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A U E R S & T > Chapter 104 - Craniomaxillofacial Disorders > Flashcards

Chapter 104 - Craniomaxillofacial Disorders Flashcards

1
Q

What percentage of fractures caused by kicks from another horse involve the head?

a) 5%
b) 12%
c) 20%
d) 25%

A

Answer: b) 12%

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2
Q

Which bone is part of the visceral cranium and forms the rostral part of the hard palate?

a) Nasal bone
b) Palatal bone
c) Incisive bone
d) Ethmoid bone

A

Answer: c) Incisive bone

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3
Q

In horses, what is the relative size of the visceral cranium compared to the cerebral cranium?

a) Visceral cranium is smaller
b) Cerebral cranium is larger
c) Visceral cranium is larger
d) They are the same size

A

Answer: c) Visceral cranium is larger

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4
Q

At what age does the synchondrosis of the mandible ossify in horses?

a) By 1 year
b) By 2 years
c) By 3 years
d) By 4 years

A

Answer: b) By 2 years

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5
Q

Which part of the mandible contains the alveoli of the upper incisors?

a) Palatal process
b) Alveolar part
c) Mandibular ramus
d) Condylar process

A

Answer: b) Alveolar part

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6
Q

The petrous part, tympanic part, and squamous part are all components of which bone?

a) Sphenoid bone
b) Ethmoid bone
c) Temporal bone
d) Occipital bone

A

Answer: c) Temporal bone

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7
Q

Which bone forms the ventral base of the cerebral cranium?

a) Frontal bone
b) Sphenoid bone
c) Occipital bone
d) Parietal bone

A

Answer: b) Sphenoid bone

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8
Q

What is a common sign of bilateral mandible fractures in horses?

a) Excessive drooling
b) Protruding tongue
c) Hemorrhage
d) Soft tissue swelling

A

Answer: b) Protruding tongue

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9
Q

Which anesthetic is used for regional anesthesia during standing fracture repair?

a) Lidocaine
b) Procaine
c) Bupivacaine
d) Ketamine

A

Answer: a) Lidocaine

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10
Q

Computed tomography is preferred for fracture diagnosis because it improves:

a) Pain management
b) Fracture reduction
c) Preoperative appreciation of fracture configuration
d) Hemorrhage control

A

Answer: c) Preoperative appreciation of fracture configuration

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11
Q

Which bone is not part of the cerebral cranium?

a) Occipital bone
b) Zygomatic bone
c) Parietal bone
d) Sphenoid bone

A

Answer: b) Zygomatic bone

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12
Q

Radiographs in horses are difficult to interpret for head fractures due to:

a) Superimposition of teeth
b) Soft tissue density
c) Excessive bone alignment
d) Bone malocclusion

A

Answer: a) Superimposition of teeth

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13
Q

Which process of the mandible forms the tooth-bearing part?

a) Coronoid process
b) Condylar process
c) Body or corpus
d) Mandibular ramus

A

Answer: c) Body or corpus

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14
Q

In what direction is the visceral cranium located relative to the cerebral cranium in horses?

a) Above
b) Below
c) Rostral
d) Caudal

A

Answer: c) Rostral

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15
Q

Which bone forms the roof of the cerebral cranium?

a) Frontal bone
b) Sphenoid bone
c) Occipital bone
d) Temporal bone

A

Answer: a) Frontal bone

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16
Q

Which is a consideration favoring surgical repair of jaw fractures?

a) Decreased callus formation
b) Delayed healing
c) Increased malocclusion
d) Increased anesthesia risk

A

Answer: a) Decreased callus formation

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17
Q

The mandible’s two branches are fused by what type of joint?

a) Syndesmosis
b) Synchondrosis
c) Symphysis
d) Synostosis

A

Answer: b) Synchondrosis

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18
Q

What is used to treat open fractures with severe displacement in horses?

a) Conservative treatment
b) Internal fixation devices
c) Intravenous antibiotics
d) Soft splints

A

Answer: b) Internal fixation devices

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19
Q

During standing fracture repair, what aids in regional anesthesia administration?

a) 5 mL Lidocaine
b) 5 mL Morphine
c) 5 mL Epinephrine
d) 5 mL Cortisone

A

Answer: a) 5 mL Lidocaine

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20
Q

A fetid odor from a fracture site often indicates:

a) Open fracture with delayed treatment
b) Closed fracture
c) Recent injury
d) Bone necrosis

A

Answer: a) Open fracture with delayed treatment

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21
Q

What is the recommended volume of anesthesia used for regional nerve block in equine jaw fracture surgery?

a) 3 mL
b) 4 mL
c) 5 mL
d) 6 mL

A

Answer: c) 5 mL

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22
Q

Fractures caused by head jerking on stationary objects often result in:

a) Maxillary fractures
b) Avulsion fractures of the incisors
c) Condylar fractures
d) Zygomatic fractures

A

Answer: b) Avulsion fractures of the incisors

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23
Q

In the case of severe dehydration in horses, this can be caused by:

a) Salivary losses
b) Increased appetite
c) Fracture misalignment
d) Soft tissue swelling

A

Answer: a) Salivary losses

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24
Q

Which bone of the visceral cranium contributes to forming the nasal cavity?

a) Vomer
b) Occipital bone
c) Temporal bone
d) Parietal bone

A

Answer: a) Vomer

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25
Q

What aids fracture detection when soft tissue swelling hinders direct inspection?

a) Manipulation of the temporomandibular joint
b) Visual inspection
c) Cranial nerve testing
d) Blood tests

A

Answer: a) Manipulation of the temporomandibular joint

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26
Q

Tetanus prophylaxis is recommended during:

a) Antibiotic administration
b) Fracture diagnosis
c) Surgical repair of jaw fractures
d) Computed tomography

A

Answer: c) Surgical repair of jaw fractures

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27
Q

What material is used to make intraoral splints for fracture repair?

a) Aluminum rods
b) Titanium plates
c) Steel wires
d) Polypropylene

A

Answer: a) Aluminum rods

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28
Q

Which bone forms part of the roof of the visceral cranium?

