Chapter 75 - Bone biology and fracture healing Flashcards

1
Q
A

Figure 75-1. Illustration of an immature equine tibia with bone regions
and types indicated. The top right inset is a schematic of bone microstructure
showing major osteonal components. The lower right inset
shows the major bone vessels. A, Collagen fibers; B, vessels and nerves
in Haversian canal; C, concentric lamellae with osteocytes (dots); D,
periosteum fibrous layer; E, periosteum cambium layer; F, Haversion canal
in cortical bone; G, Volkmann’s canal in cortical bone; H, endosteum; I,
nutrient artery; J, metaphysis artery; K, epiphysis artery; L, distal articular
surface; M, distal physis; N, trabecular bone; O, medullary canal; P,
epiphyses; Q, metaphyses; R, diaphysis; S, caudal cortex.

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1
Q

What are the primary functions of bones in the body?

A

Bones protect internal organs, provide rigidity for force generation, and serve as a reservoir for calcium and phosphate.

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2
Q

What is the importance of the organic matrix, cells, and water in bones?

A

They contribute to the mechanical properties crucial for bone function.

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3
Q

What proportion of dry bone weight is composed of minerals?

A

Two-thirds of the dry weight of bone is mineral.

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4
Q

What factors influence bone healing?

A

Patient characteristics, site and severity of injury, and fracture management.

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4
Q

What process is essential for maintaining normal bone performance?

A

Dynamic remodeling is essential for maintaining normal bone performance.

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5
Q

How do bones repair themselves without forming scars?

A

Through secreted growth factors and interactions among cells and the microenvironment.

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5
Q

What are the three major categories of bones?

A

Long, cuboidal, and flat bones.

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6
Q

How do long bones provide a mechanical advantage for horses?

A

Their length contributes to superior power and speed.

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6
Q

What are the three regions of long bones?

A

Diaphysis, epiphysis, and metaphysis.

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6
Q

What separates the metaphysis from the epiphysis?

A

The physis, or growth plate.

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7
Q

How do axial bones form during embryonic development?

A

By ossification of a hyaline cartilage model through endochondral ossification.

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7
Q

What is intramembranous ossification?

A

A process where flat bones form from fibrous connective tissue precursors.

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8
Q

Describe the process in the hypertrophic zone of the growth plate.

A
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8
Q

What happens to chondrocytes during endochondral ossification

A

They cluster, differentiate, and undergo hypertrophy; those at the center cease proliferation.

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9
Q

What is the role of perichondrial cells in bone development?

A

They become osteoblasts and form a bone collar, guiding vascularization and mineralization.

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9
Q

What does vascular ingrowth form during endochondral ossification?

A

The primary spongiosa.

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10
Q

What occurs in the resting zone of the growth plate?

A

It contains the least metabolically active chondrocytes.

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11
Q

What is the difference in ossification centers between endochondral and intramembranous ossification?

A

Endochondral ossification forms in a cartilage model, while intramembranous ossification forms in sheets of connective tissue.

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12
Q

What happens in the ossification zone of the growth plate?

A

Chondrocytes mature, hypertrophy, and mineralize the extracellular matrix.

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13
Q

How does cortical bone thickness vary in long bones?

A

It decreases proximally towards the metaphysis.

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14
Q

What remains of the physis once skeletal maturity is reached?

A

An inactive physis as a narrow, indistinct line between epiphysis and metaphysis.

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15
Q

What type of marrow is found in the medulla of immature animals?

A

Hematopoietic bone marrow.

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16
Q

What are the two main types of bone tissue?

A

Cortical (compact) bone and trabecular (cancellous) bone.

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17
Q

What is the composition of osteons in cortical and trabecular bone?

A

Cortical osteons are Haversian systems; trabecular osteons are referred to as packets.

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18
Q

Why is trabecular bone considered more metabolically active?

A

Its structure allows for a higher rate of metabolic activity compared to cortical bone.

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19
Q

What distinguishes primary from secondary osteons?

