Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

A U E R S & T > Chapter 9 - Instrument Preparation, Antisepsis and Desinfection > Flashcards

Chapter 9 - Instrument Preparation, Antisepsis and Desinfection Flashcards

1
Q

What is a major cornerstone in preventing hospital-acquired surgical-site infections (SSI) in equine surgery?
A) Use of antibiotics post-surgery
B) Aseptic technique
C) Intravenous fluid administration
D) Intraoperative monitoring

A

B) Aseptic technique

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is essential for quality assurance in veterinary surgery when processing hospital instruments and textiles?
A) Continuous employee supervision
B) Validating cleaning and sterilization processes
C) Training staff on aseptic protocols
D) Using disposable instruments

A

B) Validating cleaning and sterilization processes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Lack of compliance with hygiene protocols and sterilization guidelines has been shown to lead to which of the following?
A) Increased surgical outcomes
B) Decrease in SSI outbreaks
C) Outbreaks of surgical-site infections (SSI)
D) Higher surgical success rates

A

C) Outbreaks of surgical-site infections (SSI)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What has been identified as a major risk factor for contamination of processed surgical instruments?
A) Poor handling practices by staff
B) Overuse of disinfectants
C) Excessive sterilization processes
D) Inadequate surgical technique

A

A) Poor handling practices by staff

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What role do textiles play in hospital-acquired infections?
A) They reduce transmission of pathogens
B) They serve as a significant vehicle for transmission
C) They have no impact on pathogen transmission
D) They promote faster recovery

A

B) They serve as a significant vehicle for transmissio

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Which microorganism can survive for over 90 days on pure polyester material?
A) Clostridium difficile
B) Staphylococci
C) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
D) Enterococci

A

B) Staphylococci

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

According to the study, what percentage of home-laundered scrub suits were found to contain resistant microorganisms at the start of a shift?
A) 10%
B) 25%
C) 39%
D) 50%

A

C) 39%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is a recommended laundry temperature for cleaning contaminated hospital textiles according to the US Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC)?
A) 120°F (49°C)
B) 140°F (60°C)
C) 160°F (70°C)
D) 180°F (82°C)

A

C) 160°F (70°C)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

How long should surgical textiles be washed at 80°C according to European guidelines?
A) 5 minutes
B) 10 minutes
C) 20 minutes
D) 30 minutes

A

B) 10 minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Why are special hospital washer-dryers recommended for laundering hospital textiles?
A) They use less water
B) They reduce pathogen numbers
C) They are cheaper to operate
D) They are easier to maintain

A

B) They reduce pathogen numbers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

When in-clinic laundering is utilized, what should be followed to ensure cleanliness?
A) Use of household washing machines
B) Industrial machines and specific protocols
C) Lower water temperatures
D) Reuse of rinsing water

A

B) Industrial machines and specific protocols

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What should be done with outdoor clothing, such as horse rugs, to prevent contamination?
A) Washed in the same machine as hospital textiles
B) Disinfected with chlorine
C) Washed at different locations with dedicated machines
D) Sprayed with antiseptics

A

C) Washed at different locations with dedicated machines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

How are instruments classified for sterilization and disinfection purposes based on their risk for infection?
A) Nonsterile, semi-sterile, sterile
B) Low-risk, medium-risk, high-risk
C) Noncritical, semicritical, critical
D) Basic, intermediate, advanced

A

C) Noncritical, semicritical, critical

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the primary distinction between sterilization and disinfection?
A) Sterilization destroys all microbial life including spores
B) Disinfection eliminates spores but not vegetative bacteria
C) Sterilization is only for surgical tools
D) Disinfection can be applied to living tissue

A

A) Sterilization destroys all microbial life including spores

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Which sterilization method is commonly used in health care facilities?
A) Cold water immersion
B) Steam under pressure
C) Liquid soap disinfection
D) Ultraviolet light

A

B) Steam under pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is a key factor that affects the efficacy of disinfection and sterilization?
A) Type of medical device used
B) Temperature and pH of the process
C) Time of day the process is performed
D) Length of the surgery

A

B) Temperature and pH of the process

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What should be done to ensure instruments are properly processed from dirty to clean?
A) All processing steps should take place in the same room
B) Each step should occur in a separate room
C) Use only disposable instruments
D) Instruments should bypass the cleaning step if sterilization is fast-tracked

A

B) Each step should occur in a separate room

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

How should instruments be handled in the preparation and packing room before sterilization?
A) They should be immediately packed
B) They should be tested for functionality and cleanliness
C) They should be washed with disinfectant
D) They should be left in open containers

A

B) They should be tested for functionality and cleanliness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the risk if the preparation and packing process is not regarded as clean?
A) Increased turnaround time
B) Recontamination with organic material
C) Loss of instrument functionality
D) Delay in surgical procedures

A

B) Recontamination with organic material

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the role of antiseptics in the disinfection process?
A) They are toxic to living tissues
B) They are used only on inanimate objects
C) They are nontoxic to living tissues
D) They eliminate bacterial spores

A

A) They are toxic to living tissues

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Which chemical method is NOT commonly used for sterilization in healthcare facilities?
A) Dry heat
B) Ethylene oxide (EtO) gas
C) Hydrogen peroxide gas plasma
D) Cold-water disinfection

A

D) Cold-water disinfection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Which factor does NOT influence the efficacy of sterilization and disinfection?
A) Material of the instrument
B) Organic or inorganic load on the instrument
C) Cost of the disinfecting agent
D) Type and level of contamination

A

C) Cost of the disinfecting agent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is a critical factor to consider when applying disinfectants to inanimate objects?
A) Temperature of the room
B) Toxicity to living tissues
C) Color of the disinfectant
D) Contact time and concentration

A

D) Contact time and concentration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the main difference between a disinfectant and an antiseptic?
A) Disinfectants are for living tissues, while antiseptics are for objects
B) Disinfectants are for inanimate objects, while antiseptics are for living tissues
C) Disinfectants kill all microorganisms, while antiseptics kill spores
D) Disinfectants are more effective than antiseptics

A

B) Disinfectants are for inanimate objects, while antiseptics are for living tissues

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What should personnel working in the clean and packing rooms of a surgical facility wear?
A) Casual clothing
B) Surgical scrubs
C) Regular outdoor attire
D) Protective gowns

A

B) Surgical scrubs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

How should packed instruments be moved after preparation?
A) Directly to the surgery room
B) To a sterilization room
C) Stored without sterilization
D) Sent for further cleaning

A

B) To a sterilization room

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Which factor is crucial in processing textiles and instruments to prevent contamination?
A) Speed of the washing cycle
B) Training of staff handling surgical clothing
C) Use of disposable clothing
D) Lack of follow-up after sterilization

