of cyclic GMP which leads to loss of water and electrolytes from the intestinal mucosa
40
STa toxin is the major effector of what?
diarrhea
41
What is the function of E. coli's STb toxin?
it binds to sulfatide on cell surfaces and is internalized where it triggers a cascade of events resulting in opening of ion channels through which ions and water are lost
42
Which stable toxin of E. coli is longer acting?
STb
43
How is swine colibacillosis treated?
some antibiotics help but it is better to prevent it by stimulating colostral antibody production with immunization of dams and management to ensure colostral intake
44
How do you immunize for swine colibacillosis?
with killed bacterins or live-oral products administered through water supply to sows
45
What E. coli strains are associated with post-weaning diarrhea in pigs?
strains that produce STb toxin - these strains are hemolytic
46
What environmental factors are associated with post-weaning diarrhea in pigs?
change in feeding and stress
47
What is edema disease in swine caused by?
F18ac- and F18ab-bearing strains of STEC (shiga toxin) E. coli
48
When do receptors for F18ac and F18ab-bearing strains develop?
not until 15-20 days of age
49
Where on the body is edema disease from swine colibacillosis usually seen?
the eyelids, facial area, stomach, and other places
50
Aside from edema, what other symptoms are associated with edema disease?
muscular spasms and tremors
51
What is the majority of the disease syndrome of edema disease due to?
elaboration of Stx2e
52
What does shiga toxin do?
it inhibits protein synthesis in the vascular endothelium which leads to edema and necrosis
53
What disease is associated with cattle colibacillosis?
white scours in calves
54
What toxins and fimbria are associated with cattle colibacillosis?
Sta toxin and F5
55
What diseases are associated with lamb colibacillosis?
enteric and septicemic disease similar to calves
56
What fimbriae are found in isolates of E. coli in lambs?
the F-5 fimbriae
57
How do E. coli infect poultry?
dust carrying the E. coli and then entering the respiratory tract
58
What diseases does E. coli cause in poultry?
airsacculitis, acute septicemia, pericarditis, fibrinopurulent serositis, and granulomatous lesions in the wall of the intestine
59
When pet birds get infected with E. coli, what diseases are caused?
enteritis and septicemia
60
What 'other' diseases are associated with E. coli?
diarrheas in other animals/humans, umbilical infections leading to septicemia and arthritis, urinary tract infections, metritis, pyometra, bacteremia in puppies, and mastitis in cows
61
What is used to protect against endotoxemia in dairy cattle?
J5 and Endovac immunizing products
62
What diseases does E. coli cause in humans?
urinary tract infections, neonatal meningitis, pulomary infections, wound infections, and diarrhea
63
What is STEC?
Shiga toxin producing e. coli
64
What are the two groups of Shiga toxins?
Stx1 and Stx2
65
What disease processes are STEC organisms associated with?
diarrhea, hemorrhagic colitis, and hemolytic uremic syndrome
66
What are the common species of Shigella?
Shigella dysenteriae, flexneri, sonnei, and boydii
67
What sepcies of Shigella is the most pathogenic?
Shigella dysenteriae
68
In the United States, what are the most common isolates of Shigella?
Shigella sonnei and flexneri
69
What species is Shigella pathogenic to?
primates and humans
70
In lesser developed companies, what disease processes are associated with Shigella?
diarrhea and mortality
71
How is Shigella transmitted?
fecal-oral
72
Does Shigella ferment lactose?
no
73
Is Shigella motile or non-motile?
non-motile
74
Is Shigella H2S positive or negative?
negative
75
What disease is associated with Shigella?
bacillary dysentery
76
What is bacillary dysentery characterized by?
severe abdominal cramps and frequent passage of a low-volume, bloody stool containing mucus
77
What lesions are associated with Shigella?
acute inflammation and ulceration of the epithelium of the large intestine
78
What results from perforation of ulcers caused by Shigella?
peritonitis and death
79
What chemical factors are involved with the pathogenesis of Shigella?
O-antigen, hemolysin, shiga toxins, and enterotoxins
80
What are the Klebsiella species?
pneumoniae, subspecies ozaenae, and oxytoca
81
What is the most common Klebsiella species?
Klebsiella pneumoniae
82
What do colonies of Klebsiella look like?
they are capsulated, large and mucoid
83
Klebsiella may possess _____ with either _____-sensitive or ______-resistant adhesions.
fibriae; mannose; mannose
84
Do Klebsiella produce toxins?
yes but they are not common and do not play a major role in production of most diseases
85
Is Klebsiella motile?
no
86
Is Klebsiella VP positive or negative?
positive
87
What type of parasite is Klebsiella?
opportunist
88
What type of infections is Klebsiella associated with in humans?
nosocomial
89
What disease processes does Klebsiella cause in humans?
pneumonia and septicemia
90
What specifically does Klebsiella pneumoniae cause in humans?
meningitis, bacteremia, and wound infections
91
What does Klebsiella cause in cattle?
mastitis
92
What other infections can Klebsiella cause in animals?
urinary tract infections and reproductive tract infections
93
What is Klebsiella always resistant to?
ampicillin
94
What are the most common Enterobacter species?
cloacae, aerogenes, pantoea (previously Enterobacter) and agglomerans
95
Is Enterobacter VP positive or negative?
positive
96
Is Enterobacter ONPG positive or negative?
positive
97
Is Enterobacter motile?
yes
98
In what species is Enterobacter an enteric pathogen in?
psittacine birds
99
What does Enterobacter cause in cattle?
mastitis
100
Generally, what disease does Enterobacter cause in animals and humans?
urinary tract infections
101
What is the cause of Sterwart's wilt of corn?