A

Primary osteons form during growth, while secondary osteons form during remodeling.

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19
Q

How are Volkmann canals oriented relative to Haversian canals?

A

Volkmann canals are oriented at 90 degrees to Haversian canals.

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20
Q

What is the structure of Haversian systems?

A

Cylindrical shape with concentric layers (lamellae) surrounding central canals

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21
Q

What are cement lines, and what do they signify?

A

They separate osteons from interstitial bone tissue, indicating areas of bone resorption and formation.

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22
Q

What is bone remodeling, and when does it occur?

A

Local stress and strain, metabolic status, age, and sex.

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22
Q

What factors influence the composition and mineralization of cement lines?

A

Local stress and strain, metabolic status, age, and sex.

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23
Q

What are current research focuses in fracture healing?

A

Accelerating healing processes and reducing complications

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23
Q

What is bone remodeling, and when does it occur?

A

Bone remodeling is the process of bone resorption and formation occurring throughout life.

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24
Q

What are some mechanisms to assess fracture healing quality?

A

Noninvasive imaging techniques are critical for assessing healing quality.

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24
Q

What role do growth factors play in bone healing?

A

They facilitate communication and healing processes between bone cells.

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24
Q

What biological events are involved in the bone healing process?

A

A highly orchestrated sequence that includes inflammation, repair, and remodeling.

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25
Q

What complications can arise from poor fracture management?

A

Delayed healing, nonunion, or malunion of the fracture.

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25
Q

How does fracture stabilization influence bone healing?

A

Proper stabilization promotes optimal healing conditions and reduces complications.

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26
Q

How does the biomechanical environment affect bone health?

A

Mechanical stress and strain influence bone density, strength, and remodeling rates.

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26
Q

Why is understanding fracture configurations important?

A
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26
Q

What is the significance of bone’s ability to remodel?

A

It allows adaptation to mechanical loads and repair of micro-damage over time.

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27
Q

Mammalian long bone growth in length occurs at the physis via

A

endochondral ossification

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28
Q

The resting zone contains the least metabolically active ____(1w) and is closest to the epiphyseal end of the growth pla

A

chondrocytes

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29
Q

In the adjacent proliferation zone, _______(2w) occurs in a plane perpendicular to the long axis of the bone to increase the length of the cell column

A

cell mitosis

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30
Q

Chondrocytes mature, become encased in __(1w) matrix, and assume a round morphology in the hypertrophic zone, where they cease dividing and hypertrophy.

A

extracellular

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31
Q

When chondrocytes hypertrophy and remodel and mineralize the extracellular matrix around them forms the ___(1w) zone

A

calcification zone

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32
Q

Bones are composed of varying ratios of peripheral ________(compact) bone and a __________ medulla containing bone marrow and ___________(cancellous) bone.

A

Bones are composed of varying ratios of peripheral cortical (compact) bone and a central medulla containing bone marrow and trabecular (cancellous) bone.

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32
Q

After hypertrophy, the chondrocytes die and the extracellular matrix around them is removed to create the ____________(1w) zone

A

ossification

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33
Q

epiphysis, metaphysis, and cuboidal bones have comparatively thinner/thicker (choose) cortices than the diaphysis.

A

epiphysis, metaphysis, and cuboidal bones have comparatively thinner cortices than the diaphysis.

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34
Q

Cortical and trabecular bone are composed of ___(1w)

A

osteons

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34
Q

Trabecular bone, composed of three-dimensional networks of rods and plates, is less metabolically active and responsive than cortical bone - true or false

A

FALSE is more
Trabecular bone, composed of three-dimensional networks of rods and plates, is more metabolically active and responsive than cortical bone

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34
Q

What is the periosteum

A

The periosteum is a thin layer of osteogenic and fibroblastic cells with a nerve and microvascular network that covers the outer surface of cortical bone.

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35
Q

What are the two layers of the periosteum, and what is their primary function?

A

The outer fibrous layer provides support, while the inner cambium layer contains progenitor cells essential for fracture healing and appositional bone growth.