a) Frontal bone
b) Palatal bone
c) Zygomatic bone
d) Sphenoid bone

A

Answer: a) Frontal bone

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29
Q

Horses may become dehydrated after fractures due to a reluctance to:

a) Breathe
b) Eat
c) Drink
d) Stand

A

Answer: c) Drink

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30
Q

What imaging technique greatly improves preoperative understanding of fracture configuration?

a) X-ray
b) Computed tomography
c) MRI
d) Ultrasound

A

Answer: b) Computed tomography

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30
Q

What is the purpose of dental picks in preoperative fracture management?

a) Removing teeth
b) Cleaning fracture lines
c) Polishing teeth
d) Reducing bone malalignment

A

Answer: b) Cleaning fracture lines

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31
Q

What percentage of fractures are repaired with good cosmetic and functional results?

a) 50%
b) 70%
c) 90%
d) 95%

A

Answer: c) 90%

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32
Q

Which nerve should be blocked for fracture repairs involving the upper jaw?

a) Mental nerve
b) Inferior alveolar nerve
c) Infraorbital nerve
d) Mandibular nerve

A

Answer: c) Infraorbital nerve

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33
Q

Protruding tongues in horses indicate which type of fracture?

a) Unilateral mandibular fracture
b) Bilateral mandibular fracture
c) Maxillary fracture
d) Frontal bone fracture

A

Answer: b) Bilateral mandibular fracture

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34
Q

Which bone is part of the cerebral cranium and forms the posterior portion of the skull?

a) Occipital bone
b) Temporal bone
c) Frontal bone
d) Parietal bone

A

Answer: a) Occipital bone

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35
Q

Intraoral splints are typically made from which material?

a) Aluminum rods
b) Steel wires
c) Titanium plates
d) Polypropylene splints

A

Answer: a) Aluminum rods

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36
Q

Radiographs often aid in detecting what in chronic fracture cases?

a) Infection
b) Sequestrum formation
c) Soft tissue swelling
d) Cranial nerve damage

A

Answer: b) Sequestrum formation

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37
Q

Avulsion fractures of the incisors are often caused by:

a) Cribbing behavior
b) Chewing hay
c) Running
d) Jumping

A

Answer: a) Cribbing behavior

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38
Q

What is the primary reason computed tomography is preferred over radiographs?

a) It provides a 3D reconstruction
b) It is cheaper
c) It is less invasive
d) It is faster

A

Answer: a) It provides a 3D reconstruction

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39
Q

A sudden jerking of the head while chewing can result in fractures of the:

a) Incisors
b) Canine teeth
c) Premolars
d) Molars

A

Answer: a) Incisors

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40
Q

What is the tension side of the mandible?

A. Dorsal surface
B. Oral surface
C. Caudal surface
D. Lateral surface

A

Correct answer: B

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41
Q

What type of fractures are typically simple and interdigitate well?

A. Comminuted fractures
B. Avulsion fractures
C. Greenstick fractures
D. Transverse fractures

A

Correct answer: B

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42
Q

Fractures of the incisors caused by kicks usually push the teeth in which direction?

A. Rostral
B. Caudad
C. Dorsal
D. Ventral

A

Correct answer: B

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43
Q

What is a common complication when using intraoral wiring alone for comminuted fractures?

A. Malalignment
B. Infection
C. Collapse
D. Excess bleeding

A

Correct answer: C

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44
Q

Which method is used to prevent collapse in comminuted fractures?

A. Open reduction
B. Closed reduction
C. Buttress techniques
D. External fixation onl

A

Correct answer: C

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45
Q

Infection is a frequent complication of which surgical technique?

A. Closed reduction
B. Intraoral wiring
C. Internal fixation
D. Suturing

A

Correct answer: C

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46
Q

Where should bone plates be placed on the mandible to resist cyclic loading?

A. Ventrolateral aspect
B. Oral surface
C. Dorsal surface
D. Caudal aspect

A

Correct answer: A

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47
Q

What should be done with small bone fragments that are devoid of soft tissue attachments?

A. Left in place
B. Removed
C. Reattached
D. Sutured

A

Correct answer: B

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48
Q

How should fractured incisors be treated to prevent contact with opposing dental arcade during healing?

A. Filed down
B. Shortened with a rasp
C. Pulled out
D. Stabilized with external fixators

A

Correct answer: B

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49
Q

What gauge needle is typically used during intraoral wiring?

A. 10-gauge
B. 12-gauge
C. 14-gauge
D. 16-gauge

A

Correct answer: C

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50
Q

What diameter stainless steel wire is used in intraoral wiring?

A. 0.8 mm
B. 1.25 mm
C. 1.5 mm
D. 2.0 mm

A

Correct answer: B

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51
Q

Which wiring technique is used to unite all teeth in one fixation?

A. Simple loops
B. Figure-of-eight technique
C. Interrupted wire
D. Continuous wire

A

Correct answer: B

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52
Q

What is the name of the standard wiring technique used in human medicine that has been proposed for dental fractures?

A. Obwegeser Cerclage technique
B. Tension-band technique
C. Figure-of-eight technique
D. Loop wiring technique

A

Correct answer: A

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53
Q

What size cortex screw can be inserted in the interdental space for caudal anchoring?

A. 2.5 mm
B. 3.5 mm
C. 4.5 mm
D. 5.0 mm

A

Correct answer: C

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54
Q

What material are orthopedic cables typically made from?

A. Titanium alloy
B. Stainless steel
C. Carbon fiber
D. Both A and B

A

Correct answer: D

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55
Q

What is the diameter of orthopedic cables typically used in fracture fixation?

A. 0.8 mm
B. 1.0 mm
C. 1.5 mm
D. 2.0 mm

A

Correct answer: B

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56
Q

What is the purpose of the cable tensioner in orthopedic cable fixation?

A. To place screws
B. To produce tension on the cable
C. To cut the cable
D. To remove the cable

A

Correct answer: B

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57
Q

What is the typical size of the K-wire used in hemicerclage wiring for mandible fractures?

