Chapter 101 - Stifle Flashcards

1
Q

What is the approximate volume of the medial femorotibial compartment (MFT) in mL?
a) 31.67 mL ± 5.77 mL
b) 41.67 mL ± 5.77 mL
c) 51.67 mL ± 2.89 mL
d) 61.67 mL ± 2.89 mL

A

Answer: b) 41.67 mL ± 5.77 mL

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2
Q

What percentage of horses show communication between the femoropatellar joint (FP) and the medial femorotibial joint (MFT)?
a) 60% to 65%
b) 70% to 75%
c) 80% to 85%
d) 90% to 95%

A

Answer: a) 60% to 65%

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3
Q

In which percentage of limbs does mepivacaine diffusion occur from the LFT to the FP?
a) 80%
b) 85%
c) 90%
d) 95%

A

Answer: c) 90%

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4
Q

The standing femorotibial joint angle is approximately:
a) 140 degrees
b) 150 degrees
c) 160 degrees
d) 170 degrees

A

Answer: b) 150 degrees

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5
Q

What is the percentage range of horses showing communication between the femoropatellar joint (FP) and the lateral femorotibial joint (LFT)?
a) 1% to 5%
b) 5% to 10%
c) 10% to 25%
d) 25% to 50%

A

Answer: c) 1% to 25%

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5
Q

At what age is the patella fully ossified in horses?
a) 2 months
b) 4 months
c) 6 months
d) 12 months

A

Answer: b) 4 months

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5
Q

How many centers of ossification does the stifle of a horse have at birth?
a) 4
b) 5
c) 6
d) 7

A

Answer: c) 6

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6
Q

What is the approximate sensitivity of ultrasonography for identifying meniscal injuries compared to arthroscopic findings?
a) 65%
b) 70%
c) 79%
d) 85%

A

Answer: c) 79%

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7
Q

The apophyseal-epiphyseal physis of the tibial tuberosity closes at what age?
a) 6 to 9 months
b) 9 to 12 months
c) 12 to 15 months
d) 15 to 18 months

A

Answer: b) 9 to 12 months

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8
Q

The lateral femorotibial compartment (LFT) has a volume of approximately how many mL?
a) 51.67 mL ± 2.89 mL
b) 61.67 mL ± 2.89 mL
c) 71.67 mL ± 5.77 mL
d) 81.67 mL ± 5.77 mL

A

Answer: b) 61.67 mL ± 2.89 mL

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9
Q

How long is the distal femoral physis open in horses?
a) 12 to 18 months
b) 18 to 24 months
c) 24 to 30 months
d) 30 to 36 months

A

Answer: c) 24 to 30 months

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10
Q

What is the maximum degree of external rotation the tibia undergoes during the screw home mechanism?
a) 5 degrees
b) 6 degrees
c) 8 degrees
d) 10 degrees

A

Answer: c) 8 degrees

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11
Q

What is the false positive rate of ultrasonography for identifying meniscal injuries compared to arthroscopic findings?
a) 30%
b) 40%
c) 56%
d) 70%

A

Answer: c) 56%

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12
Q

At what angle should the x-ray beam be directed for the caudocranial view of the stifle?
a) 0 to 10 degrees
b) 10 to 20 degrees
c) 20 to 30 degrees
d) 30 to 40 degrees

A

Answer: b) 10 to 20 degrees

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13
Q

What is the volume of the medial femorotibial compartment (MFT) of the stifle joint?

A) 41.67 mL ±5.77 mL
B) 61.67 mL ±2.89 mL
C) 50.00 mL ±4.00 mL
D) 30.00 mL ±3.00 mL

A

Answer: A) 41.67 mL ±5.77 mL

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14
Q

The standing femorotibial joint angle is approximately:

A) 140 degrees
B) 150 degrees
C) 160 degrees
D) 180 degrees

A

Answer: B) 150 degrees

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15
Q

What percentage of horses typically show communication between the femoropatellar joint (FP) and the medial femorotibial joint (MFT)?

A) 30% to 40%
B) 50% to 55%
C) 60% to 65%
D) 70% to 75%

A

Answer: C) 60% to 65%

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16
Q

How much mepivacaine diffusion occurs from the lateral femorotibial joint (LFT) to the femoropatellar joint (FP)?