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35
Q

How is the periosteum attached to the bone surface?

A

It is attached by Sharpey fibers, which are connective tissue strands composed mainly of type III collagen.

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36
Q

What is the role of the endosteal niche in bone?

A

The endosteal niche contains stem and progenitor cells, growth factors, and extracellular matrix molecules that regulate hematopoiesis.

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37
Q

What percentage of resting cardiac output is delivered to bones?

A
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37
Q

What does the endosteum cover, and what types of cells does it contain?

A

The endosteum covers the trabeculae, medullary cavity, and inner surfaces of bone canals, containing osteoblasts, osteoclasts, fibroblasts, macrophages, endothelial cells, and adipocytes.

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38
Q

Identify the three sources of afferent blood supply in mature long bones.

A

The nutrient artery, the metaphyseal-epiphyseal vessel complex, and periosteal vessels.

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39
Q

What mineral primarily composes the mineral component of bone?

A

The mineral component is mainly crystalline hydroxyapatite.

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40
Q

How does the blood flow direction differ between diaphyseal and endosteal circulation?

A

Diaphyseal flow is predominantly centrifugal (70% towards the cortex), while endosteal circulation supplies the medulla and inner cortical bone.

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41
Q

What is the composition of bone by volume?

A

Bone is composed of approximately 25% water, 35% organic components, and 40% mineral components.

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41
Q

What is fibrillogenesis?

A

Fibrillogenesis is the process where tropocollagen helices self-assemble to form microfibrils that organize into fibril

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42
Q

What is the primary function of proteoglycans in the bone matrix?

A

Proteoglycans provide flexibility and resilience to the organic matrix of bone.

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42
Q

Describe the basic structure of type I collagen in bone.

A

Type I collagen consists of a right-handed triple helix formed from three polypeptide chains, two of which are identical (α1) and one is unique (α2).

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43
Q

How do cytokines influence bone metabolism?

A
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44
Q

What is the pathway of differentiation for osteoblasts?

A

Osteoblasts arise from multipotent mesenchymal stem cells, progressing through osteoprogenitor cells and preosteoblasts before maturing into osteoblasts.

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44
Q

What regulates osteoclast function?

A

Osteoclast function is regulated by local cytokines and systemic hormones such as calcitonin, parathyroid hormone, and others.

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45
Q

What happens to osteoblasts toward the end of matrix production?

A
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46
Q

What are the roles of RANKL and M-CSF in osteoclast development?

A

RANKL triggers osteoclast formation, while M-CSF is essential for the differentiation, survival, and cytoskeletal changes of osteoclast precursors.

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46
Q

What is the osteocyte lacuno-canalicular system?

A

It is an extensive communication network formed by osteocyte filopodia that allows direct cellular communication and sensing of mechanical forces.

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47
Q
A

Figure 75-4. Representative load-deformation curve characteristic of a whole bone structure (mechanical testing of the structural properties of the whole bone).

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47
Q

How do osteoclasts contribute to bone resorption?

A

Osteoclasts attach to bone matrix via integrin receptors, form a sealing zone, and secrete enzymes and hydrogen ions to mobilize bone mineral and digest organic matrix.

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47
Q
A

Figure 75-5. Stress-strain curve typical of a bone sample (mechanical testing of the material properties of the bone sample).

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48
Q

What is the symbol of stress

A

Sigma (σ)

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49
Q

What is the definition of stress

A

the intensity of the force divided by the area that it acts upon

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49
Q

Units of stress

A

Pounds per square inch (psi) and pascals (Pa).

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50
Q

Stress forces are usually perpendicular or parallel to the surface in NORMAL

A

Perpendicular to the surface

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51
Q

Stress forces in shear are perpaendicular or parallel

A

parallel to the surface

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52
Q

What is the definition of strain

A

Change in dimension divided by the original dimension (x1−x0/x0)

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53
Q

In stress what is Poisson’s ratio (ν)

A

Ratio of lateral normal strain to longitudinal normal strain

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54
Q

What is the symbol of strain

A

Epsilon (ε)

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54
Q

Poisson’s ration (v) of strain

A

Ratio of lateral normal strain to longitudinal normal strain

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54
Q

What is the normal direction of strain

A

Perpendicular to the surface

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54
Q

what is the shear orientation of strain

A

Parallel to the surface

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55
Q

What is the primary difference between static and dynamic studies?