A. 1.5 mm
B. 2.0 mm
C. 2.5 mm
D. 3.0 mm

A

Correct answer: C

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58
Q

Why is radiographic control necessary during internal fixation procedures?

A. To ensure bone healing
B. To determine screw length and placement
C. To avoid soft tissue damage
D. To prevent infection

A

Correct answer: B

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59
Q

What type of loading do bone plates resist better when placed on the ventrolateral aspect of the mandible?

A. Compressive loading
B. Cyclic loading
C. Tension loading
D. Shear loading

A

Correct answer: B

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60
Q

What must be done before tightening the wires during intraoral wiring?

A. Remove slack
B. Clean the wound
C. File down the teeth
D. Drill holes for screws

A

Correct answer: A

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61
Q

When is a buttress typically required in fracture repair?

A. In greenstick fractures
B. In comminuted fractures
C. In avulsion fractures
D. In stable fractures

A

Correct answer: B

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62
Q

Why is closed reduction preferred over open reduction for certain fractures?

A. To decrease surgery time
B. To preserve blood supply
C. To improve alignment accuracy
D. To reduce the risk of malocclusion

A

Correct answer: B

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63
Q

Which side of the maxilla should bone plates be applied to resist cyclic loading?

A. Oral side
B. Ventral side
C. Lateral side
D. Caudal side

A

Correct answer: C

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64
Q

Which factor makes placing screws for plate fixation difficult in the mandible and maxilla?

A. Hard bone structure
B. Proximity to roots of teeth
C. Lack of soft tissue support
D. Intraoperative radiograph difficulties

A

Correct answer: B

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65
Q

What size drill bit is used for interdental wiring in foals?

A. 1.5 mm
B. 2.0 mm
C. 2.5 mm
D. 3.0 mm

A

Correct answer: C

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66
Q

Why are loose teeth not removed immediately during fracture repair?

A. They will not survive
B. They serve as anchor sites
C. They interfere with radiographs
D. They obstruct soft tissue attachment

A

Correct answer: B

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67
Q

What material is recommended to prevent slack in intraoral wiring?

A. Cerclage wire
B. Orthopedic cable
C. Stainless steel wire
D. Titanium alloy wire

A

Correct answer: C

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68
Q

How does kinking of wires affect intraoral fixation?

A. Increases tension
B. Decreases strength and causes loosening
C. Stabilizes the fracture
D. Prevents migration

A

Correct answer: B

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69
Q

Intraoral wiring configurations are adaptable to almost any fracture because they are:

A. Rigid
B. Inexpensive
C. Easy to apply
D. Both B and C

A

Correct answer: D

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70
Q

What is the main reason internal fixation results in infection?

A. Poor screw placement
B. Long surgery time
C. Open fractures exposed to microflora
D. Improper alignment

A

Correct answer: C

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71
Q

Which area is often used to anchor tension-band wiring in horses with mandibular fractures?

A. Third premolar
B. Second premolar
C. First incisor
D. Canine tooth

A

Correct answer: B

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72
Q

Orthopedic cable has higher resistance to which type of loading compared to cerclage wire?

A. Static loading
B. Compressive loading
C. Fatigue loading
D. Both A and C

A

Correct answer: D

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73
Q

What material is used to reinforce intraoral wiring in comminuted fractures?

a) Titanium
b) Dental acrylic
c) Polyethylene
d) Stainless steel

A

Correct answer: b) Dental acrylic

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74
Q

Which method is used to prepare the intraoral splint for mandibular fractures?

a) Injection molding
b) Molding dental acrylic around interdental wires
c) 3D printing
d) Welding metal plates

A

Correct answer: b) Molding dental acrylic around interdental wires

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75
Q

How far does the acrylic splint extend in the horse’s mouth?

a) From 101 to 103
b) From the caudal surface of the incisors to 306 or 406
c) From the first molar to the last incisor
d) From 405 to 410

A

Correct answer: b) From the caudal surface of the incisors to 306 or 406

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76
Q

What is the main function of the acrylic in intraoral splints?

a) Reducing exothermic reaction
b) Maintaining bone length and alignment
c) Increasing strength of wiring
d) Protecting soft tissues

A

Correct answer: b) Maintaining bone length and alignment

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77
Q

What type of acrylic should be used to minimize heat production during polymerization?

a) Polyethylene acrylic
b) Polyvinyl acrylic
c) Dental acrylic
d) Epoxy resin

A

Correct answer: c) Dental acrylic

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78
Q

Why should excessive acrylic material in the mouth be avoided?

a) It impedes breathing
b) It interferes with the horse’s tongue and eating
c) It causes infection
d) It can lead to dental erosion

A

Correct answer: b) It interferes with the horse’s tongue and eating

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79
Q

What is the preferred material for molding intraoral splints for a better fit?

a) Epoxy
b) Methyl methacrylate
c) Polyethylene
d) Aluminum

A

Correct answer: b) Methyl methacrylate

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80
Q

What is done to methyl methacrylate after it starts to cure in the mouth?

a) It is left in place
b) It is removed for shaping and smoothing
c) It is drilled for wiring
d) It is replaced with titanium plates

A

Correct answer: b) It is removed for shaping and smoothing

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81
Q

What tool is used to remove excess material from the methyl methacrylate?

a) Surgical blade
b) Hammer and chisel
c) Rasp or dermal tool
d) Heat gun

A

Correct answer: c) Rasp or dermal tool

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82
Q

What is the typical diameter of stainless steel wire used for figure-of-eight wiring?

a) 0.75 mm
b) 1.00 mm
c) 1.25 mm
d) 2.00 mm

A

Correct answer: c) 1.25 mm

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Perfectly
83
Q

In how many locations is the U-bar brace typically fixed to the incisors and cheek teeth?

a) 1-2
b) 3-5
c) 5-7
d) 10

A

Correct answer: b) 3-5

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84
Q

What material is commonly used for the U-bar brace in intraoral splinting?

a) Brass or aluminum rods
b) Stainless steel plates
c) Titanium rods
d) Nylon fibers