A) 80%
B) 85%
C) 90%
D) 100%

A

Answer: C) 90%

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17
Q

What ligament is NOT part of the stifle joint’s supporting soft tissue structures?

A) Cranial cruciate ligament
B) Medial femoropatellar ligament
C) Radial collateral ligament
D) Lateral collateral ligament

A

Answer: C) Radial collateral ligament

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18
Q

The presence of upward fixation of the patella is indicated by:

A) Inability to extend the stifle
B) Inability to flex the stifle
C) Reduced weight bearing
D) Increased gait abnormalities

A

Answer: B) Inability to flex the stifle

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19
Q

Which imaging technique is particularly beneficial for evaluating obscured regions of the stifle?

A) Radiography
B) Ultrasonography
C) Computed tomography (CT)
D) Nuclear scintigraphy

A

Answer: B) Ultrasonography

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20
Q

The sensitivity and specificity of ultrasonography for identifying meniscal injuries when compared to arthroscopic findings is:

A) 50% sensitivity, 70% specificity
B) 79% sensitivity, 56% specificity
C) 85% sensitivity, 90% specificity
D) 100% sensitivity, 100% specificity

A

Answer: B) 79% sensitivity, 56% specificity

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21
Q

The primary purpose of intraarticular anesthesia in stifle diagnostics is to:

A) Provide pain relief
B) Localize lameness
C) Enhance imaging quality
D) Decrease joint swelling

A

Answer: B) Localize lameness

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22
Q

How many centers of ossification does the stifle of the horse have at birth?

A) Four
B) Five
C) Six
D) Seven

A

Answer: C) Six

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23
Q

What is the main diagnostic advantage of using CT arthrography over other techniques?

A) It is the least invasive
B) It offers superior identification of soft tissue injuries
C) It provides detailed visualization of bone and cartilage injuries
D) It is the fastest imaging technique

A

Answer: C) It provides detailed visualization of bone and cartilage injuries

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24
Q

What anatomical feature allows for the “screw home mechanism” in the equine stifle?

A) The shape of the patella
B) The interaction of cruciate and collateral ligaments
C) The thickness of the menisci
D) The size of the femoral condyles

A

Answer: B) The interaction of cruciate and collateral ligaments

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25
Q

The cranial pouch of the lateral femorotibial compartment contains which anatomical structure?

A) Patellar ligament
B) Peroneus tertius tendon
C) Cranial cruciate ligament
D) Medial meniscus

A

Answer: B) Peroneus tertius tendon

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26
Q

The volume of the lateral femorotibial compartment (LFT) is approximately:

A) 30.00 mL ±1.00 mL
B) 41.67 mL ±5.77 mL
C) 50.00 mL ±2.00 mL
D) 61.67 mL ±2.89 mL

A

Answer: D) 61.67 mL ±2.89 mL

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27
Q

Which imaging technique is considered unreliable for detecting soft tissue injuries in the stifle?

A) CT
B) MRI
C) Nuclear scintigraphy
D) Ultrasonography

A

Answer: C) Nuclear scintigraphy

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28
Q

What anatomical structure is the primary site for identifying cartilage lesions in the stifle using radiography?

A) Medial femoral condyle
B) Lateral trochlear ridge
C) Patella
D) Tibial tuberosity

A

Answer: A) Medial femoral condyle

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29
Q

The cranial meniscotibial ligament is best visualized in which imaging modality?

A) MRI
B) Radiography
C) Ultrasonography
D) Nuclear scintigraphy

A

Answer: A) MRI

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30
Q

The cranial cruciate ligament can be assessed through which of the following tests?

A) Tarsal flexion test
B) Stifle flexion test
C) Patellar reflex test
D) Cranial drawer test

A

Answer: D) Cranial drawer test

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31
Q

What happens to the tibia during the “screw home mechanism”?

A) It undergoes internal rotation
B) It undergoes external rotation
C) It locks into extension
D) It flexes more than normal

A

Answer: B) It undergoes external rotation

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32
Q

What is the best view to obtain for demonstrating medial femoral condyle cysts?