A

Static studies evaluate bodies at rest, while dynamic studies evaluate moving bodies.

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55
Q

What is the units of strain

A

Normal strain is dimensionless and sometimes expressed as a percentage ([x1−x0/x0] × 100)
S
hear strain is often measured in radians

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55
Q

What does deformation refer to in the context of bone mechanics?

A

The alteration of shape and size when forces act on an object.

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55
Q

What is the significance of the load-deformation curve in mechanical testing?

A

It graphically represents the relationship between load and deformation in bone.

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55
Q

Define the toe region of a load-deformation curve.

A

A low-force, high-deformation region reflecting tissue fluid motion and fiber stretching.

55
Q

What happens at the yield point on a load-deformation curve?

A

Permanent deformation occurs, meaning the structure won’t return to its original shape.

56
Q

What does the ultimate load signify in bone mechanics?

A

The load beyond which the structure loses all capacity to withstand increasing forces.

56
Q

Differentiate between normal stress and shear stress.

A

Normal stress occurs perpendicular to a surface, while shear stress occurs parallel to it.

57
Q

Explain Poisson’s ratio and its significance.

A

The ratio of lateral strain to longitudinal strain, indicating how a material deforms under stress.

58
Q

What is Young’s modulus?

A

The slope of the elastic segment of the stress-strain curve, indicating material stiffness.

59
Q

Describe the concept of resilience in materials.

A

The ability of a material to absorb energy without permanent deformation.

60
Q

What is the relationship between toughness and the area under a stress-strain curve?

A

A larger area indicates a tougher material capable of sustaining more deformation before failure.

61
Q

How does bone exhibit anisotropic properties?

A

Its mechanical properties depend on the direction of the applied forces.

62
Q

Why is bone strongest in compression but weakest in tension?

A

Due to the arrangement of protein fibers and mineral distribution.

63
Q

What does the term “ductile” refer to in material properties?

A

A material that undergoes extensive plastic deformation before failure.

64
Q

What factors contribute to the anisotropic properties of cortical bone?

A

Protein fiber arrangement, osteon composition, and mineral distribution.

65
Q

Define compliance in mechanical terms.

A

The measure of a material’s ability to deform under applied stress; the opposite of stiffness.

66
Q

What does the area under the stress-strain curve represent?

A

The toughness of the material.

67
Q

How is the slope of the stress-strain curve indicative of material properties?

A

It reveals stiffness; a steeper slope indicates a stiffer material.

68
Q

What is meant by the term “failure load”?

A

The load at which a structure can no longer withstand applied forces and fails.

69
Q

Explain the significance of the elastic region in a load-deformation curve.

A

It indicates the range where the material can return to its original shape after load removal.

70
Q

How do the mechanical properties of trabecular bone differ from those of cortical bone?

A

Trabecular bone is more resilient and absorbs more energy before failure.

71
Q

What types of forces result in tension and compression in bone?

A

Positive normal stress results in tension, while negative normal stress results in compression.

72
Q

What does the term “brittle” imply regarding a material’s failure behavior?

A

It indicates a material that fails suddenly with little or no plastic deformation.

73
Q

How does shear strain differ from normal strain?

A

Shear strain measures deformation parallel to a plane, while normal strain measures deformation perpendicular to the force.

74
Q

What does the term “catastrophic failure” mean in biomechanical contexts?

A

A sudden and complete failure of a material, often resulting in significant damage.

75
Q
A

Figure 75-6. Schematic representations of bone-loading conditions. (A) No load; (B) tension; (C) compression; (D) bending; (E) shear; (F) torsion; (G) combined compression and torsion.