A

Correct answer: a) Brass or aluminum rods

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85
Q

How is wiring to the cheek teeth performed in U-bar brace fixation?

a) Via dental crowns
b) Stab incisions through the cheek and drilling between the teeth
c) Bonding to the enamel surface
d) Adhesive material

A

Correct answer: b) Stab incisions through the cheek and drilling between the teeth

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86
Q

Intramedullary pins are used in selected cases for what purpose?

a) To reinforce the maxilla
b) To provide axial alignment
c) To replace screws
d) To immobilize soft tissue

A

Correct answer: b) To provide axial alignment

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87
Q

What size of cortex screw is typically used in lag fashion for mandibular fractures?

a) 3.5 mm
b) 2.5 mm
c) 5.0 mm
d) 1.5 mm

A

Correct answer: a) 3.5 mm

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88
Q

What is the recommended number of cortex screws to ensure rotational stability?

a) One
b) Two
c) Four
d) Six

A

Correct answer: b) Two

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89
Q

When are screws typically removed after intraoral fixation?

a) After 6 months
b) Only if they become infected or loose
c) After fracture healing
d) They are never removed

A

Correct answer: b) Only if they become infected or loose

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90
Q

How far from the fracture line should cortex screws be placed for figure-of-eight wiring?

a) 1 cm
b) 2 cm
c) 3 cm
d) 4 cm

A

Correct answer: b) 2 cm

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91
Q

What is the diameter of the connecting bar used in type II external fixators?

a) 4 mm
b) 5 mm
c) 6 mm
d) 8 mm

A

Correct answer: c) 6 mm

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92
Q

What is the diameter of pins typically used in type II external fixators?

a) 3 mm
b) 4 mm
c) 5 mm
d) 6 mm

A

Correct answer: b) 4 mm

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93
Q

What tool is used to prevent thermal necrosis during drilling for external fixators?

a) High-speed drill
b) Low-speed, high-torque drill
c) Pneumatic drill
d) Rotary file

A

Correct answer: b) Low-speed, high-torque drill

94
Q

By what percentage should the drill hole diameter be smaller than the pin size to ensure solid fixation?

a) 5%
b) 10%
c) 15%
d) 20%

A

Correct answer: b) 10%

95
Q

What is the preferred type of pin for type I fixators?

a) Positive profile end-threaded pins
b) Smooth pins
c) Solid pins
d) Hollow pins

A

Correct answer: a) Positive profile end-threaded pins

96
Q

What type of external fixator is used for unilateral fractures of the horizontal ramus of the mandible?

a) Type I
b) Type II
c) Pinless
d) Internal fixator

A

Correct answer: a) Type I

97
Q

What is the preferred pin type for type II external fixators?

a) Positive profile end-threaded pins
b) Center-threaded pins
c) Smooth pins
d) Screw-threaded pins

A

Correct answer: b) Center-threaded pins

98
Q

What material is used to fill the flexible rubber hose in the acrylic side bar technique?

a) Epoxy resin
b) Polymethyl methacrylate (PMMA)
c) Silicone rubber
d) Dental plaster

A

Correct answer: b) Polymethyl methacrylate (PMMA)

99
Q

What is the typical drill bit diameter for predrilling holes in bone for pin placement?

a) 2.5 mm
b) 3.0 mm
c) 3.5 mm
d) 4.0 mm

A

Correct answer: a) 2.5 mm

100
Q

What is the most common complication associated with the use of external fixators?

a) Tooth erosion
b) Pin tract infection
c) Loss of bone density
d) Dislocation of the fixator

A

Correct answer: b) Pin tract infection

101
Q

How often should pin tract care be performed after placing external fixators?

a) Daily
b) Weekly
c) Monthly
d) Every 48 hours

A

Correct answer: a) Daily

102
Q

What is a disadvantage of using an acrylic side bar in external fixators?

a) Difficult removal
b) Inability to adjust the bar once set
c) High cost
d) Requires frequent cleaning

A

Correct answer: b) Inability to adjust the bar once set

103
Q

What is the inside diameter of the flexible rubber hose used in acrylic side bar fixators?

a) 15 mm
b) 20 mm
c) 25 mm
d) 30 mm

A

Correct answer: c) 25 mm

104
Q

Which external fixator method eliminates the need for pins penetrating the mandible?

a) Type I fixator
b) Type II fixator
c) Pinless external fixator
d) Screw-based fixator

A

Correct answer: c) Pinless external fixator

105
Q

What is the shape of the bone clamp used in the pinless external fixator?

a) Curved
b) Symmetric or asymmetric with trocar-type points
c) Flat with rubber padding
d) Circular with spikes

A

Correct answer: b) Symmetric or asymmetric with trocar-type points

106
Q

What is the major benefit of a pinless external fixator over conventional pin fixators?

a) Easier placement
b) No pin tract infections
c) More cost-effective
d) Less technical expertise required

A

Correct answer: b) No pin tract infections

107
Q

What is the typical size of cortex screws used in unicortical placement on either side of a fracture?

a) 3.5 mm
b) 4.5 mm
c) 5.5 mm
d) 6.0 mm

A

Correct answer: b) 4.5 mm

108
Q

What advantage does the pinless external fixator offer during healing?

a) Flexibility to adjust the construct
b) Cheaper equipment
c) Shorter healing time
d) No need for radiographic control

A

Correct answer: a) Flexibility to adjust the construct

109
Q

What is the disadvantage of a pinless external fixator in horses?

a) High risk of infection
b) Increased cost
c) Difficulty in placement
d) Limited adjustability

A

Correct answer: b) Increased cost

110
Q

How many pins are recommended to be placed rostral and caudal to the fracture in a type I external fixator?

a) At least 1 pin
b) At least 2 pins
c) At least 3 pins
d) At least 4 pins

A

Correct answer: b) At least 2 pins

111
Q

What complication is minimized by placing external fixators close to the skin?

a) Excessive bone loss
b) Snagging on objects
c) Poor fracture healing
d) Pin loosening

A

Correct answer: b) Snagging on objects

112
Q

What method is used to secure wires to cheek teeth when using an acrylic side bar?