A) Caudocranial view
B) Lateral view
C) Skyline view
D) Oblique view

A

Answer: A) Caudocranial view

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33
Q

At what age is the patella fully ossified in horses?

A) 2 months
B) 4 months
C) 6 months
D) 12 months

A

Answer: B) 4 months

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34
Q

Which of the following is a common indicator of stifle lameness?

A) Increased flexion of the hock
B) Shortened anterior phase of stride
C) High stepping gait
D) Increased toe wear on the contralateral limb

A

Answer: B) Shortened anterior phase of stride

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35
Q

What anatomical structure primarily contributes to the passive stay apparatus of the hindlimb?

A) Medial meniscus
B) Patellar ligament
C) Trochlear ridges
D) Femorotibial joint

A

Answer: B) Patellar ligament

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36
Q

What is the primary disadvantage of using ultrasonography in stifle diagnostics?

A) High cost
B) Limited resolution of deep structures
C) Difficulty in visualizing soft tissues
D) Operator-dependent accuracy

A

Answer: B) Limited resolution of deep structures

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37
Q

The medial and lateral femoropatellar ligaments are important for:

A) Stabilizing the femoropatellar joint
B) Enhancing joint mobility
C) Allowing for patellar movement
D) All of the above

A

Answer: A) Stabilizing the femoropatellar joint

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38
Q

What is the role of the menisci in the stifle joint?
A) Provide cushioning between femur and tibia
B) Facilitate blood flow to the joint
C) Assist in synovial fluid production
D) Stabilize the patella

A

Answer: A) Provide cushioning between femur and tibia

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39
Q

Which anatomical structure connects the lateral femoral condyle to the tibia?
A) Medial collateral ligament
B) Lateral collateral ligament
C) Cranial cruciate ligament
D) Patellar tendon

A

Answer: B) Lateral collateral ligament

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40
Q

What is the primary indicator of stifle joint effusion on physical examination?
A) Increased temperature of the joint
B) Decreased range of motion
C) Swelling around the joint
D) Increased sensitivity to palpation

A

Answer: C) Swelling around the joint

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41
Q

What is the significance of the patellar locking mechanism?
A) It allows for weight-bearing without muscle contraction
B) It improves blood circulation to the joint
C) It enhances flexibility of the stifle joint
D) It prevents patellar dislocation

A

Answer: A) It allows for weight-bearing without muscle contraction

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42
Q

The presence of a “flipped” lateral meniscus indicates which type of injury?
A) Meniscal tear
B) Ligament rupture
C) Cartilage damage
D) Synovitis

A

Answer: A) Meniscal tear

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43
Q

Which joint compartment is the most commonly affected by osteochondritis dissecans in horses?
A) Femoropatellar joint
B) Lateral femorotibial joint
C) Medial femorotibial joint
D) All compartments equally

A

Answer: A) Femoropatellar joint

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44
Q

What technique is commonly used to obtain synovial fluid from the stifle joint for analysis?
A) Arthroscopy
B) Ultrasound-guided injection
C) Needle aspiration
D) Open surgical biopsy

A

Answer: C) Needle aspiration

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45
Q

In a horse with stifle lameness, which clinical sign would NOT typically be observed?
A) Focal swelling around the stifle
B) Asymmetry between limbs
C) Decreased range of motion
D) Excessive joint extension

A

Answer: D) Excessive joint extension

46
Q

What does a positive cranial drawer sign indicate?
A) Meniscal injury
B) Rupture of the cranial cruciate ligament
C) Patellar luxation
D) Joint effusion

A

Answer: B) Rupture of the cranial cruciate ligament

47
Q

Which imaging modality is least useful for assessing soft tissue injuries in the stifle?
A) Radiography
B) MRI
C) Ultrasonography
D) CT

A

Answer: A) Radiography

48
Q

What is a common complication of stifle joint injections?
A) Joint effusion
B) Infection
C) Synovitis
D) Cartilage damage

A

Answer: B) Infection

49
Q

Which stifle injury is often characterized by sudden onset of severe lameness?
A) Osteoarthritis
B) Meniscal tear
C) Ligament rupture
D) Tendonitis

A

Answer: C) Ligament rupture

50
Q

What is the function of the peroneus tertius muscle?
A) Flexion of the stifle
B) Extension of the hock
C) Stabilization of the patella
D) Flexion of the hock

A

Answer: B) Extension of the hock

51
Q

What is the most common reason arthroscopy is performed on the equine stifle?