A

B) Training of staff handling surgical clothing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What method of sterilization is typically used for instruments that cannot withstand high heat?
A) Cold sterilization
B) Steam sterilization
C) Dry heat sterilization
D) Ethylene oxide (EtO) gas sterilization

A

D) Ethylene oxide (EtO) gas sterilization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is an example of a critical instrument that requires complete sterilization before use?
A) External splint
B) Thermometer
C) Scalpel
D) Hospital bed sheets

A

C) Scalpel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is the primary purpose of prewashing instruments?
A) To sterilize the instruments
B) To remove visible organic and inorganic material
C) To lubricate the instruments
D) To check for instrument damage

A

B) To remove visible organic and inorganic material

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Why is it important to wipe instruments during surgery before placing them back on the surgical table?
A) To prevent loss of the instrument
B) To prevent blood from drying on the instrument
C) To lubricate the instrument
D) To improve surgical efficiency

A

B) To prevent blood from drying on the instrument

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What should be done to instruments immediately after returning from the surgery room?
A) Sterilize them directly
B) Rinse them in cold water
C) Leave them overnight for soaking
D) Pack them for storage

A

B) Rinse them in cold water

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

For how long can instruments be left soaking before final processing is recommended?
A) 1 hour
B) 6 hours
C) 12 hours
D) 24 hours

A

B) 6 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What role does water play in the cleaning and sterilizing of instruments?
A) Dissolves detergents and unclotted blood
B) Increases the temperature of instruments
C) Removes organic material with heat
D) Dissolves the sterilizing agents

A

A) Dissolves detergents and unclotted blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

How does water hardness affect the cleaning process?
A) Increases cleaning efficiency
B) Reduces effectiveness of blood removal in cold water prewashes
C) Has no effect on cleaning
D) Speeds up the sterilization process

A

B) Reduces effectiveness of blood removal in cold water prewashes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is the optimal type of water to use for cleaning surgical instruments?
A) Tap water
B) Distilled water
C) Demineralized or softened water
D) Rainwater

A

C) Demineralized or softened water

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is a prerinsing alternative to manual cleaning for surgical instruments?
A) Alcohol-based rinses
B) Enzymatic detergent solution
C) Boiling in water
D) Chlorine rinse

A

B) Enzymatic detergent solution

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

How long does a typical enzymatic detergent need for effective cleaning at room temperature?
A) 2-5 minutes
B) 10-20 minutes
C) 30-45 minutes
D) 1-2 hours

A

C) 30-45 minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What type of detergent solution is recommended after prewashing instruments?
A) Acidic
B) Neutral or near-neutral pH
C) Alkaline
D) Chlorine-based

A

B) Neutral or near-neutral pH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Why are instruments with narrow lumens, such as cannulas, difficult to clean?
A) They are too large
B) Their internal surfaces are not easily accessible
C) They require more detergent
D) They corrode faster

A

B) Their internal surfaces are not easily accessible

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What should be used to clean instruments containing narrow lumens?
A) Metal brushes
B) Compressed air and soft, lint-free cloths
C) Steel wool
D) Household cleaning agents

A

B) Compressed air and soft, lint-free cloths

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

After cleaning, how should surgical instruments ideally be dried?
A) Air-dried
B) Dried with compressed air
C) Towel dried
D) Left in direct sunlight

A

B) Dried with compressed air

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What cleaning method is most effective at removing impacted debris from complex surfaces?
A) Manual scrubbing
B) Boiling in water
C) Ultrasonic cleaning
D) Alcohol-based cleaning

A

C) Ultrasonic cleaning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Which detergent is preferred during ultrasonic cleaning?
A) Foaming enzymatic detergent
B) Nonfoaming enzymatic detergent
C) Alcohol-based detergent
D) Neutral pH detergent

A

B) Nonfoaming enzymatic detergent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Why must instruments be rinsed after ultrasonic cleaning?
A) To remove water
B) To cool them down
C) To remove loosened debris and cleaner residues
D) To sanitize them

A

C) To remove loosened debris and cleaner residues

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Why is it important to avoid bacterial contamination of ultrasonic cleaning solutions?
A) They can corrode the instruments
B) They can damage the ultrasonic cleaner
C) They can result in endotoxin contamination of surgical instruments
D) They reduce cleaning efficiency

A

C) They can result in endotoxin contamination of surgical instruments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What is the function of an automated washer–disinfector in the cleaning process?
A) To sterilize instruments
B) To combine cleaning with heat disinfection
C) To lubricate instruments
D) To dry instruments

A

B) To combine cleaning with heat disinfection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What temperature is achieved during the disinfection phase in an automated washer–disinfector?
A) 60-65°C
B) 70-75°C
C) 90-93°C
D) 100°C

A

C) 90-93°C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What is the A0-value in the context of disinfection?
A) A measure of time at 100°C
B) A pH measurement
C) A time-temperature equivalent used to measure disinfection effectiveness
D) A measurement of mechanical cleaning efficiency

A

C) A time-temperature equivalent used to measure disinfection effectiveness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What is the recommended A0-value for highly secure disinfection?
A) 1000
B) 2000
C) 5000
D) 10,000

A

C) 5000

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Why are household dishwashers not suitable for processing surgical instruments?
A) They achieve an A0-value of only 285
B) They are too expensive
C) They use too much water
D) They require special detergents

A

A) They achieve an A0-value of only 285

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Why are professional dishwashers recommended over household dishwashers for instrument cleaning?
A) They are less expensive
B) They achieve better heat and water processing for safe disinfection
C) They use less energy
D) They are faster

A

B) They achieve better heat and water processing for safe disinfection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What type of lubricant should be used on surgical instruments before sterilization?
A) Oil-based lubricants
B) Water-soluble lubricants
C) Grease-based lubricants
D) Alcohol-based lubricants

A

B) Water-soluble lubricants

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What is the primary function of packaging surgical instruments?
A) To protect them during surgery
B) To allow sterilization and maintain sterility until use
C) To make them easier to transport
D) To reduce the need for lubrication

A

B) To allow sterilization and maintain sterility until use

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

How should hinged instruments be packed before sterilization?
A) Closed
B) Partially opened
C) Fully opened
D) Disassembled

A

C) Fully opened

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What is the most effective wrapping material for sterilization?
A) Cotton
B) Linen fabrics
C) Disposable nonwoven wrappers
D) Paper

A

C) Disposable nonwoven wrappers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Why is cotton fabric not ideal for wrapping instruments for sterilization?
A) It allows moisture to pass through
B) It is too strong for autoclaving
C) It damages the instruments
D) It prevents proper sterilization

