Chapter 104 - Craniomaxillofacial Disorders Flashcards by Sofs C R

What percentage of fractures caused by kicks from another horse involve the head?

a) 5%
b) 12%
c) 20%
d) 25%

Answer: b) 12%

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which bone is part of the visceral cranium and forms the rostral part of the hard palate?

a) Nasal bone
b) Palatal bone
c) Incisive bone
d) Ethmoid bone

Answer: c) Incisive bone

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

In horses, what is the relative size of the visceral cranium compared to the cerebral cranium?

a) Visceral cranium is smaller
b) Cerebral cranium is larger
c) Visceral cranium is larger
d) They are the same size

Answer: c) Visceral cranium is larger

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

At what age does the synchondrosis of the mandible ossify in horses?

a) By 1 year
b) By 2 years
c) By 3 years
d) By 4 years

Answer: b) By 2 years

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which part of the mandible contains the alveoli of the upper incisors?

a) Palatal process
b) Alveolar part
c) Mandibular ramus
d) Condylar process

Answer: b) Alveolar part

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

The petrous part, tympanic part, and squamous part are all components of which bone?

a) Sphenoid bone
b) Ethmoid bone
c) Temporal bone
d) Occipital bone

Answer: c) Temporal bone

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which bone forms the ventral base of the cerebral cranium?

a) Frontal bone
b) Sphenoid bone
c) Occipital bone
d) Parietal bone

Answer: b) Sphenoid bone

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What is a common sign of bilateral mandible fractures in horses?

a) Excessive drooling
b) Protruding tongue
c) Hemorrhage
d) Soft tissue swelling

Answer: b) Protruding tongue

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which anesthetic is used for regional anesthesia during standing fracture repair?

a) Lidocaine
b) Procaine
c) Bupivacaine
d) Ketamine

Answer: a) Lidocaine

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Computed tomography is preferred for fracture diagnosis because it improves:

a) Pain management
b) Fracture reduction
c) Preoperative appreciation of fracture configuration
d) Hemorrhage control

Answer: c) Preoperative appreciation of fracture configuration

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which bone is not part of the cerebral cranium?

a) Occipital bone
b) Zygomatic bone
c) Parietal bone
d) Sphenoid bone

Answer: b) Zygomatic bone

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Radiographs in horses are difficult to interpret for head fractures due to:

a) Superimposition of teeth
b) Soft tissue density
c) Excessive bone alignment
d) Bone malocclusion

Answer: a) Superimposition of teeth

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which process of the mandible forms the tooth-bearing part?

a) Coronoid process
b) Condylar process
c) Body or corpus
d) Mandibular ramus

Answer: c) Body or corpus

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

In what direction is the visceral cranium located relative to the cerebral cranium in horses?

a) Above
b) Below
c) Rostral
d) Caudal

Answer: c) Rostral

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which bone forms the roof of the cerebral cranium?

a) Frontal bone
b) Sphenoid bone
c) Occipital bone
d) Temporal bone

Answer: a) Frontal bone

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which is a consideration favoring surgical repair of jaw fractures?

a) Decreased callus formation
b) Delayed healing
c) Increased malocclusion
d) Increased anesthesia risk

Answer: a) Decreased callus formation

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

The mandible’s two branches are fused by what type of joint?

a) Syndesmosis
b) Synchondrosis
c) Symphysis
d) Synostosis

Answer: b) Synchondrosis

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What is used to treat open fractures with severe displacement in horses?

a) Conservative treatment
b) Internal fixation devices
c) Intravenous antibiotics
d) Soft splints

Answer: b) Internal fixation devices

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

During standing fracture repair, what aids in regional anesthesia administration?

a) 5 mL Lidocaine
b) 5 mL Morphine
c) 5 mL Epinephrine
d) 5 mL Cortisone

Answer: a) 5 mL Lidocaine

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

A fetid odor from a fracture site often indicates:

a) Open fracture with delayed treatment
b) Closed fracture
c) Recent injury
d) Bone necrosis

Answer: a) Open fracture with delayed treatment

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What is the recommended volume of anesthesia used for regional nerve block in equine jaw fracture surgery?

a) 3 mL
b) 4 mL
c) 5 mL
d) 6 mL

Answer: c) 5 mL

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Fractures caused by head jerking on stationary objects often result in:

a) Maxillary fractures
b) Avulsion fractures of the incisors
c) Condylar fractures
d) Zygomatic fractures

Answer: b) Avulsion fractures of the incisors

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

In the case of severe dehydration in horses, this can be caused by:

a) Salivary losses
b) Increased appetite
c) Fracture misalignment
d) Soft tissue swelling

Answer: a) Salivary losses

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which bone of the visceral cranium contributes to forming the nasal cavity?

a) Vomer
b) Occipital bone
c) Temporal bone
d) Parietal bone

Answer: a) Vomer

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What aids fracture detection when soft tissue swelling hinders direct inspection? a) Manipulation of the temporomandibular joint b) Visual inspection c) Cranial nerve testing d) Blood tests

Answer: a) Manipulation of the temporomandibular joint

Tetanus prophylaxis is recommended during: a) Antibiotic administration b) Fracture diagnosis c) Surgical repair of jaw fractures d) Computed tomography