a) Glue
b) Looping wire around pins and tightening
c) Staples
d) Screws

A

Correct answer: b) Looping wire around pins and tightening

113
Q

What is the diameter of screws used with 3.5-mm LC-DCP plates for mandibular fractures?
a) 2.0 mm
b) 3.0 mm
c) 3.5 mm
d) 4.5 mm

A

Correct answer: c) 3.5 mm

114
Q

How many screws are typically inserted on each side of the fracture when using a 4.5-mm LC-DCP plate?
a) 1 screw
b) 2 screws
c) 3 screws
d) 5 screws

A

Correct answer: c) 3 screws

115
Q

At least how many locking head screws should be inserted on each side of the fracture with an LCP plate?
a) 1 screw
b) 2 screws
c) 3 screws
d) 4 screws

A

Correct answer: b) 2 screws

116
Q

What is the minimum length of time recommended before implant removal after mandibular fracture healing?
a) 2-4 weeks
b) 4-6 weeks
c) 6-8 weeks
d) 8-10 weeks

A

Correct answer: c) 6-8 weeks

116
Q

What percentage of cases require plate removal due to contamination from the oral cavity?
a) 5%
b) 20%
c) 50%
d) 80%

A

Correct answer: c) 50%

116
Q

What is the size of screws typically used on the vertical ramus due to its thinness?
a) 3.5 mm
b) 4.0 mm
c) 4.5 mm
d) 5.0 mm

A

Correct answer: a) 3.5 mm

117
Q

What is the preferred percentage of yield stress for dynamic compression plates (DCP) in fatigue testing?
a) 25%
b) 50%
c) 75%
d) 100%

A

Correct answer: b) 50%

118
Q

What size locking compression plates (LCP) are typically used for mandibular fracture repairs in horses?
a) 3.0 mm
b) 3.5 mm or 4.5/5.0 mm
c) 4.0 mm
d) 5.5 mm

A

Correct answer: b) 3.5 mm or 4.5/5.0 mm

118
Q

What percentage of mandibular fractures involve the tooth roots, complicating screw placement?
a) 10%
b) 30%
c) 50%
d) 70%

A

Correct answer: d) 70%

119
Q

What is the typical thickness of a narrow reconstruction plate used in mandibular fractures?
a) 2.0 mm
b) 2.5 mm
c) 3.0 mm
d) 3.5 mm

A

Correct answer: d) 3.5 mm

119
Q

What is the failure rate of dynamic compression plates (DCPs) when used alone for mandibular fractures?
a) 10%
b) 30%
c) 40%
d) 60%

A

Correct answer: b) 30%

120
Q

What percentage of mandibular fractures are associated with the TM joint?
a) 5%
b) 10%
c) 15%
d) 20%

A

Correct answer: b) 10%

120
Q

What is the failure percentage in yield testing for DCP constructs in biomechanical studies?
a) 25%
b) 40%
c) 60%
d) 75%

A

Correct answer: b) 40%

121
Q

How many screws are recommended on each side of a comminuted mandibular fracture using a buttress plate?
a) 2 screws
b) 3 screws
c) 4 screws
d) 5 screws

A

Correct answer: b) 3 screws

122
Q

What percentage of mandibular fractures are complicated by infection due to contamination from the oral cavity?
a) 25%
b) 50%
c) 75%
d) 100%

A

Correct answer: d) 100%

123
Q

What size screws are too large for the lateral aspect of the vertical ramus?
a) 2.0 mm
b) 3.0 mm
c) 4.5 mm
d) 5.0 mm

A

Correct answer: c) 4.5 mm

123
Q

What percentage of fractures treated with plates experience implant loosening due to cyclic loading?
a) 10%
b) 20%
c) 30%
d) 40%

A

Correct answer: b) 20%

123
Q

What is the preferred treatment method for simple interdental space fractures?
a) LCP plate
b) DCP plate
c) Interdental wiring with intraoral splint
d) Buttress plating

A

Correct answer: c) Interdental wiring with intraoral splint

124
Q

What percentage of mandibular fractures are comminuted?
a) 10%
b) 25%
c) 50%
d) 75%

A

Correct answer: c) 50%

125
Q

What is the thickness of the bone on the caudal vertical ramus where screws are placed?
a) 1.5 mm
b) 2.5 mm
c) 4.5 mm
d) 6.0 mm

A

Correct answer: d) 6.0 mm

126
Q

How many screws are typically used on either side of a fracture in a compression plating repair?
a) 1 screw
b) 2 screws
c) 3 screws
d) 4 screws

A

Correct answer: b) 2 screws

127
Q

What percentage of cases require tension-band wiring in addition to LCP plating for stabilization?
a) 25%
b) 50%
c) 75%
d) 100%

A

Correct answer: c) 75%

127
Q

What percentage of mandibular fractures involve the interdental space?
a) 10%
b) 30%
c) 50%
d) 70%

A

Correct answer: b) 30%

128
Q

What is the percentage increase in stability when tension-band wiring is added to external fixators?
a) 10%
b) 25%
c) 50%
d) 75%

A

Correct answer: c) 50%

129
Q

What percentage of mandibular fractures in horses are treated surgically?
a) 20%
b) 40%
c) 60%
d) 80%

A

Correct answer: d) 80%

130
Q

What size of plate is typically used for fractures in the coronoid process of the mandible?
a) 2.0 mm
b) 2.5 mm
c) 3.5 mm
d) 4.5 mm

A

Correct answer: c) 3.5 mm

131
Q

What is the failure rate of external fixators without supplemental tension-band wiring in fatigue testing?
a) 25%
b) 50%
c) 75%
d) 100%

A

Correct answer: c) 75%

132
Q

What percentage of mandibular fractures result in chronic nonunion requiring special management?
a) 10%
b) 20%
c) 30%
d) 40%

A

Correct answer: b) 20%

133
Q

How many screws are inserted when using a plate in the caudal vertical ramus of the mandible?
a) 1 screw
b) 2 screws
c) 3 screws
d) 4 screws