A

A) It allows moisture to pass through

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What type of instrument packaging is not compatible with hydrogen peroxide gas plasma sterilization?
A) Aluminum composite containers
B) Paper pouches
C) Cellulose-containing materials
D) Synthetic nonwoven materials

A

C) Cellulose-containing materials

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Why should the sharp ends of instruments be protected during packing?
A) To avoid damaging the instrument
B) To prevent perforation of the packaging material
C) To prevent accidental cuts during handling
D) To allow air circulation

A

B) To prevent perforation of the packaging material

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

How should surgical packs be labeled?
A) Using a sharp object to engrave on the pack
B) Using a pen on the plastic side of pouches
C) Using a marker on the paper side of the pouch
D) Using adhesive stickers on all packs

A

B) Using a pen on the plastic side of pouches

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What should be done if a surgical pack becomes wet?
A) Let it dry and store it
B) Use it within 24 hours
C) Reprocess it
D) Store it separately from other packs

A

C) Reprocess it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Why is it important to maintain relative humidity and temperature during packing?
A) To ensure packaging is easy
B) To avoid the instruments rusting
C) To prevent condensate buildup and contamination
D) To achieve faster sterilization

A

C) To prevent condensate buildup and contamination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Which process is considered the most secure for packing instruments?
A) Sequential envelope folding
B) Nonsequential wrapping
C) Single packing in plastic
D) Wrapping in cloth

A

A) Sequential envelope folding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Why is it important to wrap instruments snugly but not too tight?
A) To prevent heat loss during sterilization
B) To avoid strikethrough or material breakage
C) To prevent over-drying of the pack
D) To enhance air circulation

A

B) To avoid strikethrough or material breakage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What type of tray is a cost-effective alternative to medical trays for instrument sets?
A) Wooden trays
B) Plastic trays
C) Industrial kitchenware gastro-norm perforated trays
D) Paper trays

A

C) Industrial kitchenware gastro-norm perforated trays

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What should be checked before storing sterilized surgical packs?
A) The cleanliness of the storage area
B) The integrity of the packs
C) The size of the pack
D) The sterilization method

A

B) The integrity of the packs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What is the shelf life of surgical packs in disposable nonwoven wrappers?
A) 30 days
B) 90 days
C) 1 year
D) Indefinite

A

C) 1 year

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Why should packing materials be at room temperature before sterilization?
A) To prevent condensation and ensure sterility
B) To avoid damaging the instruments
C) To ensure faster drying
D) To increase sterilization effectiveness

A

A) To prevent condensation and ensure sterility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What is the advantage of using double packaging for surgical instruments?
A) Increases sterilization speed
B) Increases shelf life and extra security during surgery
C) Reduces weight of the pack
D) Avoids using disposable pouches

A

B) Increases shelf life and extra security during surgery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Why are packs best stored in closed shelving systems?
A) To maintain a sterile environment
B) To extend sterility shelf life
C) To avoid physical damage to instruments
D) To limit access to unauthorized personnel

A

B) To extend sterility shelf life

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

What is the primary reason surgical packs should not be stacked or pushed into drawers?
A) It causes difficulty in retrieval
B) It damages the integrity of the packing
C) It leads to contamination
D) It shortens the shelf life

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Shelf life of surgical packs is primarily related to which factor?
A) Expiration date
B) Time of sterilization
C) Event-related factors
D) Type of instruments packed

A

C) Event-related factors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Which environmental factors increase the risk of contamination of surgical packs?
A) Bioburden and traffic
B) Lighting and storage temperature
C) Noise levels and cleanliness
D) Distance from the sterilization unit

A

A) Bioburden and traffic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Sterility maintenance covers should be used in which of the following circumstances?
A) When instruments are being immediately used
B) When the packs will be stored for long periods
C) When the sterilization process is ongoing
D) When the items are hot and moist

A

B) When the packs will be stored for long periods

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

When should sterility maintenance covers be applied?
A) Before sterilization begins
B) During the drying process
C) After items are cool and dry
D) Immediately after the sterilization process

A

C) After items are cool and dry

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

What contamination risk is common during the unpacking of surgical instruments?
A) Airborne contamination
B) Temperature fluctuations
C) Improper handling
D) Lack of sterilization indicators

A

C) Improper handling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Which type of contamination is most common in processed surgical instruments?
A) Fungal
B) Viral
C) Protein residues and biofilm
D) Prions

A

C) Protein residues and biofilm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Which instrument design increases the adherence of biofilm?
A) Smooth surfaces
B) Instruments with lumens and crevices
C) Stainless steel tools
D) Short and simple tools

A

B) Instruments with lumens and crevices

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Which of the following is a key factor in reducing biofilm formation?
A) Using chemical sterilizers
B) Delaying the sterilization process
C) Shortening the time between use and reprocessing
D) Increasing water temperature

A

C) Shortening the time between use and reprocessing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

ATP bioluminescence tests are used to detect:
A) Heat sterilization effectiveness
B) Residual contamination
C) Humidity levels in storage rooms
D) Proper mechanical indicator function

A

B) Residual contamination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Which sterilization indicator provides the highest level of sterility assurance?
A) Chemical indicators
B) Mechanical indicators
C) Biological indicators
D) Temperature gauges

A

C) Biological indicators

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

What does a Sterility Assurance Level (SAL) of 10⁻⁶ imply?
A) One in a million chance for a non-sterile unit
B) One in a million chance for successful sterilization
C) One in ten thousand chance for contamination
D) One in a billion chance for recontamination

A

A) One in a million chance for a non-sterile unit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

How should bowls be arranged in an autoclave to ensure proper sterilization?
A) Placed flat on the surface
B) Stacked on top of each other
C) With openings facing down or to the side
D) Filled with water

A

C) With openings facing down or to the side

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Which type of bacteria spores are used to calibrate steam sterilization effectiveness?
A) Coagulase-negative staphylococci
B) Bacillus subtilis
C) Geobacillus stearothermophilus
D) Escherichia coli

A

C) Geobacillus stearothermophilus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Why should packs be loaded loosely in the autoclave?
A) To prevent moisture buildup
B) To allow for even steam circulation
C) To reduce the number of packs sterilized at once
D) To protect them from physical damage

A

B) To allow for even steam circulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

What is a critical feature of proper sterilization in valve containers?
A) Sealing the container tightly
B) Using chemical sterilants inside
C) Ensuring the valve is open
D) Adding extra cotton plugs inside

A

C) Ensuring the valve is open

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

What happens when steam contacts a cooler surface during sterilization?
A) Evaporation
B) Condensation
C) Temperature equalization
D) Air displacement