76
Q
A

Figure 75-6. Schematic representations of bone-loading conditions. (A) No load; (B) tension; (C) compression; (D) bending; (E) shear; (F) torsion; (G) combined compression and torsion.

77
Q

What does anisotropic mean in the context of bone mechanics?

A

Bone’s mechanical properties vary with the direction of applied forces.

78
Q

What is the difference between isotropic and anisotropic materials?

A

Isotropic materials have uniform mechanical properties regardless of loading orientation, while anisotropic materials do not.

79
Q

How does the arrangement of protein fibers affect the properties of cortical bone?

A

It contributes to its anisotropic behavior, affecting strength and load-bearing capacity.

80
Q

What additional factor contributes to anisotropy in trabecular bone compared to cortical bone?

A

Bone porosity.

80
Q

In what conditions is bone strongest and weakest?

A

Bone is strongest in compression, weaker in shear, and weakest in tension.

81
Q

What influences the deformation and strain of bone?

A

Bone anatomy, composition, direction, rate, magnitude, frequency, and duration of the applied load.

81
Q

How does cortical bone differ from trabecular bone in terms of brittleness and energy storage?

A

ortical bone is more brittle and fails at lower strain but can withstand higher loads, while trabecular bone stores more energy prior to failure due to higher toughness.

82
Q

Why is replicating complex loading conditions in the lab complicated?

A

It involves multiple simultaneous forces from various directions, making data interpretation challenging.

83
Q

What are the types of loading strategies typically reduced to in experiments?

A

Single-axis loading in tension, compression, bending, shear, and torsion.

84
Q

Describe the failure mechanism of bone during tension testing.

A

Maximum stresses occur on a plane perpendicular to the tensile load, leading to transverse fractures due to osteonal pullout.

85
Q

What fracture configuration is typical when bone is loaded in compression?

A

Fractures are offset about 45 degrees from the direction of maximum shear forces. Oblique fracture

86
Q

Example of compression fracture in horse

A

dorsal metacarpal stress fracture

87
Q

Example in the horse of tensionfractures originate transverse

A

proximal ulna
proximal sesamoid bones
patella
calcaneus

88
Q

What is the relationship between microcracks and bone failure?

A

Microcracks can initiate and propagate along stress-concentrating osteons, leading to eventual failure.

89
Q

How does torsion testing affect the bone structure?

A

It causes rotational displacement of bone ends and generates shear stresses distributed throughout the bone.

90
Q

Example of a tosion fracture in the horse - pattern

A

Pattern is spiral fracture

91
Q

Bending resultus of a combination between

A

tension and compression

92
Q

What is a typical three point bending fracture in a horse?

A

occurs at the top of a cast when a horse steps in a hole and the limb hits the top edge

93
Q

Example of shear fractures in horse

A

Physeal fractures are examples of shear loads

94
Q

What are shear stresses, and how are they related to torsion?

A

Shear stresses occur due to the angular deformations resulting from applied torques and increase with distance from the neutral axis.

95
Q

Explain the concept of the neutral axis in bending.

A

It’s the plane within the bone that does not experience stress, with tension and compression occurring on opposite sides.

96
Q

How does three-point bending differ from four-point bending in testing?

A

Three-point bending involves three forces producing two moments, while four-point bending uses two force couples for a uniform moment distribution.

97
Q

What typically causes a fracture in a horse during three-point bending?

A

Fractures often occur at the tensile surface and propagate toward the compressed surface, usually resulting in a butterfly fragment.

98
Q

How does shear loading deform a bone?

A

It applies loads parallel to a bone’s surface, causing angular deformation and shear stress.

99
Q

What are physeal fractures, and how do they relate to loading?

A

Physeal fractures result from shear loads and indicate the susceptibility of bone to shear stresses.

100
Q

Why is studying multiaxial loading important for predicting fractures?

A

Bones rarely experience uniaxial loading; understanding multidimensional loading helps in fracture prediction and stabilization.