Answer: c) Surgical repair of jaw fractures

What material is used to make intraoral splints for fracture repair? a) Aluminum rods b) Titanium plates c) Steel wires d) Polypropylene

Answer: a) Aluminum rods

Which bone forms part of the roof of the visceral cranium? a) Frontal bone b) Palatal bone c) Zygomatic bone d) Sphenoid bone

Answer: a) Frontal bone

Horses may become dehydrated after fractures due to a reluctance to: a) Breathe b) Eat c) Drink d) Stand

Answer: c) Drink

What imaging technique greatly improves preoperative understanding of fracture configuration? a) X-ray b) Computed tomography c) MRI d) Ultrasound

Answer: b) Computed tomography

What is the purpose of dental picks in preoperative fracture management? a) Removing teeth b) Cleaning fracture lines c) Polishing teeth d) Reducing bone malalignment

Answer: b) Cleaning fracture lines

What percentage of fractures are repaired with good cosmetic and functional results? a) 50% b) 70% c) 90% d) 95%

Answer: c) 90%

Which nerve should be blocked for fracture repairs involving the upper jaw? a) Mental nerve b) Inferior alveolar nerve c) Infraorbital nerve d) Mandibular nerve

Answer: c) Infraorbital nerve

Protruding tongues in horses indicate which type of fracture? a) Unilateral mandibular fracture b) Bilateral mandibular fracture c) Maxillary fracture d) Frontal bone fracture

Answer: b) Bilateral mandibular fracture

Which bone is part of the cerebral cranium and forms the posterior portion of the skull? a) Occipital bone b) Temporal bone c) Frontal bone d) Parietal bone

Answer: a) Occipital bone

Intraoral splints are typically made from which material? a) Aluminum rods b) Steel wires c) Titanium plates d) Polypropylene splints

Answer: a) Aluminum rods

Radiographs often aid in detecting what in chronic fracture cases? a) Infection b) Sequestrum formation c) Soft tissue swelling d) Cranial nerve damage

Answer: b) Sequestrum formation

Avulsion fractures of the incisors are often caused by: a) Cribbing behavior b) Chewing hay c) Running d) Jumping

Answer: a) Cribbing behavior

What is the primary reason computed tomography is preferred over radiographs? a) It provides a 3D reconstruction b) It is cheaper c) It is less invasive d) It is faster

Answer: a) It provides a 3D reconstruction

A sudden jerking of the head while chewing can result in fractures of the: a) Incisors b) Canine teeth c) Premolars d) Molars

Answer: a) Incisors

What is the tension side of the mandible? A. Dorsal surface B. Oral surface C. Caudal surface D. Lateral surface

Correct answer: B

What type of fractures are typically simple and interdigitate well? A. Comminuted fractures B. Avulsion fractures C. Greenstick fractures D. Transverse fractures

Correct answer: B

Fractures of the incisors caused by kicks usually push the teeth in which direction? A. Rostral B. Caudad C. Dorsal D. Ventral

Correct answer: B

What is a common complication when using intraoral wiring alone for comminuted fractures? A. Malalignment B. Infection C. Collapse D. Excess bleeding

Correct answer: C

Which method is used to prevent collapse in comminuted fractures? A. Open reduction B. Closed reduction C. Buttress techniques D. External fixation onl

Correct answer: C

Infection is a frequent complication of which surgical technique? A. Closed reduction B. Intraoral wiring C. Internal fixation D. Suturing

Correct answer: C

Where should bone plates be placed on the mandible to resist cyclic loading? A. Ventrolateral aspect B. Oral surface C. Dorsal surface D. Caudal aspect

Correct answer: A

What should be done with small bone fragments that are devoid of soft tissue attachments? A. Left in place B. Removed C. Reattached D. Sutured

Correct answer: B

How should fractured incisors be treated to prevent contact with opposing dental arcade during healing? A. Filed down B. Shortened with a rasp C. Pulled out D. Stabilized with external fixators

Correct answer: B

What gauge needle is typically used during intraoral wiring? A. 10-gauge B. 12-gauge C. 14-gauge D. 16-gauge

Correct answer: C

What diameter stainless steel wire is used in intraoral wiring? A. 0.8 mm B. 1.25 mm C. 1.5 mm D. 2.0 mm

Correct answer: B

Which wiring technique is used to unite all teeth in one fixation? A. Simple loops B. Figure-of-eight technique C. Interrupted wire D. Continuous wire

Correct answer: B

What is the name of the standard wiring technique used in human medicine that has been proposed for dental fractures? A. Obwegeser Cerclage technique B. Tension-band technique C. Figure-of-eight technique D. Loop wiring technique

Correct answer: A

What size cortex screw can be inserted in the interdental space for caudal anchoring? A. 2.5 mm B. 3.5 mm C. 4.5 mm D. 5.0 mm

Correct answer: C

What material are orthopedic cables typically made from? A. Titanium alloy B. Stainless steel C. Carbon fiber D. Both A and B

Correct answer: D

What is the diameter of orthopedic cables typically used in fracture fixation? A. 0.8 mm B. 1.0 mm C. 1.5 mm D. 2.0 mm

Correct answer: B

What is the purpose of the cable tensioner in orthopedic cable fixation? A. To place screws B. To produce tension on the cable C. To cut the cable D. To remove the cable