A

B) Condensation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

What is the recommended drying time for low-density items like plastic or rubber after steam sterilization?
A) 5 minutes
B) 15 to 30 minutes
C) 60 minutes
D) No drying time is needed

A

B) 15 to 30 minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

Why is flash sterilization not recommended for routine use?
A) It uses chemical sterilants
B) It does not remove bioburden effectively
C) It involves high temperatures
D) It is used only in emergencies or for contaminated items

A

D) It is used only in emergencies or for contaminated items

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

What is the purpose of the Bowie-Dick test?
A) To check for leaks in autoclaves
B) To confirm that air removal and steam penetration are complete
C) To measure ATP levels in autoclaves
D) To test mechanical indicator accuracy

A

B) To confirm that air removal and steam penetration are complete

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

Why is prion contamination a concern in ruminant surgeries?
A) Prions are easily destroyed by steam sterilization
B) Prions resist conventional sterilization methods
C) Prions are not transmitted through surgical instruments
D) Prions are only found in humans

A

B) Prions resist conventional sterilization methods

93
Q

What sterilization process is used for items sensitive to heat or chemicals?
A) Steam sterilization
B) Filtration
C) Radiation
D) Ultrasonic cleaning

A

C) Radiation

94
Q

What is the main function of a sterility maintenance cover?
A) To facilitate air drying
B) To prevent dust and moisture contamination
C) To provide additional sterilization
D) To reduce storage space

A

B) To prevent dust and moisture contamination

95
Q

Why should instruments be allowed to cool before applying sterility maintenance covers?
A) To avoid plastic degradation
B) To prevent condensation
C) To enhance chemical indicator effectiveness
D) To ensure quicker storage

A

B) To prevent condensation

96
Q

Why is air displacement by steam critical in an autoclave?
A) To prevent the formation of air pockets
B) To ensure rapid cooling of instruments
C) To create high-temperature dry heat
D) To increase the pressure inside the autoclave

A

A) To prevent the formation of air pockets

97
Q

Which type of filtration is commonly used for the preparation of small volumes of fluids in practice settings?
A) Depth filtration
B) Surface filtration
C) Sieve filtration
D) Ultraviolet filtration

A

A) Depth filtration

98
Q

When loading items into an autoclave, how should single pouches be placed?
A) Laid flat on the surface
B) Stacked on top of each other
C) Spaced properly in racks
D) Placed inside another sterilized container

A

C) Spaced properly in racks

99
Q

Why should valves in cannulas be left open during autoclaving?
A) To prevent pressure buildup
B) To allow proper steam penetration
C) To avoid condensation
D) To preserve valve function

A

B) To allow proper steam penetration

100
Q

What is the risk of removing items prematurely from the sterilizer when they are still wet?
A) Incomplete drying
B) Risk of thermal shock
C) Recontamination of the load
D) Overexposure to high temperatures

A

C) Recontamination of the load

101
Q

How should heavier or denser items be positioned inside the autoclave?
A) Placed on the top shelves
B) Placed on the bottom shelves
C) Placed in the middle of the load
D) Stacked in layers

A

B) Placed on the bottom shelves

102
Q

What is the primary reason for placing a cotton sheet or lint-free towel on each shelf of an autoclave?
A) To absorb moisture and prevent wet packs
B) To maintain sterility
C) To increase temperature distribution
D) To protect the instruments from physical damage

A

A) To absorb moisture and prevent wet packs

103
Q

What is the key factor in ensuring asepsis during steam sterilization?
A) High air pressure
B) Proper heat distribution
C) Control of time, temperature, and pressure
D) Use of chemical indicators inside the pack

A

C) Control of time, temperature, and pressure

104
Q

In the context of sterilization, what does “overkill” refer to?
A) Using excessive heat to destroy pathogens
B) Ensuring the sterilization process kills more than the usual bioburden
C) Overloading the autoclave with instruments
D) Prolonging exposure time for delicate instruments

A

B) Ensuring the sterilization process kills more than the usual bioburden

105
Q

Which factor contributes to the recontamination risk in improperly functioning autoclaves?
A) Inadequate drying times
B) Excessive exposure to heat
C) Leakages in the autoclave system
D) Overuse of sterilization chemicals

A

C) Leakages in the autoclave system

106
Q

The SAL of a sterilization process is described by:
A) Time to achieve complete sterilization
B) The likelihood of contamination after sterilization
C) Temperature and pressure readings in the autoclave
D) The color change in the chemical indicator

A

B) The likelihood of contamination after sterilization

107
Q

How do chemical indicators help during the sterilization process?
A) By guaranteeing complete sterilization
B) By providing evidence that packs have reached sterilization temperatures
C) By detecting bioburden inside the pack
D) By neutralizing any residual contamination

A

B) By providing evidence that packs have reached sterilization temperatures

108
Q

Which microorganisms are typically used to test biological sterilization indicators?
A) E. coli
B) Prions
C) Heat-resistant bacterial spores
D) Biofilm-forming bacteria

A

C) Heat-resistant bacterial spores

109
Q

What is the function of the mechanical indicators used in sterilization?
A) To monitor bioburden on instruments
B) To detect temperature and pressure fluctuations
C) To control the drying process
D) To track the type of sterilization cycle used

A

B) To detect temperature and pressure fluctuations

110
Q

Flash sterilization is contraindicated for:
A) Surgical tools made of plastic
B) Instruments contaminated during surgery
C) Implantable devices
D) Non-porous instruments

A

C) Implantable devices

111
Q

What is the primary purpose of low-temperature sterilization (LTS)?

A) Sterilizing heat-tolerant instruments
B) Sterilizing instruments that cannot withstand high temperatures
C) Sterilizing large, simple instruments
D) Sterilizing instruments without pre-cleaning
A

B) Sterilizing instruments that cannot withstand high temperatures

112
Q

How does lumen diameter affect hydrogen peroxide gas plasma sterilization?

A) Smaller diameter improves efficacy
B) Smaller diameter decreases efficacy
C) Diameter does not affect sterilization
D) Larger diameter decreases efficacy
A

B) Smaller diameter decreases efficacy

113
Q

What material is particularly difficult to clean before LTS sterilization?

A) Metal instruments
B) Ceramic instruments
C) Plastic single-use instruments
D) Wooden instruments
A

C) Plastic single-use instruments

114
Q

thylene oxide (EtO) kills microorganisms by:

A) Causing dehydration
B) Inactivating proteins, DNA, and RNA
C) Disrupting cell membranes
D) Oxidizing enzymes
A

B) Inactivating proteins, DNA, and RNA

115
Q

What is typically mixed with ethylene oxide to reduce flammability?