A

Correct answer: c) 3 screws

134
Q

What is the approximate healing time for mandibular fractures treated with plates?
a) 2-4 weeks
b) 4-6 weeks
c) 6-8 weeks
d) 8-10 weeks

A

Correct answer: c) 6-8 weeks

134
Q

What percentage of horses return to normal eating behavior after mandibular fracture repair?
a) 50%
b) 70%
c) 90%
d) 100%

A

Correct answer: d) 100

135
Q

What is the likelihood of plate breakage as a complication in mandibular fracture repairs?
a) 1%
b) 5%
c) 10%
d) 20%

A

Correct answer: b) 5%

136
Q

How long is an NSAID typically administered postoperatively for mandibular fractures?
a) 3 days
b) 5 days
c) 7 days
d) 10 days

A

Correct answer: c) 7 days

137
Q

What is the frequency of implant inspection post-mandibular fracture repair?
a) Weekly
b) Bi-weekly
c) Monthly
d) Every two months

A

Correct answer: a) Weekly

138
Q

What percentage of mandibular fractures result in tooth loss?
a) 5%
b) 10%
c) 20%
d) 25%

A

Correct answer: c) 20%

139
Q

What is the size of cables used as alternatives to wires for mandibular fracture repair?
a) 1 mm
b) 2 mm
c) 3 mm
d) 4 mm

A

Correct answer: a) 1 mm

140
Q

What percentage of mandibular fractures involve the horizontal ramus?
a) 25%
b) 50%
c) 75%
d) 100%

A

Correct answer: c) 75%

141
Q

How long does it take for drainage from the fracture site to resolve postoperatively?
a) 1 week
b) 2 weeks
c) 3 weeks
d) 4 weeks

A

Correct answer: d) 4 weeks

142
Q

How long after mandibular fracture repair should radiographs be taken to check for sequestra?
a) 2 weeks
b) 4 weeks
c) 6 weeks
d) 8 weeks

A

Correct answer: b) 4 weeks

143
Q

What percentage of horses experience callus formation after mandibular fracture repair?
a) 10%
b) 25%
c) 50%
d) 75%

A

Correct answer: c) 50%

144
Q

What are the most commonly injured bones in skull fractures in horses?
a) Zygomatic bone and lacrimal bone
b) Nasal, frontal, and maxillary bones
c) Parietal and occipital bones
d) Sphenoid and temporal bones

A

Answer: b) Nasal, frontal, and maxillary bones

145
Q

Depression fractures of the skull are often: a) Open fractures
b) Comminuted fractures
c) Minimally displaced
d) Closed fractures

A

Answer: c) Minimally displaced

145
Q

What percentage of displaced skull fractures might require surgical intervention?
a) 10%
b) 25%
c) 50%
d) 100%

A

Answer: c) 50%

145
Q

Which imaging modality is best for identifying superimposed skull structures in fractures?
a) Radiography
b) Computed Tomography (CT)
c) MRI
d) Ultrasound

A

Answer: b) Computed Tomography (CT)

146
Q

In cases where fracture repair is delayed, what factor contributes most to the difficulty in reduction?
a) Infection
b) Muscle atrophy
c) Soft tissue swelling
d) Bone necrosis

A

Answer: c) Soft tissue swelling

146
Q

What is the optimal drill bit size used to elevate depressed skull fragments?
a) 1.5 mm
b) 3.5 mm
c) 4.5 mm
d) 6 mm

A

Answer: b) 3.5 mm

147
Q

What is the primary material used for the Flap-Fix system?
a) Stainless steel
b) Aluminum
c) Titanium
d) Polyethylene

A

Answer: c) Titanium

147
Q

Which pin size is recommended for elevating a fracture fragment in horses?
a) 1 mm
b) 3 mm
c) 4 mm
d) 6 mm

A

Answer: b) 3 mm

147
Q

What is the correct size for a Steinmann pin used for the ingress portal in standing sinus lavage?
a) 1.5 mm
b) 2 mm
c) 3 mm
d) 4 mm

A

Answer: b) 2 mm

148
Q

What percentage of skull fractures in horses communicate with nasal passages or sinuses?
a) 20%
b) 50%
c) 75%
d) 100%

A

Answer: d) 100%

149
Q

What is a major disadvantage of the Flap-Fix system?
a) Risk of infection
b) High cost
c) Poor cosmetic outcome
d) Difficulty in application

A

Answer: b) High cost

150
Q

The Flap-Fix system uses which size of the perpendicular tube in the implant?
a) 2 mm
b) 4 mm
c) 6 mm
d) 8 mm

A

Answer: c) 6 mm

151
Q

Which type of fixation is preferred for severely comminuted skull fractures?
a) Wire sutures
b) Bone cement
c) Reconstruction plates
d) Bone hooks

A

Answer: c) Reconstruction plates

152
Q

What is the maximum screw length recommended for stabilization of skull fractures?
a) 6 mm
b) 8 mm
c) 12 mm
d) 14 mm

A

Answer: b) 8 mm

153
Q

Which percentage of facial fractures are considered depression fractures?
a) 25%
b) 50%
c) 75%
d) 100%

A

Answer: b) 50%

154
Q

Which size drill bit is used to predrill holes for cerclage wire sutures?
a) 1.5 mm
b) 2 mm
c) 3 mm
d) 4 mm

A

Answer: b) 2 mm

155
Q

What percentage of skull fracture complications result from inadequate reduction?
a) 25%
b) 40%
c) 60%
d) 75%

A

Answer: d) 75%

155
Q

Which of the following is the primary complication associated with skull fractures?
a) Sinus empyema
b) Facial nerve palsy
c) Mandibular sequestration
d) Corneal ulceration

A

Answer: a) Sinus empyema

156
Q

The periosteal flap technique is used to correct which type of skull defect?
a) Sinus empyema
b) Skull sequestration
c) Sinus fistula
d) Facial nerve palsy

A

Answer: c) Sinus fistula

157
Q

What is the preferred material for facial implants when correcting cosmetic defects?
a) Polyethylene
b) Silicone
c) Titanium
d) Carbon fiber