Correct answer: B

What is the typical size of the K-wire used in hemicerclage wiring for mandible fractures? A. 1.5 mm B. 2.0 mm C. 2.5 mm D. 3.0 mm

Correct answer: C

Why is radiographic control necessary during internal fixation procedures? A. To ensure bone healing B. To determine screw length and placement C. To avoid soft tissue damage D. To prevent infection

Correct answer: B

What type of loading do bone plates resist better when placed on the ventrolateral aspect of the mandible? A. Compressive loading B. Cyclic loading C. Tension loading D. Shear loading

Correct answer: B

What must be done before tightening the wires during intraoral wiring? A. Remove slack B. Clean the wound C. File down the teeth D. Drill holes for screws

Correct answer: A

When is a buttress typically required in fracture repair? A. In greenstick fractures B. In comminuted fractures C. In avulsion fractures D. In stable fractures

Correct answer: B

Why is closed reduction preferred over open reduction for certain fractures? A. To decrease surgery time B. To preserve blood supply C. To improve alignment accuracy D. To reduce the risk of malocclusion

Correct answer: B

Which side of the maxilla should bone plates be applied to resist cyclic loading? A. Oral side B. Ventral side C. Lateral side D. Caudal side

Correct answer: C

Which factor makes placing screws for plate fixation difficult in the mandible and maxilla? A. Hard bone structure B. Proximity to roots of teeth C. Lack of soft tissue support D. Intraoperative radiograph difficulties

Correct answer: B

What size drill bit is used for interdental wiring in foals? A. 1.5 mm B. 2.0 mm C. 2.5 mm D. 3.0 mm

Correct answer: C

Why are loose teeth not removed immediately during fracture repair? A. They will not survive B. They serve as anchor sites C. They interfere with radiographs D. They obstruct soft tissue attachment

Correct answer: B

What material is recommended to prevent slack in intraoral wiring? A. Cerclage wire B. Orthopedic cable C. Stainless steel wire D. Titanium alloy wire

Correct answer: C

How does kinking of wires affect intraoral fixation? A. Increases tension B. Decreases strength and causes loosening C. Stabilizes the fracture D. Prevents migration

Correct answer: B

Intraoral wiring configurations are adaptable to almost any fracture because they are: A. Rigid B. Inexpensive C. Easy to apply D. Both B and C

Correct answer: D

What is the main reason internal fixation results in infection? A. Poor screw placement B. Long surgery time C. Open fractures exposed to microflora D. Improper alignment

Correct answer: C

Which area is often used to anchor tension-band wiring in horses with mandibular fractures? A. Third premolar B. Second premolar C. First incisor D. Canine tooth

Correct answer: B

Orthopedic cable has higher resistance to which type of loading compared to cerclage wire? A. Static loading B. Compressive loading C. Fatigue loading D. Both A and C

Correct answer: D

What material is used to reinforce intraoral wiring in comminuted fractures? a) Titanium b) Dental acrylic c) Polyethylene d) Stainless steel

Correct answer: b) Dental acrylic

Which method is used to prepare the intraoral splint for mandibular fractures? a) Injection molding b) Molding dental acrylic around interdental wires c) 3D printing d) Welding metal plates

Correct answer: b) Molding dental acrylic around interdental wires

How far does the acrylic splint extend in the horse's mouth? a) From 101 to 103 b) From the caudal surface of the incisors to 306 or 406 c) From the first molar to the last incisor d) From 405 to 410

Correct answer: b) From the caudal surface of the incisors to 306 or 406

What is the main function of the acrylic in intraoral splints? a) Reducing exothermic reaction b) Maintaining bone length and alignment c) Increasing strength of wiring d) Protecting soft tissues

Correct answer: b) Maintaining bone length and alignment

What type of acrylic should be used to minimize heat production during polymerization? a) Polyethylene acrylic b) Polyvinyl acrylic c) Dental acrylic d) Epoxy resin

Correct answer: c) Dental acrylic

Why should excessive acrylic material in the mouth be avoided? a) It impedes breathing b) It interferes with the horse’s tongue and eating c) It causes infection d) It can lead to dental erosion

Correct answer: b) It interferes with the horse’s tongue and eating

What is the preferred material for molding intraoral splints for a better fit? a) Epoxy b) Methyl methacrylate c) Polyethylene d) Aluminum

Correct answer: b) Methyl methacrylate

What is done to methyl methacrylate after it starts to cure in the mouth? a) It is left in place b) It is removed for shaping and smoothing c) It is drilled for wiring d) It is replaced with titanium plates

Correct answer: b) It is removed for shaping and smoothing

What tool is used to remove excess material from the methyl methacrylate? a) Surgical blade b) Hammer and chisel c) Rasp or dermal tool d) Heat gun

Correct answer: c) Rasp or dermal tool

What is the typical diameter of stainless steel wire used for figure-of-eight wiring? a) 0.75 mm b) 1.00 mm c) 1.25 mm d) 2.00 mm

Correct answer: c) 1.25 mm

In how many locations is the U-bar brace typically fixed to the incisors and cheek teeth? a) 1-2 b) 3-5 c) 5-7 d) 10

Correct answer: b) 3-5

What material is commonly used for the U-bar brace in intraoral splinting? a) Brass or aluminum rods b) Stainless steel plates c) Titanium rods d) Nylon fibers