A) CO2 or Freon
B) Nitrogen
C) Oxygen
D) Helium
A

A) CO2 or Freon

116
Q

What environmental concern is associated with Freon used with EtO?

A) It is toxic to humans
B) It contributes to ozone depletion
C) It creates toxic by-products
D) It is a greenhouse gas
A

B) It contributes to ozone depletion

117
Q

What is the preferred diluent for EtO sterilization?

A) Oxygen
B) Freon
C) CO2
D) Nitrogen
A

C) CO2

118
Q

What stage is NOT part of the basic EtO sterilization cycle?

A) Preconditioning
B) Gas introduction
C) Cooling
D) Air washes
A

C) Cooling

119
Q

What is the purpose of aeration after EtO sterilization?

A) To kill remaining microorganisms
B) To remove noxious EtO residues
C) To dry sterilized materials
D) To prevent corrosion
A

B) To remove noxious EtO residues

120
Q

What effect does residual moisture in needles and tubing have on EtO sterilization?

A) Enhances sterilization
B) Prevents sterilization
C) Reduces sterilization efficacy
D) Has no effect
A

C) Reduces sterilization efficacy

121
Q

What is the typical duration of mechanical aeration after EtO sterilization?

A) 2-4 hours
B) 8-12 hours
C) 24 hours
D) 48 hours
A

B) 8-12 hours

122
Q

How long should EtO-sterilized implants be aerated in ambient room conditions?

A) 2 days
B) 7 days
C) 10 days
D) 2 weeks
A

D) 2 weeks

123
Q

Which of the following instruments is unsuitable for gas plasma sterilization?

A) Rigid endoscopy lenses
B) Insulated electrosurgery instruments
C) Flexible endoscopes
D) Metal instruments
A

C) Flexible endoscopes

124
Q

What phase is unnecessary in hydrogen peroxide gas plasma sterilization?

A) Preconditioning
B) Gas introduction
C) Aeration
D) Drying
A

C) Aeration

125
Q

Why must items be fully dry before hydrogen peroxide gas plasma sterilization?

A) Moisture can dilute hydrogen peroxide
B) Moisture inhibits vacuum formation
C) Moisture promotes microbial growth
D) Moisture is unnecessary
A

B) Moisture inhibits vacuum formation

126
Q

What is a potential drawback of using hydrogen peroxide gas plasma sterilization?

A) It dulls surgical instruments
B) It creates toxic residues
C) It is unsuitable for very long narrow lumens
D) It requires extended drying times
A

C) It is unsuitable for very long narrow lumens

127
Q

Which compound is NOT included in Steris S40 concentrate?

A) Acetic acid
B) Peracetic acid
C) Glutaraldehyde
D) Hydrogen peroxide
A

C) Glutaraldehyde

128
Q

What can happen if an inappropriate connector is used for bronchoscope sterilization?

A) The bronchoscope may melt
B) The bronchoscope may become clogged
C) Infections may be transmitted
D) The bronchoscope may lose clarity
A

C) Infections may be transmitted

129
Q

Which disinfectant is most commonly used for high-level disinfection of endoscopes?

A) Formaldehyde
B) Glutaraldehyde
C) Hydrogen peroxide
D) Ethylene oxide
A

B) Glutaraldehyde

130
Q

Which compound is used to neutralize glutaraldehyde before disposal?

A) Sodium bisulfate
B) Peracetic acid
C) Hydrogen peroxide
D) Ethylene oxide
A

A) Sodium bisulfate

131
Q

Which pH range maximizes glutaraldehyde activity?

A) 3-4
B) 5-6
C) 7.5-8.5
D) 9-10
A

C) 7.5-8.5

132
Q

How often should glutaraldehyde solutions be checked for effectiveness?

A) Daily
B) Weekly
C) Before each use
D) After sterilization
A

C) Before each use

133
Q

What is a common adverse effect of glutaraldehyde exposure for healthcare workers?

A) Skin corrosion
B) Cancer
C) Respiratory irritation
D) Memory loss
A

C) Respiratory irritation

134
Q

Ortho-phthalaldehyde (OPA) has an advantage over glutaraldehyde because it:

A) Requires no activation
B) Has a longer shelf life
C) Produces no fumes
D) All of the above
A

D) All of the above

135
Q

What is a potential risk when using ortho-phthalaldehyde?

A) It may cause corrosion of metal instruments
B) It can cause allergic reactions in urologic patients
C) It forms toxic by-products
D) It requires prolonged contact times
A

B) It can cause allergic reactions in urologic patients

136
Q

Succindialdehyde has excellent compatibility with which type of instruments?

A) Flexible endoscopes
B) Metal implants
C) Single-use plastics
D) Wooden instruments
A

A) Flexible endoscopes

137
Q

What limits the use of formaldehyde in healthcare settings?

A) Its slow activity
B) Its cost
C) Its carcinogenic side effects and odor
D) Its limited effectiveness
A

C) Its carcinogenic side effects and odor

138
Q

Which chemical is safer for the environment and less toxic to staff than glutaraldehyde?

A) Peracetic acid (PAA)
B) Formaldehyde
C) Ethylene oxide
D) Ortho-phthalaldehyde
A

A) Peracetic acid (PAA)

139
Q

Peracetic acid is typically used in which form?

A) Gas
B) Liquid
C) Solid
D) Powder
A

B) Liquid

140
Q

What is the main drawback of using peracetic acid for sterilization?

A) It is carcinogenic
B) It is expensive
C) It cannot be used for flexible endoscopes
D) It leaves toxic residues
A

B) It is expensive

141
Q

Which of the following is NOT a by-product of hydrogen peroxide sterilization?

A) Oxygen
B) Water
C) Carbon dioxide
D) None of the above
A

C) Carbon dioxide

142
Q

Hydrogen peroxide sterilization primarily kills microorganisms by:

A) Alkylation
B) Protein denaturation
C) Oxidizing cell components
D) Free radical formation
A

C) Oxidizing cell components

143
Q

The presence of which enzyme can protect bacteria against hydrogen peroxide sterilization?

A) Protease
B) Catalase
C) Amylase
D) Lipase
A

B) Catalase

144
Q

What concentration of hydrogen peroxide is generally required for effective sterilization?

A) 0.5-1%
B) 1-3%
C) 7.5-25%
D) 30-50%
A

D) 30-50%

145
Q

What happens if instruments are not properly dried before sterilization in a gas plasma system?

A) They remain unsterilized
B) They corrode
C) They remain damp
D) They become deformed
A

A) They remain unsterilized

146
Q

What is the typical duration of a hydrogen peroxide gas plasma sterilization cycle?