A

Answer: b) Silicone

158
Q

What is the recommended timing for fracture repair once soft tissue swelling subsides?
a) 24 hours
b) 3 days
c) 5 days
d) 7 days

A

Answer: b) 3 days

159
Q

Which imaging technique is best for detecting maxillary sinus fluid lines?
a) MRI
b) CT scan
c) Radiography
d) Ultrasound

A

Answer: c) Radiography

160
Q

What is the common size for reconstruction plates used in orbital fractures?
a) 2.4 mm
b) 3.5 mm
c) 4.5 mm
d) 5.5 mm

A

Answer: b) 3.5 mm

161
Q

Tetanus prophylaxis is recommended in what percentage of skull fracture cases?
a) 20%
b) 50%
c) 75%
d) 100%

A

Answer: d) 100%

161
Q

. What percentage of skull fractures communicate with sinuses in horses?
a) 10%
b) 30%
c) 50%
d) 100%

A

Answer: d) 100%

162
Q

What is the most common indication for rostral mandibulectomy in horses?
a) Fractures
b) Osteosarcoma
c) Ossifying fibromas
d) Bone sequestration

A

Answer: c) Ossifying fibromas

163
Q

What is the primary cause of craniofacial defects (sinus fistulas) in horses?
a) Genetic disorders
b) External trauma
c) Congenital anomalies
d) Bone infections

A

Answer: b) External trauma

164
Q

What is the preferred incision approach in a rostral mandibulectomy?
a) Medial
b) Transverse
c) Oblique
d) Sagittal

A

Answer: b) Transverse

165
Q

What percentage of horses experience difficulty with short grass after mandibulectomy?
a) 10%
b) 30%
c) 50%
d) 75%

A

Answer: c) 50%

166
Q

The post-operative period after fracture repair often involves the use of which drug?
a) Antibiotics
b) Anticoagulants
c) NSAIDs
d) Antihistamines

A

Answer: c) NSAIDs

167
Q

What is the common complication of inadequate reduction in craniofacial fractures?
a) Infection
b) Stenosis
c) Hemorrhage
d) Callus formation

A

Answer: d) Callus formation

168
Q

What is the angle of the bent Steinmann pin used to elevate a depressed bone fragment?
a) 30 degrees
b) 45 degrees
c) 60 degrees
d) 90 degrees

A

Answer: d) 90 degrees

168
Q

Which fluid is used in standing sinus lavage?
a) Saline
b) Polyionic fluid
c) Dextrose solution
d) Distilled water

A

Answer: b) Polyionic fluid

169
Q

Inadequate reduction results in what percentage of poor cosmetic outcomes?
a) 20%
b) 50%
c) 70%
d) 100%

A

Answer: c) 70%

170
Q

Empyema of the maxillary sinus is caused by which factor in skull fractures?
a) Infection
b) Hemorrhage
c) Edema
d) Fracture malalignment

A

Answer: a) Infection

171
Q

Post-operative drainage of sinuses typically lasts for how long?
a) 24 hours
b) 48 hours
c) 5 days
d) 7 days

A

Answer: d) 7 days

172
Q

Which of the following is the least common complication in horses with skull fractures?
a) Sepsis
b) Malocclusion
c) Soft tissue swelling
d) Brain damage

A

Answer: d) Brain damage

173
Q

What size plate is used for severely comminuted fractures in adult horses?
a) 3.5 mm
b) 4.5 mm
c) 5.5 mm
d) 6.5 mm

A

Answer: b) 4.5 mm

174
Q

What is the preferred suture material for external closure in skull fracture repairs?
a) Silk
b) Nylon
c) Vicryl
d) Prolene

A

Answer: c) Vicryl

174
Q

What is the average healing time for craniofacial fractures in horses?
a) 3 weeks
b) 6 weeks
c) 9 weeks
d) 12 weeks

A

Answer: b) 6 weeks

175
Q

What is the common breed associated with a higher frequency of wry nose?
a) Thoroughbred
b) Arabian
c) Clydesdale
d) Quarter Horse

A

Answer: b) Arabian

176
Q

At what age should surgical correction of wry nose be performed on foals?
a) Immediately after birth
b) 1 to 2 months
c) 2 to 3 months
d) 6 to 12 months

A

Answer: c) 2 to 3 months

177
Q

The nasal septum resection for wry nose typically removes how much length?
a) 3 cm
b) 6 cm
c) 9 cm
d) 12 cm

A

Answer: b) 6 cm

177
Q

What percentage of foals with wry nose develop breathing difficulties or increased respiratory sounds?
a) 10%
b) 25%
c) 50%
d) 75%

A

Answer: b) 25%

178
Q

What size screws are used to stabilize the plates during wry nose correction?
a) 1.5 mm
b) 2.4 mm
c) 3.5 mm
d) 5.0 mm

A

Answer: c) 3.5 mm

178
Q

What is the thickness of the nasal septum in foals that allows it to be cut with scissors?
a) Very thin
b) 2 mm thick
c) 5 mm thick
d) 10 mm thick

A

Answer: a) Very thin

178
Q

What size Unilock or LCP plates are used to stabilize the nasal bones during surgery?
a) 2.0 mm
b) 2.4 mm
c) 2.7 mm
d) b and c

A

d) b and c

178
Q

What is the primary molecule in the antiseptic solution used to soak the gauze sponges during surgery?
a) Povidone-iodine
b) Chlorhexidine
c) Hydrogen peroxide
d) Ethanol

A

Answer: b) Chlorhexidine

179
Q

What percentage of surgical patients with wry nose correction experience postoperative infection?
a) 5%
b) 10%
c) 15%
d) 20%

A

Answer: a) 5%

180
Q

How long is the tracheotomy tube maintained postoperatively?
a) 1 day
b) 2 to 3 days
c) 5 days
d) 7 days

A

Answer: b) 2 to 3 days

180
Q

What percentage of nasal packing is removed on the first postoperative day?
a) 25%
b) 50%
c) 75%
d) 100%