Correct answer: a) Brass or aluminum rods

How is wiring to the cheek teeth performed in U-bar brace fixation? a) Via dental crowns b) Stab incisions through the cheek and drilling between the teeth c) Bonding to the enamel surface d) Adhesive material

Correct answer: b) Stab incisions through the cheek and drilling between the teeth

Intramedullary pins are used in selected cases for what purpose? a) To reinforce the maxilla b) To provide axial alignment c) To replace screws d) To immobilize soft tissue

Correct answer: b) To provide axial alignment

What size of cortex screw is typically used in lag fashion for mandibular fractures? a) 3.5 mm b) 2.5 mm c) 5.0 mm d) 1.5 mm

Correct answer: a) 3.5 mm

What is the recommended number of cortex screws to ensure rotational stability? a) One b) Two c) Four d) Six

Correct answer: b) Two

When are screws typically removed after intraoral fixation? a) After 6 months b) Only if they become infected or loose c) After fracture healing d) They are never removed

Correct answer: b) Only if they become infected or loose

How far from the fracture line should cortex screws be placed for figure-of-eight wiring? a) 1 cm b) 2 cm c) 3 cm d) 4 cm

Correct answer: b) 2 cm

What is the diameter of the connecting bar used in type II external fixators? a) 4 mm b) 5 mm c) 6 mm d) 8 mm

Correct answer: c) 6 mm

What is the diameter of pins typically used in type II external fixators? a) 3 mm b) 4 mm c) 5 mm d) 6 mm

Correct answer: b) 4 mm

What tool is used to prevent thermal necrosis during drilling for external fixators? a) High-speed drill b) Low-speed, high-torque drill c) Pneumatic drill d) Rotary file

Correct answer: b) Low-speed, high-torque drill

By what percentage should the drill hole diameter be smaller than the pin size to ensure solid fixation? a) 5% b) 10% c) 15% d) 20%

Correct answer: b) 10%

What is the preferred type of pin for type I fixators? a) Positive profile end-threaded pins b) Smooth pins c) Solid pins d) Hollow pins

Correct answer: a) Positive profile end-threaded pins

What type of external fixator is used for unilateral fractures of the horizontal ramus of the mandible? a) Type I b) Type II c) Pinless d) Internal fixator

Correct answer: a) Type I

What is the preferred pin type for type II external fixators? a) Positive profile end-threaded pins b) Center-threaded pins c) Smooth pins d) Screw-threaded pins

Correct answer: b) Center-threaded pins

What material is used to fill the flexible rubber hose in the acrylic side bar technique? a) Epoxy resin b) Polymethyl methacrylate (PMMA) c) Silicone rubber d) Dental plaster

Correct answer: b) Polymethyl methacrylate (PMMA)

What is the typical drill bit diameter for predrilling holes in bone for pin placement? a) 2.5 mm b) 3.0 mm c) 3.5 mm d) 4.0 mm

Correct answer: a) 2.5 mm

What is the most common complication associated with the use of external fixators? a) Tooth erosion b) Pin tract infection c) Loss of bone density d) Dislocation of the fixator

Correct answer: b) Pin tract infection

How often should pin tract care be performed after placing external fixators? a) Daily b) Weekly c) Monthly d) Every 48 hours

Correct answer: a) Daily

What is a disadvantage of using an acrylic side bar in external fixators? a) Difficult removal b) Inability to adjust the bar once set c) High cost d) Requires frequent cleaning

Correct answer: b) Inability to adjust the bar once set

What is the inside diameter of the flexible rubber hose used in acrylic side bar fixators? a) 15 mm b) 20 mm c) 25 mm d) 30 mm

Correct answer: c) 25 mm

Which external fixator method eliminates the need for pins penetrating the mandible? a) Type I fixator b) Type II fixator c) Pinless external fixator d) Screw-based fixator

Correct answer: c) Pinless external fixator

What is the shape of the bone clamp used in the pinless external fixator? a) Curved b) Symmetric or asymmetric with trocar-type points c) Flat with rubber padding d) Circular with spikes

Correct answer: b) Symmetric or asymmetric with trocar-type points

What is the major benefit of a pinless external fixator over conventional pin fixators? a) Easier placement b) No pin tract infections c) More cost-effective d) Less technical expertise required

Correct answer: b) No pin tract infections

What is the typical size of cortex screws used in unicortical placement on either side of a fracture? a) 3.5 mm b) 4.5 mm c) 5.5 mm d) 6.0 mm

Correct answer: b) 4.5 mm

What advantage does the pinless external fixator offer during healing? a) Flexibility to adjust the construct b) Cheaper equipment c) Shorter healing time d) No need for radiographic control

Correct answer: a) Flexibility to adjust the construct

What is the disadvantage of a pinless external fixator in horses? a) High risk of infection b) Increased cost c) Difficulty in placement d) Limited adjustability

Correct answer: b) Increased cost

How many pins are recommended to be placed rostral and caudal to the fracture in a type I external fixator? a) At least 1 pin b) At least 2 pins c) At least 3 pins d) At least 4 pins

Correct answer: b) At least 2 pins

What complication is minimized by placing external fixators close to the skin? a) Excessive bone loss b) Snagging on objects c) Poor fracture healing d) Pin loosening