A) 30-75 minutes
B) 2-4 hours
C) 5-10 hours
D) 24 hours
A

A) 30-75 minutes

147
Q

For what reason might high levels of humidity affect the efficacy of LTS methods like hydrogen peroxide?

A) Hydrogen peroxide decomposes in moisture
B) High humidity prevents plasma formation
C) High humidity causes instrument corrosion
D) High humidity does not affect sterilization
A

A) Hydrogen peroxide decomposes in moisture

148
Q

How does UV light contribute to sterilization processes?

A) By dehydrating microbes
B) By causing DNA damage in microorganisms
C) By denaturing proteins
D) By creating free radicals
A

B) By causing DNA damage in microorganisms

149
Q

Why is glutaraldehyde’s broad-spectrum efficacy important in a clinical setting?

A) It minimizes the risk of nosocomial infections
B) It sterilizes instruments rapidly
C) It is safe for all instrument types
D) It requires minimal pre-cleaning
A

A) It minimizes the risk of nosocomial infections

150
Q

What is the primary advantage of low-temperature sterilization over high-temperature methods?

A) Faster cycles
B) Ability to sterilize delicate instruments
C) Fewer toxic by-products
D) Simpler process
A

B) Ability to sterilize delicate instruments

151
Q

What is the main advantage of VHP over liquid hydrogen peroxide for sterilization?

A) It forms microcondensation on surfaces
B) It prevents condensation on surfaces
C) It works at high temperatures
D) It requires no sealing of enclosures
A

B) It prevents condensation on surfaces

152
Q

Which of the following methods involves injecting H2O2 vapor until microcondensation forms on surfaces?

A) Steris VHP system
B) Bioquell HPV system
C) CleanTop WM-S system
D) Virkon peroxygenic acid
A

B) Bioquell HPV system

153
Q

Which of the following characteristics is shared by both VHP and HPV systems?

A) They both work by creating microcondensation
B) They both reduce relative humidity
C) They both prevent surface condensation
D) They both use vaporized hydrogen peroxide
A

D) They both use vaporized hydrogen peroxide

154
Q

Electrolyzed strong acid water (EAW) has a pH of less than ___.

A) 7
B) 6
C) 5
D) 3
A

D) 3

155
Q

The bactericidal effect of EAW is due to the formation of ____ during electrolysis.

A) Hydroxy radicals
B) Chlorine dioxide
C) Sodium hypochlorite
D) Hypochlorous acid
A

A) Hydroxy radicals

156
Q

What happens to EAW’s bactericidal effect in the presence of organic matter or biofilm?

A) It is enhanced
B) It remains the same
C) It drastically decreases
D) It becomes toxic
A

C) It drastically decreases

157
Q

Which of the following is the main active ingredient in Sterilox (Optident)?

A) Sodium hypochlorite
B) Hypochlorous acid
C) Peracetic acid
D) Chlorine dioxide
A

B) Hypochlorous acid

158
Q

Why must strong EAW solutions like Sterilox be stored for no longer than 24 hours?

A) They lose their efficacy
B) They become toxic
C) They increase in pH
D) They form biofilms
A

A) They lose their efficacy

159
Q

What property makes hypochlorites commonly used as disinfectants?

A) They are slow-acting
B) They have a broad spectrum of antimicrobial activity
C) They leave toxic residues
D) They are unaffected by organic matter
A

B) They have a broad spectrum of antimicrobial activity

160
Q

Hypochlorous acid (HOCl) is primarily effective in which pH range?

A) Low pH
B) High pH
C) Neutral pH
D) Any pH
A

A) Low pH

161
Q

emand-release chlorine dioxide is preferred in health care settings because it _____.

A) Requires no mixing
B) Has longer retention on surfaces
C) Does not irritate the skin
D) Is less corrosive than other chlorine compounds
A

B) Has longer retention on surfaces

162
Q

Which of the following microorganisms can chlorine dioxide kill in less than 5 minutes?

A) Fungi
B) Mycobacteria and viruses
C) Endospores
D) Molds
A

B) Mycobacteria and viruses

163
Q

Why is chlorine dioxide not suitable for use on flexible endoscopes?

A) It discolors the casing
B) It does not kill viruses
C) It has no residual effect
D) It is not broad-spectrum
A

A) It discolors the casing

164
Q

What is the major component of Virkon peroxygenic acid?

A) Potassium monoperoxysulfate
B) Sodium hypochlorite
C) Chlorine dioxide
D) Peracetic acid
A

A) Potassium monoperoxysulfate

165
Q

Why is Virkon considered unsuitable for disinfecting medical devices?

A) It forms toxic by-products
B) It does not kill endospores within a practical time
C) It is expensive
D) It evaporates too quickly
A

B) It does not kill endospores within a practical time

166
Q

What is one common veterinary use of Virkon in hospitals?

A) Sterilizing endoscopes
B) Disinfecting surgical tools
C) Reducing bacterial contamination on boots
D) Disinfecting dental units
A

C) Reducing bacterial contamination on boots

167
Q

Alcohols are ineffective in the presence of which of the following?

A) Organic debris
B) Fungi
C) Moist surfaces
D) Detergents
A

A) Organic debris

168
Q

What is the optimal concentration range of alcohol for its maximal antimicrobial effect?

A) 30%-50%
B) 50%-70%
C) 60%-90%
D) 90%-100%
A

C) 60%-90%

169
Q

Which alcohol has the strongest bactericidal efficacy?

A) Ethanol
B) Isopropanol
C) n-Propanol
D) Methanol
A

C) n-Propanol

170
Q

Ethanol is most effective against which type of pathogens?

A) Bacterial spores
B) Enveloped viruses
C) Mycobacteria
D) Yeasts
A

B) Enveloped viruses

171
Q

Chlorhexidine gluconate is typically used in which concentration range for skin antisepsis?

A) 0.5%-0.75%
B) 1%-2%
C) 2%-4%
D) 5%-7%
A

C) 2%-4%

172
Q

What is the primary mechanism of action of chlorhexidine (CHX) on bacteria?

A) Disruption of bacterial protein synthesis
B) Inhibition of DNA replication
C) Damage to the cytoplasmic membrane
D) Destruction of bacterial cell wall
A

C) Damage to the cytoplasmic membrane

173
Q

CHX is reported to have limited effectiveness against which of the following?

A) Gram-negative bacteria
B) Gram-positive bacteria
C) Methicillin-resistant S. aureus (MRSA)
D) Mycobacteria
A

C) Methicillin-resistant S. aureus (MRSA)

174
Q

CHX efficacy is reduced in the presence of which material?