101
Q

How does bone anatomy influence its structural mechanical properties?

A

It affects cross-sectional area, bone distribution, and the proportion of cortical versus cancellous bone, all influencing stiffness and strength.

102
Q

What is the area moment of inertia, and why is it important?

A

It reflects the bone’s distribution around the neutral axis and its resistance to deformation.

103
Q

How does the rate of load application affect bone response?

A

Faster loading rates increase stiffness and energy storage, leading to higher loads at failure compared to slower rates.

104
Q

What distinguishes high-energy fractures from low-energy fractures?

A

High-energy fractures often result in significant comminution and soft tissue damage, while low-energy fractures typically have less damage.

105
Q

What causes fatigue failure in bone?

A

It results from repeated loads leading to microcrack initiation and propagation

106
Q

What is the endurance limit of a bone?

A

The stress level under which no fractures develop regardless of the number of loading cycles.

107
Q

Why is cortical bone particularly vulnerable to cyclic stresses?

A

Repeated application of compressive stress can lead to microcrack accumulation.

108
Q

How does stress level influence microdamage accumulation in bone?

A

At high stress levels, damage initially increases nonlinearly and then stabilizes, while at lower stress levels, damage accumulates rapidly.

109
Q

What role do microcracks play in bone remodeling?

A

Microcrack formation can trigger the remodeling process, with new bone deposition helping to arrest their propagation.

110
Q

What is the relationship between stress levels and remodeling rates in bone?

A

A balance is needed for effective remodeling to mitigate fatigue-induced microcracks.

111
Q

How do shear stresses relate to bone loading configurations?

A

Shear stresses arise from angular deformations caused by loads applied in configurations like bending and torsion.

112
Q

What does the term “comminution” refer to in fracture mechanics?

A

The fragmentation of bone into multiple pieces during a fracture.

113
Q

How do loading conditions during normal activities affect bone?

A

Bone experiences complex loading from multiple directions, influencing its structural integrity and response.

113
Q

How does bone’s microstructure contribute to its viscoelastic properties?

A

Bone exhibits greater stiffness and energy absorption at faster loading rates due to its microstructural characteristics.

114
Q

Why is three-dimensional analysis preferred for studying bone loading?

A

It provides a more realistic assessment of the complex loading behavior of bone compared to simplified models.

115
Q

What is the impact of joint angle and gait on bone loading?

A

These factors influence the distribution and magnitude of forces acting on the bone.

116
Q

What is the significance of the bending moment in bone mechanics?

A

It quantifies the internal loads generated by applied forces, influencing the bone’s structural response.

116
Q

In what way does the length of a bone affect its internal loads?

A

Longer bones experience higher internal loads due to greater distances between force-application points.

117
Q

How does energy release during fracture relate to strain energy?

A

Strain energy is stored during loading and released upon fracture, contributing to damage.

118
Q

What is the potential impact of surrounding structures on bone loading?

A

They can alter the forces acting on the bone, affecting its mechanical response and susceptibility to injury.

119
Q

What distinguishes indirect fracture healing from direct healing?

A

Indirect healing involves callus formation and occurs when fracture stability is insufficient for direct healing

119
Q

What are the two main types of fracture healing?

A

Direct (primary) and indirect (secondary) healing.

120
Q

How does direct fracture healing occur?

A

It occurs with rigid fixation that minimizes interfragmentary motion and allows for direct remodeling of bone.

121
Q

What is the role of hematoma in fracture healing?

A

It forms during the acute inflammatory response and is populated by cells that facilitate healing.

122
Q

Which proinflammatory molecules peak within 24 hours of a fracture?

A

Tumor necrosis factor-α (TNF-α) and interleukins (IL)-1 and IL-6.

123
Q

What is the function of mesenchymal stem cells (MSCs) in bone healing?

A

They are recruited to the injury site to aid in the healing process.

124
Q

How long does the acute inflammatory phase last in bone healing?

A

It is typically complete by 7 days post-injury.

125
Q

What types of growth factors are involved in bone formation during healing?