Correct answer: b) Snagging on objects

What method is used to secure wires to cheek teeth when using an acrylic side bar? a) Glue b) Looping wire around pins and tightening c) Staples d) Screws

Correct answer: b) Looping wire around pins and tightening

What is the diameter of screws used with 3.5-mm LC-DCP plates for mandibular fractures? a) 2.0 mm b) 3.0 mm c) 3.5 mm d) 4.5 mm

Correct answer: c) 3.5 mm

How many screws are typically inserted on each side of the fracture when using a 4.5-mm LC-DCP plate? a) 1 screw b) 2 screws c) 3 screws d) 5 screws

Correct answer: c) 3 screws

At least how many locking head screws should be inserted on each side of the fracture with an LCP plate? a) 1 screw b) 2 screws c) 3 screws d) 4 screws

Correct answer: b) 2 screws

What is the minimum length of time recommended before implant removal after mandibular fracture healing? a) 2-4 weeks b) 4-6 weeks c) 6-8 weeks d) 8-10 weeks

Correct answer: c) 6-8 weeks

What percentage of cases require plate removal due to contamination from the oral cavity? a) 5% b) 20% c) 50% d) 80%

Correct answer: c) 50%

What is the size of screws typically used on the vertical ramus due to its thinness? a) 3.5 mm b) 4.0 mm c) 4.5 mm d) 5.0 mm

Correct answer: a) 3.5 mm

What is the preferred percentage of yield stress for dynamic compression plates (DCP) in fatigue testing? a) 25% b) 50% c) 75% d) 100%

Correct answer: b) 50%

What size locking compression plates (LCP) are typically used for mandibular fracture repairs in horses? a) 3.0 mm b) 3.5 mm or 4.5/5.0 mm c) 4.0 mm d) 5.5 mm

Correct answer: b) 3.5 mm or 4.5/5.0 mm

What percentage of mandibular fractures involve the tooth roots, complicating screw placement? a) 10% b) 30% c) 50% d) 70%

Correct answer: d) 70%

What is the typical thickness of a narrow reconstruction plate used in mandibular fractures? a) 2.0 mm b) 2.5 mm c) 3.0 mm d) 3.5 mm

Correct answer: d) 3.5 mm

What is the failure rate of dynamic compression plates (DCPs) when used alone for mandibular fractures? a) 10% b) 30% c) 40% d) 60%

Correct answer: b) 30%

What percentage of mandibular fractures are associated with the TM joint? a) 5% b) 10% c) 15% d) 20%

Correct answer: b) 10%

What is the failure percentage in yield testing for DCP constructs in biomechanical studies? a) 25% b) 40% c) 60% d) 75%

Correct answer: b) 40%

How many screws are recommended on each side of a comminuted mandibular fracture using a buttress plate? a) 2 screws b) 3 screws c) 4 screws d) 5 screws

Correct answer: b) 3 screws

What percentage of mandibular fractures are complicated by infection due to contamination from the oral cavity? a) 25% b) 50% c) 75% d) 100%

Correct answer: d) 100%

What size screws are too large for the lateral aspect of the vertical ramus? a) 2.0 mm b) 3.0 mm c) 4.5 mm d) 5.0 mm

Correct answer: c) 4.5 mm

What percentage of fractures treated with plates experience implant loosening due to cyclic loading? a) 10% b) 20% c) 30% d) 40%

Correct answer: b) 20%

What is the preferred treatment method for simple interdental space fractures? a) LCP plate b) DCP plate c) Interdental wiring with intraoral splint d) Buttress plating

Correct answer: c) Interdental wiring with intraoral splint

What percentage of mandibular fractures are comminuted? a) 10% b) 25% c) 50% d) 75%

Correct answer: c) 50%

What is the thickness of the bone on the caudal vertical ramus where screws are placed? a) 1.5 mm b) 2.5 mm c) 4.5 mm d) 6.0 mm

Correct answer: d) 6.0 mm

How many screws are typically used on either side of a fracture in a compression plating repair? a) 1 screw b) 2 screws c) 3 screws d) 4 screws

Correct answer: b) 2 screws

What percentage of cases require tension-band wiring in addition to LCP plating for stabilization? a) 25% b) 50% c) 75% d) 100%

Correct answer: c) 75%

What percentage of mandibular fractures involve the interdental space? a) 10% b) 30% c) 50% d) 70%

Correct answer: b) 30%

What is the percentage increase in stability when tension-band wiring is added to external fixators? a) 10% b) 25% c) 50% d) 75%

Correct answer: c) 50%

What percentage of mandibular fractures in horses are treated surgically? a) 20% b) 40% c) 60% d) 80%

Correct answer: d) 80%

What size of plate is typically used for fractures in the coronoid process of the mandible? a) 2.0 mm b) 2.5 mm c) 3.5 mm d) 4.5 mm

Correct answer: c) 3.5 mm

What is the failure rate of external fixators without supplemental tension-band wiring in fatigue testing? a) 25% b) 50% c) 75% d) 100%

Correct answer: c) 75%

What percentage of mandibular fractures result in chronic nonunion requiring special management? a) 10% b) 20% c) 30% d) 40%

Correct answer: b) 20%

How many screws are inserted when using a plate in the caudal vertical ramus of the mandible? a) 1 screw b) 2 screws c) 3 screws d) 4 screws