A) Treatment of fractures
B) Removal of foreign bodies
C) Treatment of osteochondrosis
D) Ligament repair

A

C) Treatment of osteochondrosis

52
Q

Which type of stifle joint effusion is more commonly associated with acute injury?
A) Chronic effusion
B) Hemarthrosis
C) Synovitis
D) Lymphatic effusion

A

Answer: B) Hemarthrosis

53
Q

Which joint compartment remains inaccessible during arthroscopy due to intact collateral and cruciate ligaments?

A) Patellar joint
B) Tibial condyles
C) Femorotibial joint
D) Menisci

A

Answer: B) Tibial condyles

54
Q

What percentage of stifle angle is generally used when the femoropatellar joint is in full extension during arthroscopy?

A) 90%
B) 120%
C) 150%
D) 200%

A

Answer: C) 150%

55
Q

Which of the following drugs is used preoperatively to decrease lameness and heart rate?

A) Morphine and ketamine
B) Morphine and detomidine
C) Lidocaine and bupivacaine
D) Butorphanol and detomidine

A

Answer: B) Morphine and detomidine

56
Q

Hand walking is recommended how long after surgery to reduce swelling?

A) 6 hours
B) 12 hours
C) 24 hours
D) 48 hours

A

Answer: C) 24 hours

57
Q

How many synovial compartments are explored in a complete arthroscopic examination of the equine stifle?

A) 2
B) 4
C) 6
D) 8

A

Answer: C) 6

58
Q
A

Figure 101-1. Anatomy of the equine stifle, cranial view, showing: a, parapatellar fibrocartilage; b, medial patellar ligament; c, medial collateral ligament; d, tibial tuberosity; e, cut stump of the biceps femoris muscle; f, middle patellar ligament; g, lateral patellar ligament; h, lateral collateral ligament; i and k, medial and lateral condyles of the tibia.

59
Q
A

Figure 101-3. Fluoroscopic image of the LFT of an equine cadaver stifle after injection of positive contrast medium into the caudal pouch of the LFT showing distention of the proximal pocket of the caudal pouch (CP) of the LFT, the distal extension of the LFT called the subextensor recess located in the sulcus muscularis (SM), and the distal pocket of the caudal pouch of the LFT (arrows).

60
Q
A

Figure 101-5. Cruciate ligament test used to detect rupture. The shoulder is placed against the back of the limb and the tibia is pulled caudad and released.

60
Q
A

Figure 101-2. Anatomy of the equine stifle, lateral view, showing: a, femoropatellar joint (FP); b, middle patellar ligament; c, medial patellar ligament; d, cut stump of the lateral patellar ligament; e, long digital extensor muscle; f, lateral femoropatellar ligament; g, popliteus muscle; h, lateral tibial condyle; i, lateral digital extensor muscle.

61
Q
A

Figure 101-4. Appearance of bilateral FP effusion

61
Q
A

Figure 101-7. A caudal 30-degree lateral craniomedial oblique radiographic view of the stifle highlights an osteochondrosis lesion (arrow) of the lateral trochlear ridge of the femur.

62
Q
A

Figure 101-6. An avulsion fracture (arrow) is evident on this lateromedial stifle radiograph. The avulsed osseous fragment is evident near the distal insertion of the cranial cruciate ligament on the central intercondylar area located just lateral to the medial intercondylar eminence of the tibia (MICET). Avulsion fractures in this area can be from the cranial meniscotibial ligaments or the cranial cruciate ligament insertion sites and cannot be definitively differentiated on x-rays.

63
Q
A

Figure 101-8. A caudocranial view of the stifle demonstrating a large subchondral bone cyst (arrows) in the medial femoral condyle.