A

Members of the transforming growth factor-β (TGF-β) superfamily, including bone morphogenetic proteins (BMPs)

126
Q

What occurs in the matrix template at the end of the acute inflammatory phase?

A

A highly cellular, fibrin-rich callus forms between the bone ends.

127
Q

What is the timeline for soft callus formation after a fracture?

A

Soft callus forms around 7 to 9 days post-trauma.

128
Q

What structural change marks the transition to hard callus?

A

RepReplacement of collagen types II and III with collagen type I and the clustering of calcium hydroxyapatite crystals.

128
Q

How do chondroblasts contribute to fracture healing?

A

They proliferate and secrete cartilage-specific matrix, which matures into cartilage.

129
Q

What type of ossification is associated with indirect bone healing?

A

Both endochondral and intramembranous ossification.

130
Q

Which cells are responsible for resorbing hard callus during the remodeling phase?

A

Osteoclasts.

130
Q

What is the significance of Wolff’s law in bone remodeling?

A

It states that bone adapts to the mechanical loads placed upon it, affecting the activity of osteoblasts and osteoclasts.

131
Q

Healing that occurs when gaps are smaller than 0.01 mm with minimal interfragmentary strain.

A

Healing that occurs when gaps are smaller than 0.01 mm with minimal interfragmentary strain.

131
Q

How does gap healing differ from contact healing?

A

Gap healing occurs in larger gaps (0.8 mm to 1 mm) without concurrent bone union and Haversian remodeling.

132
Q

What is required for effective clinical assessment of fracture healing?

A

Consideration of factors like patient signalment, initial fracture configuration, and imaging results.

133
Q

What changes are visible on radiography within the first week post-fracture?

A

Sharp fracture margins are typically visible.

134
Q

What does the presence of a smooth fracture line indicate about healing?

A

It suggests that healing is progressing well, with a narrowing fracture gap.

134
Q

What is osteomyelitis?

A

Bone inflammation due to infection, often resulting from pathogen seeding.

134
Q

What are common complications of equine fracture healing?

A

Infection, delay or failure of union, laminitis, and fixation failure.

135
Q

What are typical organisms cultured from infected equine bone?

A

Staphylococcus, Streptococcus spp., and Enterobacteriaceae.

135
Q

What factors contribute to delay or failure of fracture union?

A

Infection, inadequate reduction, immobilization, and soft tissue disruption.

136
Q

How can perioperative antibiotic administration affect fracture healing?

A

It reduces the incidence of nosocomial infections in orthopedic cases.

137
Q

What does nonunion mean in the context of fractures?

A

It occurs when fracture repair ceases before the bony structure is restored.

138
Q

What is a hypertrophic nonunion?

A

A type of nonunion characterized by abundant blood supply and exuberant callus formation.

139
Q

What is stress-induced laminitis and how is it related to fractures?

A

It occurs from increased weight-bearing on the contralateral limb due to lameness after fracture fixation.

140
Q

What factors can lead to surgical implant complications?

A

Inadequate stabilization and mechanical demands exceeding fixation strength.

141
Q

What is the primary goal of fracture stabilization?

A

To return to weight bearing on the affected limb as quickly as possible.

142
Q

How do high loads during recovery affect fracture healing?

A

They can lead to fixation failure or delayed healing.

143
Q

What is the importance of a good blood supply in bone healing?

A

It is essential for successful remodeling and preventing nonunion.It is crucial for supplying nutrients and oxygen to the healing tissue.

144
Q

What are the radiographic signs of delayed union?

A

Persistent fracture lines and minimal callus formation.

145
Q

What is the effect of motion at the fracture site on callus formation?

A

Greater motion results in a larger callus.

146
Q

Why is it important to combine imaging modalities in fracture assessment?

A

To provide a comprehensive evaluation of fracture diagnosis and healing progress.

147
Q
A

Figure 75-11. Bone sequestrum (arrow) on an equine radius that resulted from a devascularized bone fragment when the bone was fractured by a kick from another horse.