Correct answer: c) 3 screws

What is the approximate healing time for mandibular fractures treated with plates? a) 2-4 weeks b) 4-6 weeks c) 6-8 weeks d) 8-10 weeks

Correct answer: c) 6-8 weeks

What percentage of horses return to normal eating behavior after mandibular fracture repair? a) 50% b) 70% c) 90% d) 100%

Correct answer: d) 100

What is the likelihood of plate breakage as a complication in mandibular fracture repairs? a) 1% b) 5% c) 10% d) 20%

Correct answer: b) 5%

How long is an NSAID typically administered postoperatively for mandibular fractures? a) 3 days b) 5 days c) 7 days d) 10 days

Correct answer: c) 7 days

What is the frequency of implant inspection post-mandibular fracture repair? a) Weekly b) Bi-weekly c) Monthly d) Every two months

Correct answer: a) Weekly

What percentage of mandibular fractures result in tooth loss? a) 5% b) 10% c) 20% d) 25%

Correct answer: c) 20%

What is the size of cables used as alternatives to wires for mandibular fracture repair? a) 1 mm b) 2 mm c) 3 mm d) 4 mm

Correct answer: a) 1 mm

What percentage of mandibular fractures involve the horizontal ramus? a) 25% b) 50% c) 75% d) 100%

Correct answer: c) 75%

How long does it take for drainage from the fracture site to resolve postoperatively? a) 1 week b) 2 weeks c) 3 weeks d) 4 weeks

Correct answer: d) 4 weeks

How long after mandibular fracture repair should radiographs be taken to check for sequestra? a) 2 weeks b) 4 weeks c) 6 weeks d) 8 weeks

Correct answer: b) 4 weeks

What percentage of horses experience callus formation after mandibular fracture repair? a) 10% b) 25% c) 50% d) 75%

Correct answer: c) 50%

What are the most commonly injured bones in skull fractures in horses? a) Zygomatic bone and lacrimal bone b) Nasal, frontal, and maxillary bones c) Parietal and occipital bones d) Sphenoid and temporal bones

Answer: b) Nasal, frontal, and maxillary bones

Depression fractures of the skull are often: a) Open fractures b) Comminuted fractures c) Minimally displaced d) Closed fractures

Answer: c) Minimally displaced

What percentage of displaced skull fractures might require surgical intervention? a) 10% b) 25% c) 50% d) 100%

Answer: c) 50%

Which imaging modality is best for identifying superimposed skull structures in fractures? a) Radiography b) Computed Tomography (CT) c) MRI d) Ultrasound

Answer: b) Computed Tomography (CT)

In cases where fracture repair is delayed, what factor contributes most to the difficulty in reduction? a) Infection b) Muscle atrophy c) Soft tissue swelling d) Bone necrosis

Answer: c) Soft tissue swelling

What is the optimal drill bit size used to elevate depressed skull fragments? a) 1.5 mm b) 3.5 mm c) 4.5 mm d) 6 mm

Answer: b) 3.5 mm

What is the primary material used for the Flap-Fix system? a) Stainless steel b) Aluminum c) Titanium d) Polyethylene

Answer: c) Titanium

Which pin size is recommended for elevating a fracture fragment in horses? a) 1 mm b) 3 mm c) 4 mm d) 6 mm

Answer: b) 3 mm

What is the correct size for a Steinmann pin used for the ingress portal in standing sinus lavage? a) 1.5 mm b) 2 mm c) 3 mm d) 4 mm

Answer: b) 2 mm

What percentage of skull fractures in horses communicate with nasal passages or sinuses? a) 20% b) 50% c) 75% d) 100%

Answer: d) 100%

What is a major disadvantage of the Flap-Fix system? a) Risk of infection b) High cost c) Poor cosmetic outcome d) Difficulty in application

Answer: b) High cost

The Flap-Fix system uses which size of the perpendicular tube in the implant? a) 2 mm b) 4 mm c) 6 mm d) 8 mm

Answer: c) 6 mm

Which type of fixation is preferred for severely comminuted skull fractures? a) Wire sutures b) Bone cement c) Reconstruction plates d) Bone hooks

Answer: c) Reconstruction plates

What is the maximum screw length recommended for stabilization of skull fractures? a) 6 mm b) 8 mm c) 12 mm d) 14 mm

Answer: b) 8 mm

Which percentage of facial fractures are considered depression fractures? a) 25% b) 50% c) 75% d) 100%

Answer: b) 50%

Which size drill bit is used to predrill holes for cerclage wire sutures? a) 1.5 mm b) 2 mm c) 3 mm d) 4 mm

Answer: b) 2 mm

What percentage of skull fracture complications result from inadequate reduction? a) 25% b) 40% c) 60% d) 75%

Answer: d) 75%

Which of the following is the primary complication associated with skull fractures? a) Sinus empyema b) Facial nerve palsy c) Mandibular sequestration d) Corneal ulceration

Answer: a) Sinus empyema

The periosteal flap technique is used to correct which type of skull defect? a) Sinus empyema b) Skull sequestration c) Sinus fistula d) Facial nerve palsy

Answer: c) Sinus fistula

What is the preferred material for facial implants when correcting cosmetic defects? a) Polyethylene b) Silicone c) Titanium d) Carbon fiber