64
Q
A

Figure 101-9. Cranioproximal craniodistal oblique radiographic view (skyline) of the equine stifle, which is used to evaluate the patella, intertrochanteric groove of the femur, and trochlear ridges. Note the sagittal fracture of the medial aspect of the patella (arrow).

65
Q
A

Figure 101-10. A transverse CT image section of an equine cadaveric distal femur and patella at the level of the proximal aspect of the medial and lateral femoral condyles. Injection of the caudal pouches of the femorotibial joints with shaving cream prior to imaging shows the extent of distention of these pouches. The popliteal artery and vein (arrow) run in the septum separating the caudal pouches. L, Lateral femoral condyle; M, medial femoral condyle. (

66
Q
A

Figure 101-11. A T1-weighted VIBE magnetic resonance image of the stifle in the dorsal plane revealed a large area of bone edema, high signal (with contrast enhancement) in the subchondral bone, and extensive cartilage injury in the lateral femoral condyle (arrow) that was not evident on routine radiographs.

66
Q

All compartments are observed in arthroscopy in dorsal recumbency with flexed limb wih exception of which joint compartement?

A

For all approaches, the stifle is placed at 90 to 100 degrees stifle angle, except for the femoropatellar joint, which is best completed in full extension (~150 degrees stifle angle), or with a slight flexion.

67
Q

Each of the two femorotibial joint compartments is divided into

A

cranial and caudal pouches

67
Q

The caudal pouch of the LFT is divided into proximal and distal pockets by

A

the popliteal tendon

68
Q

Name the compartments of the stifle that can be evaluated

A

compartments can be explored:
* The FP
* The cranial pouch of the MFT
* The caudal pouch of the MFT
* The cranial pouch of the LFT
* The proximal pocket of the caudal pouch of the LFT
* The distal pocket of the caudal pouch of the LFT

69
Q

what is the most common reason for FP arthroscopic exploration?

A

for evaluation and débridement of osteochondritis disscecans (OCD) lesions of the lateral trochlear ridges

70
Q

describe the portals for the FP joint

A

The standard approach to the joint involves creation of a skin portal halfway between the middle and lateral patellar ligaments and halfway between the tibial crest and the distal aspect of the patella.48 A stab incision is made through the skin, subcutaneous tissue, and the deep fascia of the femoropatellar fat pad. Without prior joint distention, an arthroscopic cannula containing a blunt obturator is advanced through the incision and then in a 45-degree angle to skin in a proximal direction. The cannula/obturator are gently manipulated through the joint capsule up into the space under the patella and over the femoral trochlea, and then the arthroscope is inserted to evaluate the joint. Minimal movement of the scope is recommended until distension of the joint is achieved.

71
Q

what structures can be observed in the FP arthroscopy?

A

Sequential examination of the FP includes evaluation along the entire length of both the medial and lateral trochlear ridges, the articulating surface of the patella, the attachments of the patellar ligaments onto the patella, and the suprapatellar pouch.

72
Q

What should you avoid when performing the instrument portal in the FP joint?

A

Instrument portal placement is completed with spinal needle guidance to obtain an optimal location for débridement of the specific lesion encountered. If the instrument portal is made too far lateral to the lateral patellar ligament, it may be difficult to manipulate the instrument to operate effectively on lesions of the lateral trochlear ridge.

73
Q

The FP may be entered with the intent to evaluate that joint and then proceed on to evaluation of the cranial pouches of the medial and lateral femorotibial joints through the FP, which has been described as the (name the tx)

A

“cranial arthroscopic approach to the stifle”

74
Q

for cranial arthroscopic approach what should you consider when performing the portal for arthrosocope, refer the exact point

A

it is recommended to place the arthroscope portal 2 cm distal to the patella between the medial and middle patellar
ligaments

75
Q

what is the ideal surgical approach to the suprapatellar pouch?

A

Optimal portal placement is 2 cm proximal to the patellar base, and approximately 10 cm lateral to the longitudinal patellar axis in the intermuscular septum between the biceps femoris and vastus lateralis muscles. lateral instrument portal can be made cranioproximally to the previous portal or cranially along the longitudinal axis of the patella in the most proximal aspect of the pouch.

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