Pantoea stewartii
102
Do antibiotics work to treat Enterobacter?
this species can be highly resistant, but 2nd and 3rd generation cephalosporins may be active
103
What does Erwinia carotovora cause?
rot in carrots and potatoes
104
What does Erwinia amylovora cause?
fire blight
105
Pantoea agglomerans produces _____ that inhibit the growth of ______ _____.
antibiotics; Erwinia amylovora
106
What is the best known Serratia species?
Serratia marcescens
107
What do Serratia marcescens colonies look like?
distinctive pink color
108
What does Serratia marcescens cause in dogs?
proliferative osteomyelitis
109
What does Serratia marcescens cause in cattle?
mastitits
110
What are the two most common Proteus species?
mirabilis and vulgaris
111
What diagnostic tests differentiate Proteus mirabilis and from Proteus vulgaris?
Indole (mirabilis is negative, vulgaris is positive) and ODC (mirabilis is postive and vulgaris is negative)
112
Is the Proteus genus urease positive or negative?
positive
113
Is the Proteus genus lactose negative or positive?
negative
114
Is the Proteus genus H2S positive or negative?
positive
115
What is a characteristic factor of Proteus?
swarming
116
What is the natural habitat of Proteus?
in the intestinal tract in low numbers
117
Which species of Proteus is most responsible for infections?
mirabilis
118
What diseases does Proteus cause?
UTIs, otitis externa in dogs, secondary invaders in wounds, peritonitis, and may be associated with diarrhea in the young
119
What is the common species of Morganella?
Morganella morganii
120
What genus did Morganella used to be a part of?
Proteus
121
Is Morganella urease positive or negative?
positive
122
What is the natural habitat of Morganella?
in the environment and in feces - it is also commonly found in the mouth of snakes
123
What disease processes does Morganella cause in humans?
neonatal meningitis, fasciitis, arthritis, skin infections, bacteremia, and CNS infections
124
How does Morganella morganii cause scromboid poisoning?
it produces histidine decarboxylase which reacts with free histidine in the muscle tissues of some fish which results in high levels of histamine - the high levels of histamine causes this
125
How many species are in the Providencia genus?
five
126
What are the most common Providencia species?
stuartii, rettgeri, and alcalifaciens
127
What is the most common isolate of Providencia in humans?
Providencia stuartii
128
What disease processes does Providencia cause?
UTIs, wound infections, and septicemia
129
What animals does Edwardsiella infect?
cold-blooded animals
130
What temperature is Edwardsiella cultured at?
room temperature
131
What disease does Edwardsiella ictaluri cause and in what species?
enteric septicemia in cat fish (ESC)
132
What disease is associated with Hafnia alvei?
extraintestinal disease in humans
133
Where is Citrobacter found?
in soil, water, sewage, and food
134
What do organisms in the Citrobacter genus cause?
urinary tract infections, neonatal meningitis, and septicemia in humans
135
What genus is Citrobacter similar to biochemically?
Salmonella
136
What is the morphology of Yersinia?
small coccobacills
137
What is Yersinia pestis the cause of?
the bubonic plague
138
In what temperature is Yersinia pestis best grown at?
27-29 degrees C
139
Yersinia pestis exists in endemic areas in rodent populations as _______ ______.
sylvatic plague
140
How is Yersinia pestis transmitted?
via fleas feeding on infected animals
141
What specific flea is a good vector for Yersinia pestis transmission?
the oriental rat flea
142
When transmitted to humans, what does Yersinia pestis infect first and what is this termed?
the lymph nodes - they become very swollen and this is referred to as the bubonic form
143
Clinically what is the plague characterized by?
rapid rise in temperature, regional buboes, and a characteristic conjunctivitis
144
What is an extremely fatal form of the plague that is spread via droplet?
the pneumonic form that is essentially 100% fatal
145
What is another extremely fatal form of the plague that is hard to diagnose because buboes take a while to develop?
the septicemic form of the plague
146
How is immunity to the plague acquired?
basically you need to be infected with it and survive or it is in your genetics
147
When do you need to treat for the plague?
very quickly - within 12-15 hours after the fever starts
148
What antimicrobial is useless against Yersinia pestis?
penicillin
149
What are the approved treatments for the plague?
Levofloxacin, tetracycline, chloramphenicol, and kanamycin
150
What disease does Yersinia psuedotuberculosis cause?
epizootics in all animal species
151
What lesions/disease processes are associated with Yersinia pseudotuberculosis in humans?
mesenteric lymphadenitis, diarrhea, and abdominal pain that mimics appendicitis
152
What species is Yersinia enterocolitica pathogenic to?
humans, monkeys, chinchillas, and hares
153
What disease does Yersinia enterocolitica cause?
acute mesenteric lymphadenitis and diarrhea in children
154
Yersinia enterocolitica is the cause for a lot of false ________ in humans.
appendectomies
155
What is disease caused by Yersinia pseudotuberculosis and enterocolitica reffered to?
yersinioses
156
How is yersinioses intitially transmitted?
through food
157
Where is yersinioses most often seen?
in rural areas
158
What diseases and lesions does yersinioses mimic when severe enough?
shigellosis, salmonellosis, and typhoid fever