Answer: b) Silicone

What is the recommended timing for fracture repair once soft tissue swelling subsides? a) 24 hours b) 3 days c) 5 days d) 7 days

Answer: b) 3 days

Which imaging technique is best for detecting maxillary sinus fluid lines? a) MRI b) CT scan c) Radiography d) Ultrasound

Answer: c) Radiography

What is the common size for reconstruction plates used in orbital fractures? a) 2.4 mm b) 3.5 mm c) 4.5 mm d) 5.5 mm

Answer: b) 3.5 mm

Tetanus prophylaxis is recommended in what percentage of skull fracture cases? a) 20% b) 50% c) 75% d) 100%

Answer: d) 100%

. What percentage of skull fractures communicate with sinuses in horses? a) 10% b) 30% c) 50% d) 100%

Answer: d) 100%

What is the most common indication for rostral mandibulectomy in horses? a) Fractures b) Osteosarcoma c) Ossifying fibromas d) Bone sequestration

Answer: c) Ossifying fibromas

What is the primary cause of craniofacial defects (sinus fistulas) in horses? a) Genetic disorders b) External trauma c) Congenital anomalies d) Bone infections

Answer: b) External trauma

What is the preferred incision approach in a rostral mandibulectomy? a) Medial b) Transverse c) Oblique d) Sagittal

Answer: b) Transverse

What percentage of horses experience difficulty with short grass after mandibulectomy? a) 10% b) 30% c) 50% d) 75%

Answer: c) 50%

The post-operative period after fracture repair often involves the use of which drug? a) Antibiotics b) Anticoagulants c) NSAIDs d) Antihistamines

Answer: c) NSAIDs

What is the common complication of inadequate reduction in craniofacial fractures? a) Infection b) Stenosis c) Hemorrhage d) Callus formation

Answer: d) Callus formation

What is the angle of the bent Steinmann pin used to elevate a depressed bone fragment? a) 30 degrees b) 45 degrees c) 60 degrees d) 90 degrees

Answer: d) 90 degrees

Which fluid is used in standing sinus lavage? a) Saline b) Polyionic fluid c) Dextrose solution d) Distilled water

Answer: b) Polyionic fluid

Inadequate reduction results in what percentage of poor cosmetic outcomes? a) 20% b) 50% c) 70% d) 100%

Answer: c) 70%

Empyema of the maxillary sinus is caused by which factor in skull fractures? a) Infection b) Hemorrhage c) Edema d) Fracture malalignment

Answer: a) Infection

Post-operative drainage of sinuses typically lasts for how long? a) 24 hours b) 48 hours c) 5 days d) 7 days

Answer: d) 7 days

Which of the following is the least common complication in horses with skull fractures? a) Sepsis b) Malocclusion c) Soft tissue swelling d) Brain damage

Answer: d) Brain damage

What size plate is used for severely comminuted fractures in adult horses? a) 3.5 mm b) 4.5 mm c) 5.5 mm d) 6.5 mm

Answer: b) 4.5 mm

What is the preferred suture material for external closure in skull fracture repairs? a) Silk b) Nylon c) Vicryl d) Prolene

Answer: c) Vicryl

What is the average healing time for craniofacial fractures in horses? a) 3 weeks b) 6 weeks c) 9 weeks d) 12 weeks

Answer: b) 6 weeks

What is the common breed associated with a higher frequency of wry nose? a) Thoroughbred b) Arabian c) Clydesdale d) Quarter Horse

Answer: b) Arabian

At what age should surgical correction of wry nose be performed on foals? a) Immediately after birth b) 1 to 2 months c) 2 to 3 months d) 6 to 12 months

Answer: c) 2 to 3 months

The nasal septum resection for wry nose typically removes how much length? a) 3 cm b) 6 cm c) 9 cm d) 12 cm

Answer: b) 6 cm

What percentage of foals with wry nose develop breathing difficulties or increased respiratory sounds? a) 10% b) 25% c) 50% d) 75%

Answer: b) 25%

What size screws are used to stabilize the plates during wry nose correction? a) 1.5 mm b) 2.4 mm c) 3.5 mm d) 5.0 mm

Answer: c) 3.5 mm

What is the thickness of the nasal septum in foals that allows it to be cut with scissors? a) Very thin b) 2 mm thick c) 5 mm thick d) 10 mm thick

Answer: a) Very thin

What size Unilock or LCP plates are used to stabilize the nasal bones during surgery? a) 2.0 mm b) 2.4 mm c) 2.7 mm d) b and c

d) b and c

What is the primary molecule in the antiseptic solution used to soak the gauze sponges during surgery? a) Povidone-iodine b) Chlorhexidine c) Hydrogen peroxide d) Ethanol

Answer: b) Chlorhexidine

What percentage of surgical patients with wry nose correction experience postoperative infection? a) 5% b) 10% c) 15% d) 20%

Answer: a) 5%

How long is the tracheotomy tube maintained postoperatively? a) 1 day b) 2 to 3 days c) 5 days d) 7 days

Answer: b) 2 to 3 days

What percentage of nasal packing is removed on the first postoperative day? a) 25% b) 50% c) 75% d) 100%