A

Answer: b) 50%

181
Q

How long after surgery are gingival sutures removed?
a) 2 to 3 days
b) 5 to 6 days
c) 8 to 10 days
d) 14 days

A

Answer: c) 8 to 10 days

181
Q

What percentage of foals show a cosmetic improvement after distraction osteogenesis for wry nose?
a) 50%
b) 60%
c) 80%
d) 90%

A

Answer: d) 90%

182
Q

How long after surgery are Steinmann pins removed?
a) 2 to 3 weeks
b) 4 to 5 weeks
c) 6 to 8 weeks
d) 10 weeks

A

Answer: b) 4 to 5 weeks

183
Q

Plates used for stabilizing the nasal bones postoperatively are removed at what time frame?
a) 2 to 3 weeks
b) 4 to 5 weeks
c) 6 to 8 weeks
d) 10 weeks

A

Answer: c) 6 to 8 weeks

184
Q

What size LCP plate is applied during surgical fixation of the osteotomy?
a) 2.7 mm
b) 3.5 mm
c) 4.5 mm
d) 5.5 mm

A

Answer: b) 3.5 mm

185
Q

How many screws are used on each side of the osteotomy to ensure stable fixation?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4

A

Answer: d) 4

186
Q

What is the ideal length of a midline incision during surgery for nasofrontal suture exostosis?
a) 5 cm
b) 7 cm
c) 10 cm
d) 12 cm

A

Answer: c) 10 cm

187
Q

How many screws are inserted in the Unilock plates for fixation of nasofrontal suture exostosis?
a) 2 screws on each side
b) 3 screws on each side
c) 4 screws on each side
d) 6 screws on each side

A

Answer: c) 4 screws on each side

188
Q

What percentage of cases of nasofrontal suture exostosis resolve without surgical treatment?
a) 20%
b) 40%
c) 60%
d) 80%

A

Answer: d) 80%

189
Q

What molecule is commonly used for gingival incisions during maxillary osteotomies?
a) Vicryl
b) Nylon
c) Polyglycolic acid
d) Polydioxanone

A

Answer: a) Vicryl

190
Q

How much distraction can be achieved using a RachetDis during malformation correction?
a) 1 cm
b) 2 cm
c) 3 cm
d) 4 cm

A

Answer: b) 2 cm

191
Q

What type of external fixation device is used in distraction osteogenesis for wry nose correction?
a) Type I external fixator
b) Type II external fixator
c) Kirschner wire
d) Steinmann pin

A

Answer: b) Type II external fixator

192
Q

What is the healing time after correction of prognathia superior using LCP plates?
a) 1 month
b) 2 months
c) 3 months
d) 4 months

A

Answer: b) 2 months

192
Q

How many holes are typically present on the LCP plates used for osteotomy close to the incisors?
a) 2 holes
b) 4 holes
c) 6 holes
d) 8 holes

A

Answer: b) 4 holes

192
Q

What percentage of foals with severe malocclusion cannot graze properly?
a) 10%
b) 25%
c) 50%
d) 75%

A

Answer: c) 50%

193
Q

What size screw is recommended for a metaphyseal special plate used near the molar teeth during osteotomy?
a) 2.4 mm
b) 3.5 mm
c) 4.5 mm
d) 5.0 mm

A

Answer: d) 5.0 mm

194
Q

How long after surgery should the stent bandage be removed in a patient with nasofrontal suture periostitis?
a) 2 days
b) 4 days
c) 7 days
d) 10 days

A

Answer: b) 4 days

195
Q

What percentage of foals experience some degree of nasal asymmetry postoperatively after wry nose surgery?
a) 10%
b) 25%
c) 50%
d) 75%

A
196
Q

What is the preferred method to avoid mouth opening post-wry nose surgery?
a) Locking plate
b) Interdental wiring
c) RachetDis
d) Steinmann pins

A

What size cortical bone graft is often used to fill the concave side of the premaxilla during surgery?
a) 2 cm
b) 5 cm
c) Rib graft
d) 3 cm

197
Q

What cortical bone graft is often used to fill the concave side of the premaxilla during surgery?
a) Sternum graft
b) Tuber coxae graft
c) Rib graft
d) Umeral graft

A

c) Rib graft

198
Q

What is the maximum curvature at which nasal bones are transected during wry nose surgery?
a) 2 cm
b) 4 cm
c) 6 cm
d) 8 cm

A

Answer: c) 6 cm

199
Q

What percentage of foals that undergo successful wry nose correction live normal lives?
a) 70%
b) 80%
c) 90%
d) 95%

A

Answer: c) 90%

199
Q

What percentage of foals with wry nose do not show proper incisor contact post-maturation?
a) 20%
b) 40%
c) 60%
d) 80%

A

Answer: d) 80%

199
Q

How long after surgery can foals typically be discharged from the hospital?
a) 1 week
b) 2 to 3 weeks
c) 4 to 6 weeks
d) 7 to 8 weeks

A

Answer: b) 2 to 3 weeks

200
Q

In foals with severe wry nose, what is the angle of deviation of the premaxilla?
a) 10 to 15 degrees
b) 20 to 30 degrees
c) 35 to 40 degrees
d) 45 to 50 degrees

A

Answer: c) 35 to 40 degrees

201
Q

What molecule type is often used to soak gauze for sterilization in surgical setups?
a) Water
b) Alcohol
c) Chlorhexidine
d) Sodium hypochlorite

A

Answer: c) Chlorhexidine

202
Q

What is the standard duration of external fixation postoperatively in distraction osteogenesis?
a) 1 week
b) 2 weeks
c) 4 weeks
d) 6 weeks

A

Answer: d) 6 weeks

203
Q

What percentage of foals with wry nose experience significant cosmetic deformity if left untreated?
a) 20%
b) 40%
c) 60%
d) 80%

A

Answer: c) 60%

204
Q

How long does it typically take for the nasal septum to heal after resection surgery in foals?
a) 2 to 3 weeks
b) 4 to 5 weeks
c) 6 to 8 weeks
d) 10 to 12 weeks

A

Answer: b) 4 to 5 weeks

205
Q
A

A U E R S & T (123 decks)

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