A) Chlorine dioxide
B) Organic matter
C) Hypochlorous acid
D) Alcohols
A

B) Organic matter

175
Q

Why is CHX potentially ototoxic and harmful to the cornea?

A) It causes rapid DNA damage
B) It destroys lipid membranes
C) It has high cytotoxicity at bactericidal concentrations
D) It generates toxic free radicals
A

C) It has high cytotoxicity at bactericidal concentrations

176
Q

In which type of solution is ethanol less effective for sterilization?

A) 100% ethanol solution
B) 60%-90% ethanol in water
C) 70%-90% ethanol in saline
D) 50%-60% ethanol solution
A

A) 100% ethanol solution

177
Q

Which disinfectant can inactivate bacterial spores within a practical timeframe?

A) Chlorhexidine
B) Alcohols
C) Peracetic acid
D) Hypochlorous acid
A

C) Peracetic acid

178
Q

Chlorine dioxide preparations are effective against Bacillus atrophaeus spores in how long?

A) 1 minute
B) 2.5 minutes
C) 5 minutes
D) 10 minutes
A

B) 2.5 minutes

179
Q

What pH-dependent form of chlorine is responsible for its microbicidal action?

A) Hypochlorite ion (OCl-)
B) Hypochlorous acid (HOCl)
C) Sodium chlorite
D) Chlorine dioxide
A

B) Hypochlorous acid (HOCl)

180
Q

lectrolyzed weak acid water (EAW) has a pH range between:

A) 1-2
B) 4-6
C) 7-8
D) 9-10
A

B) 4-6

181
Q

Virkon kills bacterial spores in how long?

A) 30 minutes
B) 1 hour
C) 5 minutes
D) 2 hours
A
182
Q

What makes peracetic acid superior for sterilizing heat-sensitive instruments?

A) It is non-corrosive
B) It works at room temperature
C) It leaves no toxic residues
D) It enhances metal instruments
A

B) It works at room temperature

183
Q

What is the primary disadvantage of using EAW in healthcare settings?

A) It is not cost-effective
B) It is less effective in the presence of biofilms
C) It requires a long exposure time
D) It is corrosive to instruments
A

B) It is less effective in the presence of biofilms

184
Q

Alcohol-based hand rubs are typically most effective when containing:

A) 40%-60% alcohol
B) 60%-95% alcohol
C) 95%-100% alcohol
D) 100% alcohol
A

B) 60%-95% alcohol

185
Q

Why is VHP favored over traditional sterilization methods in some healthcare environments?

A) It is more cost-effective
B) It prevents condensation on surfaces
C) It is compatible with electronics
D) It works faster on biofilms
A

C) It is compatible with electronics

186
Q

Which disinfectant is reported to lose effectiveness in direct sunlight?

A) Hypochlorous acid
B) Isopropanol
C) Chlorhexidine
D) Peracetic acid
A

A) Hypochlorous acid

187
Q

The primary mode of action of alcohols against bacteria is:

A) Disruption of DNA
B) Denaturation of proteins
C) Oxidation of cell walls
D) Chelation of metals
A

B) Denaturation of proteins

188
Q

How does chlorine dioxide differ from other chlorine-based disinfectants?

A) It does not require activation
B) It is stable over long periods
C) It is effective at neutral pH
D) It generates toxic by-products
A

C) It is effective at neutral pH

189
Q

What effect does ethanol have on bacterial endospores?

A) It inactivates them immediately
B) It only reduces their viability
C) It enhances their growth
D) It has no significant effect
A

D) It has no significant effect

190
Q

What is the primary mode of action of inorganic iodine?

A) Disrupts DNA
B) Alters the cytoplasmic membrane
C) Penetrates the cell wall and disrupts protein and nucleic acids
D) Inhibits RNA synthesis
A

C) Penetrates the cell wall and disrupts protein and nucleic acids

191
Q

Why is resistance development against elemental iodine considered unlikely?

A) It is highly concentrated
B) It binds irreversibly to microbial proteins
C) Its rapid action prevents adaptive resistance
D) It accumulates inside bacterial cells
A

C) Its rapid action prevents adaptive resistance

192
Q

Which of the following is NOT a disadvantage of using iodine in its elemental form?

A) Tissue irritation
B) Staining
C) Rapid degradation in organic matter
D) Radiopacity
A

C) Rapid degradation in organic matter

193
Q

What is the primary function of the polyvinylpyrrolidone (PVP) carrier in iodophors like Betadine?

A) Enhances staining of tissues
B) Reduces iodine's corrosiveness
C) Reduces iodine's antimicrobial spectrum
D) Enhances tissue penetration
A

B) Reduces iodine’s corrosiveness

194
Q

What happens when a 10% PVP-I2 solution is diluted?

A) Free iodine is neutralized
B) More free iodine is released
C) Iodine binds more strongly to PVP
D) The bactericidal activity is reduced
A

B) More free iodine is released

195
Q

What is the minimum contact time required for PVP-I2 to release free iodine?

A) 30 seconds
B) 2 minutes
C) 5 minutes
D) 15 minutes
A

B) 2 minutes

196
Q

Which solution is considered more effective against spores?

A) PVP-I2 in water
B) PVP-I2 in alcohol
C) Iodine tinctures
D) Chlorhexidine in alcohol
A

A) PVP-I2 in water

197
Q

What is the effect of adding detergents to PVP-I2 surgical scrubs?

A) Increases free iodine release
B) Decreases iodine's effectiveness
C) Prevents iodine binding to tissues
D) Neutralizes iodine completely
A

B) Decreases iodine’s effectiveness

198
Q

What is a noted benefit of PVP-I2 as an ophthalmic solution?

A) Higher bactericidal activity at 10% concentration
B) Effective against fungal infections
C) Cornea-friendly properties
D) Superior spore-killing ability
A

C) Cornea-friendly properties

199
Q

How does 5% PVP-I2 solution compare with a 3-day antibiotic course in preventing endophthalmitis post-surgery?

A) It is less effective
B) It has comparable efficacy
C) It is significantly more effective
D) It is only effective for 24 hours
A

B) It has comparable efficacy

200
Q

Why is PVP-I2 not recommended for lavage of the peritoneal cavity in horses?

A) It induces metabolic acidosis
B) It causes tissue necrosis
C) It binds poorly to organic material
D) It has no bactericidal effect in this area
A

A) It induces metabolic acidosis

201
Q

What concentration of PVP-I2 was found to disrupt neutrophil viability in vitro?

A) 0.01%
B) 0.05%
C) 0.1%
D) 0.5%
A

B) 0.05%

202
Q

Which antiseptic agent is effective against both MRSA and gram-negative bacteria in body washes?