Answer: b) 50%

How long after surgery are gingival sutures removed? a) 2 to 3 days b) 5 to 6 days c) 8 to 10 days d) 14 days

Answer: c) 8 to 10 days

What percentage of foals show a cosmetic improvement after distraction osteogenesis for wry nose? a) 50% b) 60% c) 80% d) 90%

Answer: d) 90%

How long after surgery are Steinmann pins removed? a) 2 to 3 weeks b) 4 to 5 weeks c) 6 to 8 weeks d) 10 weeks

Answer: b) 4 to 5 weeks

Plates used for stabilizing the nasal bones postoperatively are removed at what time frame? a) 2 to 3 weeks b) 4 to 5 weeks c) 6 to 8 weeks d) 10 weeks

Answer: c) 6 to 8 weeks

What size LCP plate is applied during surgical fixation of the osteotomy? a) 2.7 mm b) 3.5 mm c) 4.5 mm d) 5.5 mm

Answer: b) 3.5 mm

How many screws are used on each side of the osteotomy to ensure stable fixation? a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4

Answer: d) 4

What is the ideal length of a midline incision during surgery for nasofrontal suture exostosis? a) 5 cm b) 7 cm c) 10 cm d) 12 cm

Answer: c) 10 cm

How many screws are inserted in the Unilock plates for fixation of nasofrontal suture exostosis? a) 2 screws on each side b) 3 screws on each side c) 4 screws on each side d) 6 screws on each side

Answer: c) 4 screws on each side

What percentage of cases of nasofrontal suture exostosis resolve without surgical treatment? a) 20% b) 40% c) 60% d) 80%

Answer: d) 80%

What molecule is commonly used for gingival incisions during maxillary osteotomies? a) Vicryl b) Nylon c) Polyglycolic acid d) Polydioxanone

Answer: a) Vicryl

How much distraction can be achieved using a RachetDis during malformation correction? a) 1 cm b) 2 cm c) 3 cm d) 4 cm

Answer: b) 2 cm

What type of external fixation device is used in distraction osteogenesis for wry nose correction? a) Type I external fixator b) Type II external fixator c) Kirschner wire d) Steinmann pin

Answer: b) Type II external fixator

What is the healing time after correction of prognathia superior using LCP plates? a) 1 month b) 2 months c) 3 months d) 4 months

Answer: b) 2 months

How many holes are typically present on the LCP plates used for osteotomy close to the incisors? a) 2 holes b) 4 holes c) 6 holes d) 8 holes

Answer: b) 4 holes

What percentage of foals with severe malocclusion cannot graze properly? a) 10% b) 25% c) 50% d) 75%

Answer: c) 50%

What size screw is recommended for a metaphyseal special plate used near the molar teeth during osteotomy? a) 2.4 mm b) 3.5 mm c) 4.5 mm d) 5.0 mm

Answer: d) 5.0 mm

How long after surgery should the stent bandage be removed in a patient with nasofrontal suture periostitis? a) 2 days b) 4 days c) 7 days d) 10 days

Answer: b) 4 days

What percentage of foals experience some degree of nasal asymmetry postoperatively after wry nose surgery? a) 10% b) 25% c) 50% d) 75%

What is the preferred method to avoid mouth opening post-wry nose surgery? a) Locking plate b) Interdental wiring c) RachetDis d) Steinmann pins

What size cortical bone graft is often used to fill the concave side of the premaxilla during surgery? a) 2 cm b) 5 cm c) Rib graft d) 3 cm

What cortical bone graft is often used to fill the concave side of the premaxilla during surgery? a) Sternum graft b) Tuber coxae graft c) Rib graft d) Umeral graft

c) Rib graft

What is the maximum curvature at which nasal bones are transected during wry nose surgery? a) 2 cm b) 4 cm c) 6 cm d) 8 cm

Answer: c) 6 cm

What percentage of foals that undergo successful wry nose correction live normal lives? a) 70% b) 80% c) 90% d) 95%

Answer: c) 90%

What percentage of foals with wry nose do not show proper incisor contact post-maturation? a) 20% b) 40% c) 60% d) 80%

Answer: d) 80%

How long after surgery can foals typically be discharged from the hospital? a) 1 week b) 2 to 3 weeks c) 4 to 6 weeks d) 7 to 8 weeks

Answer: b) 2 to 3 weeks

In foals with severe wry nose, what is the angle of deviation of the premaxilla? a) 10 to 15 degrees b) 20 to 30 degrees c) 35 to 40 degrees d) 45 to 50 degrees

Answer: c) 35 to 40 degrees

What molecule type is often used to soak gauze for sterilization in surgical setups? a) Water b) Alcohol c) Chlorhexidine d) Sodium hypochlorite

Answer: c) Chlorhexidine

What is the standard duration of external fixation postoperatively in distraction osteogenesis? a) 1 week b) 2 weeks c) 4 weeks d) 6 weeks

Answer: d) 6 weeks

What percentage of foals with wry nose experience significant cosmetic deformity if left untreated? a) 20% b) 40% c) 60% d) 80%

Answer: c) 60%

How long does it typically take for the nasal septum to heal after resection surgery in foals? a) 2 to 3 weeks b) 4 to 5 weeks c) 6 to 8 weeks d) 10 to 12 weeks

Answer: b) 4 to 5 weeks