148
Q
A

Figure 75-12. Radiographic images of a fourth metatarsal osteotomy from immediately postoperative to 12 weeks after treatment of the gap with recombinant human bone morphogenetic protein-2 combined with calcium phosphate cement demonstrating progression toward union by 10 weeks.

149
Q

What is distraction osteogenesis?

A

A surgical technique that promotes bone growth by applying gradual traction on each side of an osteotomy.

150
Q

Why is distraction osteogenesis limited in equine long bones?

A

The strength of adjustable external fixators is usually inadequate for anything other than small foals.

151
Q

What is the typical rate of linear bone generation during distraction osteogenesis?

A

Linear bone generation can reach 200 to 400 μm/day.

152
Q

What factors are essential for successful distraction osteogenesis?

A

Fixation stability, blood supply, minimal soft tissue disruption, and physiological bone use.

152
Q

How many periods is distraction osteogenesis divided into?

A

Three periods: latency, activation, and consolidation.

153
Q

What occurs during the latency period of distraction osteogenesis?

A

The time between bone transection and the start of distraction.

154
Q

What happens during the activation period?

A

Bony ingrowth occurs as distraction begins.

155
Q

What characterizes the consolidation period?

A

Mineralization and remodeling of bone and osteoid to create mature bone structure.

156
Q

What is transchondroid bone formation?

A

Chondroid bone formation by chondrocyte-like cells without capillary invasion.

157
Q

What concerns exist with allogeneic bone grafts?

A

Potential for pathogen transmission and variability in graft quality.

157
Q

How do autogenous bone grafts facilitate healing?

A

They provide cells for osteogenesis, induce bone formation, and offer a scaffold for bone growth.

157
Q

What are the key properties of bone grafts?

A

They provide cells for osteogenesis, induce bone formation, and offer a scaffold for bone growth.

157
Q

What types of ossification occur during distraction osteogenesis?

A

Osteogenesis, osteoinduction, and osteoconduction

158
Q

What principle underlies many energy-based treatments for bone healing?

A

Wolff’s law, which states that living bone adapts its structure to mechanical stress.

159
Q

How does extracorporeal shock wave therapy work?

A

It uses high-pressure acoustic waves to stimulate healing through pressure and shear forces.

160
Q

What risks are associated with extracorporeal shock wave therapy?

A

Anecdotal reports of catastrophic fractures suggest it should be used cautiously.

161
Q

What is needed for effective MSC application in fracture healing?

A

Culture-expanded or purified MSC populations to ensure sufficient and consistent osteogenic potential.

162
Q

What challenges exist in using MSCs for equine fracture repair?

A

Variability in MSC numbers and plasticity among individuals and harvest sites.

162
Q

Why are adult mesenchymal stem cells (MSCs) significant in bone healing?

A

They exhibit osteogenesis in vitro and may enhance fracture-repair strategies.

163
Q

What is the role of BMPs in fracture healing?

A

They accelerate bone repair when administered via carriers or vectors.

163
Q

Which bone fillers showed better outcomes in a study involving equine fractures?

A

Biodegradable magnesium phosphate demonstrated superior results compared to calcium phosphate.

164
Q

What physiological effect does traction have on callus tissue?

A

It stimulates metabolic activity and proliferation in the distraction gap.

165
Q

How is callotasis related to distraction osteogenesis?

A

Callotasis is a specific form of distraction osteogenesis often used for deformities.

166
Q

What is the expected outcome of distraction osteogenesis?

A

Progressive growth of bone and soft tissues, leading to improved structural integrity.

167
Q

What role does blood supply play in distraction osteogenesis?

A

Adequate blood supply is critical for healing and bone remodeling.

168
Q

How do mechanical forces contribute to bone adaptation according to Wolff’s law?

A

They generate electric fields through deformation, promoting structural changes in bone.

169
Q

What is the main challenge with using allogeneic grafts in fracture repair?

A

Risk of immune rejection and transmission of pathogens.