A) Chlorhexidine
B) Octenidine
C) PVP-I2
D) Benzalkonium chloride
A

B) Octenidine

203
Q

What microbial population was least susceptible to octenidine in studies?

A) Staphylococcus epidermidis
B) Escherichia coli
C) Candida albicans
D) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
A

B) Escherichia coli

204
Q

What distinguishes octenidine from CHX in terms of microbial action?

A) Octenidine is less effective against gram-positive bacteria
B) Octenidine does not harm human tissues
C) CHX is more effective at low concentrations
D) CHX acts faster
A

B) Octenidine does not harm human tissues

205
Q

Why was hexachlorophene use significantly curtailed?

A) It was inactivated by organic material
B) It caused neurotoxicity through dermal exposure
C) It became less effective over time
D) It stained tissues
A

B) It caused neurotoxicity through dermal exposure

206
Q

Quaternary ammonium compounds are ineffective against which of the following?

A) Gram-negative bacteria
B) Viruses
C) Gram-positive bacteria
D) Lipid-based microbes
A

B) Viruses

207
Q

Which of the following antiseptics is used in contact lens solutions?

A) Phenol
B) Polyhexamethylene biguanide (PHMB)
C) Quaternary ammonium compounds
D) Octenidine
A

B) Polyhexamethylene biguanide (PHMB)

208
Q

What is the primary advantage of PHMB over saline in wound care?

A) Higher cytotoxicity
B) Faster antimicrobial action
C) Better tissue compatibility
D) Reduced residual activity
A

C) Better tissue compatibility

209
Q

What mechanism limits the combination of CHX and PVP-I2 in antiseptic solutions?

A) CHX neutralizes iodine
B) Both agents amplify each other’s toxicity
C) They form an insoluble compound
D) They have overlapping microbial targets
A

A) CHX neutralizes iodine

210
Q

What is one main concern of the sequential use of CHX and PVP-I2?

A) Increased risk of skin damage
B) Risk of neutralizing active ingredients
C) Slower microbial action
D) Limited applicability in sterile environments
A

B) Risk of neutralizing active ingredients

211
Q

A) Its ability to inhibit spores
B) Its combination with alcohol
C) Its residual activity
D) Its ability to prevent fungal growth

A

B) Its combination with alcohol

212
Q

What is the effect of high CHX exposures in hospital settings?

A) Increased antimicrobial effectiveness
B) Reduced bacterial resistance development
C) Increased resistance rates
D) Inactivation by organic material
A

C) Increased resistance rates

213
Q

Why should diluted antiseptic solutions like iodine be discouraged for sinus lavages?

A) They promote resistance development
B) They cause tissue necrosis
C) They are inactivated by organic material
D) They do not kill fungi effectively
A

A) They promote resistance development

214
Q

How does resistance to antiseptics like CHX commonly develop in bacteria?

A) Via mutations in ribosomal RNA
B) Through enhanced efflux mechanisms
C) By disrupting the bacterial cell wall
D) Through increased production of bacterial toxins
A

B) Through enhanced efflux mechanisms

215
Q

What is the reported minimum iodine concentration required to be bactericidal in vitro?

A) 0.1%
B) 0.5%
C) 1.0%
D) 5.0%
A

A) 0.1%

216
Q

Which of the following is a more natural alternative with less resistance potential in sinus washes?

A) Octenidine
B) Hypertonic saline
C) PVP-I2
D) PHMB
A

B) Hypertonic saline

217
Q

What happens if free iodine is neutralized in vivo?

A) Bactericidal activity increases
B) Iodine is converted into iodide
C) The solution becomes more acidic
D) More free iodine is liberated
A

D) More free iodine is liberated

218
Q

What is the most common adverse effect associated with PHMB solutions in wound care?

A) Cytotoxicity
B) Skin irritation
C) Delayed wound healing
D) Allergic reactions
A
219
Q

Which of the following microorganisms shows the greatest susceptibility to octenidine?

A) Staphylococcus epidermidis
B) Escherichia coli
C) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
D) Candida albicans
A

A) Staphylococcus epidermidis

220
Q

Why is PVP-I2 considered cornea-friendly?

A) It is less acidic than other iodine preparations
B) It is less irritating at high concentrations
C) It causes less staining on the cornea
D) It releases iodine slowly to minimize toxicity
A

D) It releases iodine slowly to minimize toxicity

221
Q

What class of chemicals does octenidine belong to?

A) Bisphenols
B) Biguanides
C) Quaternary ammonium compounds
D) Bispyridines
A

D) Bispyridines

222
Q

What is the key reason that sequential use of CHX and PVP-I2 can be more effective than using either agent alone?

A) It avoids neutralization of each agent
B) They act on different microbial targets
C) Synergistic effect against S. aureus
D) Increased tissue penetration
A

C) Synergistic effect against S. aureus

223
Q

What is the main risk associated with the long-term use of medicated soaps like CHX in hospitals?

A) Skin irritation
B) Increased resistance to antibiotics
C) Disruption of the skin microbiome
D) Allergic reactions
A

C) Disruption of the skin microbiome

224
Q

Why is CHX resistance considered rare in gram-positive bacteria?

A) Gram-positive bacteria lack efflux mechanisms
B) CHX forms stronger bonds with gram-positive cell walls
C) CHX’s concentration in hospitals is generally low
D) Gram-positive bacteria have less envelope permeability
A

D) Gram-positive bacteria have less envelope permeability

225
Q

Which of the following antiseptics has an anti-inflammatory effect in wound care?

A) Octenidine
B) PHMB
C) PVP-I2
D) Benzalkonium chloride
A

B) PHMB

226
Q

In which condition is iodine-based antiseptics shown to be more effective than CHX?

A) Against spores
B) Against MRSA
C) In preventing viral infections
D) In preventing fungal growth
A

B) Against MRSA

227
Q

Which antiseptic has its bactericidal activity significantly enhanced by alcohol?

A) PHMB
B) CHX
C) PVP-I2
D) Octenidine
A

B) CHX

228
Q

Which factor is considered the most important in preventing surgical site infections (SSIs)?

A) Using high concentrations of antiseptics
B) Adherence to protocols
C) Choice of antiseptic
D) Avoiding sequential use of antiseptics
A

B) Adherence to protocols

229
Q

What should be prioritized when selecting an antiseptic for patient preparation?

A) The cost of the antiseptic
B) The antimicrobial profile and tissue sensitivity
C) The availability of alcohol in the formulation
D) The length of contact time needed
A

B) The antimicrobial profile and tissue sensitivity

A U E R S & T (15 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions