Chapter 17 - Drains, Bandages, and External Coaptation Flashcards

1
Q

Who first introduced drains in the form of hollow tubes to treat empyemas?

A) Celsus
B) Hippocrates
C) Galen
D) Heisler
A

B) Hippocrates

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2
Q

In what year did Heisler introduce capillary drainage via a gauze wick?

A) 1719
B) 1859
C) 1882
D) 1952
A

A) 1719

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3
Q

What is the primary purpose of drains?

A) To facilitate fluid retention
B) To channel unwanted fluids and/or air
C) To promote infection
D) To support tissue growth
A

B) To channel unwanted fluids and/or air

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4
Q

Which drain type is known for being soft, pliable, and radiopaque?

A) Gauze drain
B) Sheet drain
C) Penrose drain
D) Tube drain
A

C) Penrose drain

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5
Q

Which of the following is NOT a reason to place a drain?

A) To eliminate dead space
B) To enhance fluid retention
C) To evacuate fluid collections
D) To prevent fluid formation
A

B) To enhance fluid retention

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6
Q

What material is commonly used for making passive drains?

A) Steel
B) Polyethylene
C) Rubber
D) Both B and C
A

D) Both B and C

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7
Q

What characteristic of the ideal drain material helps in easy identification during procedures?

A) Flexibility
B) Nonreactivity
C) Radiopacity
D) Sterility
A

C) Radiopacity

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8
Q

What is the main function of active drains?

A) To utilize gravity for drainage
B) To rely on suction for fluid removal
C) To prevent fluid accumulation
D) To facilitate wound healing
A

B) To rely on suction for fluid removal

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9
Q

What must be maintained under aseptic conditions during drain placement?

A) Only the drain
B) The implantation site
C) The entire surgical room
D) Only the surgical tools
A

B) The implantation site

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10
Q

Which drain type uses gravity and capillary action primarily for fluid removal?

A) Active drain
B) Penrose drain
C) Tube drain
D) Sheet drain
A

B) Penrose drain

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11
Q

What can happen if a passive drain is placed too close to delicate tissues?

A) Improved drainage
B) Mechanical irritation
C) Increased fluid retention
D) Enhanced healing
A

B) Mechanical irritation

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12
Q

What is the disadvantage of using gauze drains?

A) They are too expensive
B) They may cause ascending infection
C) They are ineffective in drainage
D) They require complex removal
A

B) They may cause ascending infection

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13
Q

How long should red rubber sheet drains typically be left in place?

A) 24 hours
B) 48 to 72 hours
C) 1 week
D) 10 days
A

B) 48 to 72 hours

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14
Q

What type of drain is known to collapse under suction?

A) Tube drain
B) Penrose drain
C) Gauze drain
D) Sheet drain
A

B) Penrose drain

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15
Q

In what condition should tube drains not be used?

A) In contaminated areas
B) In large wounds
C) In the abdominal cavity
D) In superficial cuts
A

C) In the abdominal cavity

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16
Q

What is a significant advantage of using Penrose drains?

A) They are fenestrated for better drainage
B) They are effective for viscous fluids
C) They are costly but durable
D) They are not prone to blockage
A

B) They are effective for viscous fluids

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17
Q

What is the primary reason for not using gauze drains in thoracic and abdominal cavities?

A) Cost issues
B) Risk of infection
C) Risk of tissue adhesion
D) They are too difficult to remove
A

C) Risk of tissue adhesion

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18
Q

What is the main risk associated with passive drains?

A) Excessive cost
B) Mechanical irritation
C) Inability to remove fluids
D) Non-sterility
A

B) Mechanical irritation

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19
Q

Which of the following types of drains can be made from silastic?

A) Penrose drains
B) Tube drains
C) Gauze drains
D) Sheet drains
A

B) Tube drains

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20
Q

What is a disadvantage of tube drains in passive systems?

A) They are too expensive
B) They can easily be obstructed
C) They are difficult to insert
D) They are not pliable
A

B) They can easily be obstructed

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21
Q

What mechanism does the cigarette drain utilize?

A) Active suction
B) Capillary action
C) Gravity only
D) External pressure
A

B) Capillary action

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22
Q

Which drain type is specifically mentioned as useful in septic joints?

A) Gauze drain
B) Penrose drain
C) Tube drain
D) Sheet drain
A

B) Penrose drain

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23
Q

What aspect of gauze drains can facilitate effective débridement?

A) Cost-effectiveness
B) Local deposition of antibiotics
C) Tissue adherence to the drain
D) Simplicity of removal
A

C) Tissue adherence to the drain

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24
Q

Which drain type requires frequent bandage changes to maintain sterility?

A) Penrose drain
B) Gauze drain
C) Tube drain
D) Sheet drain
A

B) Gauze drain

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25
Q

What material should NOT be used for drains due to potential foreign body reactions?

A) Silicone
B) PVC
C) Red rubber
D) Polyethylene
A

C) Red rubber

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26
Q

How does the design of a sheet drain facilitate fluid removal?

A) It provides a rigid structure
B) It allows for easy trimming
C) Its shape resists compression
D) It uses suction
A

C) Its shape resists compression

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27
Q

What role does the trocar play in active drain placement?

A) It increases suction strength
B) It creates the egress site
C) It stabilizes the drain
D) It helps in suturing
A

B) It creates the egress site

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28
Q

Which of the following is true about passive drains?

A) They require active suction to function
B) They can be fenestrated for better drainage
C) They primarily rely on gravity and capillary action
D) They are not effective for viscous fluids
A

C) They primarily rely on gravity and capillary action

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29
Q

What is a major consideration for drain removal timing?

A) The patient's comfort
B) The healing of the incisional sutures
C) The length of the drain
D) The type of drain used
A

B) The healing of the incisional sutures

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30
Q

What should be avoided to minimize contamination during passive drain placement?

A) Small egress openings
B) Direct suturing of the drain
C) Aseptic preparation
D) Large egress openings
A

A) Small egress openings

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31
Q

Which type of drain is best suited for small, sensitive areas?

A) Tube drains
B) Gauze drains
C) Sheet drains
D) Penrose drains
A

A) Tube drains

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32
Q

What is the disadvantage of using multi-fenestrated drains?

A) They are more costly
B) They have lower drainage capacity
C) They can obstruct easily
D) They can support bacterial growth
A

D) They can support bacterial growth

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33
Q

What was developed by Raffle in 1952?

A) Capillary drainage
B) Continuous suction
C) Passive drainage
D) Antibiotic gauze drains
A

B) Continuous suction

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34
Q

Which drain type is particularly effective in abscess management?

A) Tube drain
B) Gauze drain
C) Sheet drain
D) Penrose drain
A

B) Gauze drain

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35
Q

What is essential for drain selection?

A) The color of the drain
B) The surgeon’s preference
C) The expected activity level of the patient
D) Both B and C
A

D) Both B and C

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36
Q

Which of the following should be avoided when placing drains?

A) Local anesthetic infiltration
B) Aseptic preparation
C) Placing drains near blood vessels
D) Ensuring proper drain length
A

C) Placing drains near blood vessels

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37
Q

What is one key function of a trocar in active drains?

A) To increase flexibility
B) To create an incision site for drainage
C) To prevent blockages
D) To maintain sterility
A

B) To create an incision site for drainage

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38
Q

What should be the characteristic of the drain end to facilitate fluid evacuation?

A) It should be soft and pliable
B) It should be long enough to prevent retraction
C) It should be rigid and inflexible
D) It should be thin and fragile
A

B) It should be long enough to prevent retraction

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39
Q

What is the primary advantage of a closed active drain system over an open system?

A) Greater fluid capacity
B) Increased risk of infection
C) Easy monitoring of evacuated fluid quantity
D) More complex setup
A

C) Easy monitoring of evacuated fluid quantity

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40
Q

For a closed active drain to function effectively, the fenestrations must be placed into what type of cavity?

A) Open cavity
B) Airtight cavity
C) Semi-permeable cavity
D) Ventilated cavity
A

B) Airtight cavity

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41
Q

Which of the following drains is known for its multifenestrated design?

A) Penrose drain
B) Blake drain
C) Jackson-Pratt drain
D) Heimlich valve
A

C) Jackson-Pratt drain

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42
Q
A

Figure 17-1. Proper placement of a Penrose drain for passive postoperative wound drainage. A distal egress portal is made and the most proximal aspect of the drain is secured within the wound with a simple interrupted suture tied on the outside of the skin. The wound is subsequently closed.

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43
Q
A

Figure 17-2. Suture patterns used to secure a drain to the body wall. (A) The “Chinese finger trap” suture pattern. (B) The “double-clove hitch” suture pattern.

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44
Q
A

Figure 17-3. Frequently used passive drains. (a) Gauze drain soaked with Triclosan (antibacterial agent). (b) Latex Penrose drains. (c) Red rubber sheet drain. The sheet is folded over. (d) Easy-flow silicone drain.

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45
Q
A

Figure 17-4. A Flexi-drain folded up in a plastic cup. Twelve single tubes are joined to a single drain system.

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46
Q
A

Figure 17-5. A 4-mm diameter, fenestrated Redon drain (polyvinyl chloride) with a non-fenestrated extension attached to a trocar used to place the drain through the skin.

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47
Q
A

Figure 17-6. (A) A flat 7-mm Blake drain (silicone) with a trocar (covered by a rubber protection) to place the drain through the skin. (B) Cross-sectional image of a flat (top) and round (bottom) Blake drain showing the slits and protected spaces allowing fluids to be channeled away from the wound.

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48
Q
A

Figure 17-7. Evacuators used in active drainage systems. (a) Syringe-adapted closed suction device made from a 60-mL syringe, a three-way stopcock, an extension set attached to the syringe and fixed to a drain. The syringe is held open by a 14-gauge needle with a ground flat tip, placed across the plunger shaft and locking the plunger in place. (b) Grenade-shaped compressible bulb attached to a flat, silicone fenestrated drain. (c) Snyder Hemovac 400-mL evacuator.

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49
Q
A

Figure 17-8. (A) Materials used for negative-pressure wound therapy. (a) Vacuum unit. (b) Vacuum pad and tubing, which are attached to the vacuum unit. (c) Adhesive occlusive dressing to cover the foam and all skin edges around the wound. (d) Foam for placement into the wound. (e) Double-sided adhesive strips for placement on the skin edges around the wound. (B) A chronic, infected wound on the palmar aspect of the metacarpophalangeal region involving the digital flexor tendon sheath treated with negative-pressure wound therapy (NPWT). The hair surrounding the wound has been shaved, degreased using alcohol, and double-sided adhesive strips have been placed around the wound. A polyurethane foam has been cut to fit into the wound. (C) The foam is fixed to the skin surrounding the wound with an adhesive occlusive drape. A small hole is cut into the adhesive drape over the foam. (D) The vacuum pad with the suction tubing is applied over the hole to connect the foam to the vacuum unit by the tubing. (E) A half-limb bandage has been placed to secure the tubing, protect the device and help to maintain a tight seal. The vacuum unit has been attached to the horse using a lunging girth.

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50
Q
A

Figure 17-9. Top: A spontaneous pneumothorax aspiration system (Heimlich valve) used to prevent access of ascending air and microorganisms into the cavity to be drained. Bottom: A polyvinyl chloride thorax drain (Trocar Catheter).

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51
Q
A

Figure 17-10. A Lepage drain designed for drainage of the abdominal cavity with its rigid trocar to help during insertion.

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52
Q

What type of suction reservoir utilizes an internal spring?

A) Grenade-shaped suction bulb
B) Rigid evacuator
C) Compressible suction bulb
D) Passive drain
A

B) Rigid evacuator

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53
Q

Which suction method generates greater initial suction according to the text?

A) Compressible drains
B) Rigid drains
C) Passive drains
D) Open drains
A

B) Rigid drains

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54
Q

How quickly can compressible suction bulbs lose suction capacity when filled?

A) 10% to 20%
B) 20% to 30%
C) 30% to 40%
D) 40% to 50%
A

B) 20% to 30%

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55
Q

In equine practice, where are closed active drains often used?

A) Superficial cuts
B) Deep wounds
C) Healthy skin areas
D) In non-infected joints
A

B) Deep wounds

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56
Q

What is a potential disadvantage of using excessive suction in wound drainage?

A) Reduced fluid production
B) Increased fluid production
C) Faster healing
D) Lower risk of infection
A

B) Increased fluid production

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57
Q

What mechanism does Negative-pressure wound therapy (NPWT) utilize?

A) Continuous irrigation
B) Subatmospheric pressures
C) Thermal application
D) High-frequency vibrations
A

B) Subatmospheric pressures

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58
Q

What is the optimal duration for keeping NPWT dressings in place?

A) 12 to 24 hours
B) 24 to 48 hours
C) 48 to 72 hours
D) Over 72 hours
A

C) 48 to 72 hours

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59
Q

What is a primary complication associated with NPWT in human patients?

A) Increased fluid production
B) Pain
C) Improved healing
D) Enhanced granulation
A

B) Pain

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60
Q

What is the purpose of the Heimlich valve in open drainage systems?

A) Facilitate fluid drainage
B) Prevent inflow of air
C) Increase suction capacity
D) Remove tissue debris
A

B) Prevent inflow of air

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61
Q

Which drain is not functional for abdominal drainage?

A) PVC drain
B) Silastic drain
C) Penrose drain
D) Jackson-Pratt drain
A

C) Penrose drain

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62
Q

What common problem can arise from using a passive drain with a too-small egress portal?

A) Increased fluid flow
B) Obstruction of the drain
C) Enhanced infection risk
D) Drain leakage
A

B) Obstruction of the drain

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63
Q

In the context of equine surgery, what is a critical risk of leaving a portion of a drain in the wound?

A) Increased healing time
B) Persistence of drainage
C) Reduced risk of infection
D) Decreased tissue irritation
A

B) Persistence of drainage

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64
Q

What should be done if the quality of fluid retrieved from a drain changes significantly?

A) Ignore the change
B) Continue monitoring
C) Obtain wound fluid cultures or cytology
D) Remove the drain immediately
A

C) Obtain wound fluid cultures or cytology

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65
Q

Which of the following can decrease the risk of infection when using drains?

A) Minimizing the drain size
B) Increasing the number of drains
C) Extending the time a drain is in place
D) Using a rigid drain
A

A) Minimizing the drain size

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66
Q

What type of foam is most commonly used in NPWT for equine patients?

A) Silver-impregnated foam
B) Polyvinyl alcohol foam
C) Polyurethane foam (black foam)
D) Antimicrobial-impregnated gauze
A

C) Polyurethane foam (black foam)

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67
Q

When preparing a wound for NPWT, how far should hair be shaved around the wound edges?

A) 5 cm
B) 8 to 10 cm
C) 12 cm
D) 15 cm
A

B) 8 to 10 cm

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68
Q

What type of drain is most suitable for treating peritonitis in equine patients?

A) Passive drain
B) Sump drain
C) Multifenestrated drain
D) Heimlich valve
A

C) Multifenestrated drain

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69
Q

What is an economic alternative to an active suction apparatus mentioned in the text?

A) Gravity-based drainage
B) Smooth tubing connected to a syringe
C) Passive suction drains
D) Compressible bulbs
A

B) Smooth tubing connected to a syringe

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70
Q

How does the application of a three-way stopcock benefit the suction apparatus?

A) Increases suction
B) Allows interruption of suction
C) Enhances drainage efficiency
D) Reduces infection risk
A

B) Allows interruption of suction

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71
Q

What can be a consequence of prolonged drainage from a wound?

A) Decreased bacterial load
B) Increased risk of tissue irritation
C) Faster wound healing
D) Higher suction capacity
A

B) Increased risk of tissue irritation

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72
Q

When utilizing NPWT, what negative pressure is typically applied?

A) −75 mm Hg
B) −100 mm Hg
C) −125 mm Hg
D) −150 mm Hg
A

C) −125 mm Hg

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73
Q

What procedure should be followed if a passive drain becomes obstructed?

A) Backflush the drain
B) Remove the drain immediately
C) Aseptically prepare and gently widen the egress
D) Replace the drain with a larger one
A

C) Aseptically prepare and gently widen the egress

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74
Q

Which statement is true regarding the drainage of thoracic cavities?

A) Passive drains are preferred.
B) Rigid tube drains are necessary.
C) Open suction systems are the most effective.
D) Suction is not required.
A

B) Rigid tube drains are necessary.

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75
Q

What is the effect of backflushing a drain?

A) Increases drainage efficiency
B) Reduces infection risk
C) Risks transporting microorganisms into the wound
D) Enhances suction capacity
A

C) Risks transporting microorganisms into the woun

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76
Q

In treating wounds with NPWT, what are the proposed mechanisms of action?

A) Enhanced local cooling
B) Increased perfusion and reduced bacterial levels
C) Decreased blood flow
D) Increased tissue edema
A

B) Increased perfusion and reduced bacterial levels

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77
Q

How long should drains ideally remain in place after surgical intervention?

A) Less than 24 hours
B) 24 to 48 hours
C) 48 to 72 hours
D) Over 72 hours
A

C) 48 to 72 hours

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78
Q

What type of wound healing is NPWT NOT proven effective for?

A) Distal limb wounds
B) Clean surgical incisions
C) Traumatic neck wounds
D) Wounds in septic conditions
A

A) Distal limb wounds

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79
Q

What is the primary mechanism of action for gauze drains?

A) Suction
B) Gravity and capillary action
C) Negative pressure
D) Ventilation
A

B) Gravity and capillary action

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80
Q

Which material is used in fine mesh gauze drains?

A) PVC
B) Silastic
C) Fine mesh gauze
D) Polyvinyl alcohol
A

C) Fine mesh gauze

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81
Q

What is a significant advantage of using gauze drains?

A) High cost-effectiveness
B) Ability to create negative pressure
C) Minimal tissue irritation
D) Rapid drainage under high suction
A

A) High cost-effectiveness

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82
Q

What is a major disadvantage associated with gauze drains?

A) Risk of tissue erosion
B) Fraying of the gauze material
C) Ineffective drainage
D) High cost
A

B) Fraying of the gauze material

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83
Q

In gauze drains, “step-by-step removal” refers to:

A) Removing all gauze at once
B) Gradually withdrawing portions of the drain
C) Immediate removal after placement
D) No specific removal techniquee
A

B) Gradually withdrawing portions of the drain

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84
Q

What is the primary material used in a Latex Penrose drain?

A) Silicone
B) PVC
C) Pliable latex
D) Polyethylene
A

C) Pliable latex

85
Q

What is a notable disadvantage of the Latex Penrose drain?

A) High cost
B) Kinking easily
C) Non-reactive properties
D) Effective suction capability
A

B) Kinking easily

86
Q

For which patient population is the silicone Penrose drain particularly suitable?

A) Latex-sensitive patients
B) Patients requiring high suction
C) Patients with large body cavities
D) Patients with vascular issues
A

A) Latex-sensitive patients

87
Q

What action does the silicone Penrose drain primarily utilize?

A) Suction
B) Gravity
C) Capillary action
D) Negative pressure
A

C) Capillary action

88
Q

What is a primary advantage of the red rubber tube drains?

A) No foreign body reaction
B) High flexibility
C) Rarely compressed or occluded
D) Economical
A

C) Rarely compressed or occluded

89
Q

What is a significant disadvantage of using rubber tube drains?

A) Increased risk of infection
B) Limited drainage capacity
C) High cost
D) Difficult to remove
A

A) Increased risk of infection

90
Q

What is the action mechanism for a sheet drain?

A) Suction
B) Gravity and capillary action
C) Negative pressure
D) Extravascular pressure
A

B) Gravity and capillary action

91
Q

Which of the following is an advantage of the sheet drain?

A) High flexibility
B) Rarely compressed or occluded
C) Effective in body cavities
D) Minimal foreign body reaction
A

B) Rarely compressed or occluded

92
Q

What disadvantage is commonly associated with the sheet drain?

A) Limited size options
B) Increased foreign body reaction
C) High cost
D) Ineffective drainage
A

B) Increased foreign body reaction

93
Q

What is the unique feature of a Flexi-drain?

A) Made of rigid materials
B) Cut to various sizes
C) Can only be used for suction
D) Utilizes only negative pressure
A

B) Cut to various sizes

94
Q

Which of the following drains is known for good drainage along the tubes where they join?

A) Gauze drains
B) Latex Penrose drains
C) Flexi-drain
D) Sheet drain
A

C) Flexi-drain

95
Q

What is a disadvantage of the Flexi-drain?

A) Can cause excessive irritation
B) Mainly extraluminal drainage
C) Difficult to clean
D) Requires special handling
A

B) Mainly extraluminal drainage

96
Q

What is a significant characteristic of passive drainage systems?

A) They require continuous monitoring
B) They depend on gravity and capillary action
C) They can provide suction
D) They are suitable for all body cavities
A

B) They depend on gravity and capillary action

97
Q

In which situation are passive drains typically not applicable?

A) Externally draining wounds
B) Intra-abdominal procedures
C) Thoracic drainage
D) Soft tissue drainage
A

B) Intra-abdominal procedures

98
Q

What is a common factor contributing to the risk of ascending infection in passive drains?

A) High pressure
B) Lack of suction
C) Material composition
D) Size variability
A

B) Lack of suction

99
Q

What is the primary material used in a Redon drain?

A) Silicone
B) PVC
C) Polyethylene
D) Latex
A

B) PVC

100
Q

What type of drainage does the Redon drain provide?

A) Extraluminal drainage
B) Intraluminal drainage
C) Interstitial drainage
D) External drainage
A

B) Intraluminal drainage

101
Q

Which of the following is a significant advantage of the Redon drain?

A) Low cost
B) Minimal tissue irritation
C) Excellent for evacuation of fluids from body cavities
D) Lightweight design
A

C) Excellent for evacuation of fluids from body cavities

102
Q

What is a notable disadvantage of the Redon drain?

A) It can collapse
B) Fenestrations may occlude
C) Requires constant suction
D) High risk of infection
A

B) Fenestrations may occlude

103
Q

What is the primary function of the Jackson-Pratt drain?

A) Suction drainage only
B) Extraluminal drainage
C) Intraluminal drainage
D) Both A and B
A

C) Intraluminal drainage

104
Q

What feature of the Jackson-Pratt drain minimizes tissue irritation?

A) Material composition
B) Design of the multifenestrated drain
C) Size options
D) Shape of the drain
A

B) Design of the multifenestrated drain

105
Q

What is a significant drawback of the Jackson-Pratt drain?

A) High cost
B) Difficulty in insertion
C) Heavy weight
D) Lack of suction
A

A) High cost

106
Q

Under what condition is suction function possible with the Jackson-Pratt drain?

A) When placed in an airtight space
B) Only during external drainage
C) In large body cavities
D) With an external suction source
A

A) When placed in an airtight space

107
Q

Which drain is designed with longitudinal slits for drainage?

A) Redon drain
B) Jackson-Pratt drain
C) Blake drain
D) Trocar catheter
A

C) Blake drain

108
Q

What is a notable feature of the Blake drain?

A) It collapses easily
B) Multifaceted slits reduce the risk of occlusion
C) It is only used for external drainage
D) It is made of rigid material
A

B) Multifaceted slits reduce the risk of occlusion

109
Q

What is a disadvantage associated with the Blake drain?

A) Minimal tissue irritation
B) It is voluminous and expensive
C) It cannot be used in body cavities
D) It is prone to dislodgement
A

B) It is voluminous and expensive

110
Q

What is the action mechanism for the trocar catheter?

A) Capillary action
B) Gravity
C) Intraluminal drainage
D) Extraluminal drainage
A

C) Intraluminal drainage

111
Q

Which of the following is a primary advantage of the trocar catheter?

A) Excellent for external drainage
B) Minimal tissue irritation
C) Easy insertion
D) It can collapse
A

B) Minimal tissue irritation

112
Q

What is a disadvantage of the trocar catheter?

A) High cost
B) Relatively easy dislodgement
C) Requires specialized training
D) Poor drainage efficiency
A

B) Relatively easy dislodgement

113
Q

Which active drain is known for having a radiodense marker?

A) Redon drain
B) Jackson-Pratt drain
C) Blake drain
D) Trocar catheter
A

C) Blake drain

114
Q

What is the primary application of the Redon drain?

A) Draining superficial wounds
B) Evacuating fluids from body cavities
C) Reducing swelling in limbs
D) Providing suction for external wounds
A

B) Evacuating fluids from body cavities

115
Q

What type of drainage does the Blake drain primarily use?

A) Suction only
B) Gravity
C) Intraluminal drainage
D) External drainage
A
116
Q

What is a characteristic of the Jackson-Pratt drain that contributes to its effectiveness?

A) Its rigid structure
B) Multifenestrated design
C) Longitudinal slits
D) Large diameter
A

B) Multifenestrated design

117
Q

Which of the following drains requires a careful technique to avoid dislodgement?

A) Redon drain
B) Jackson-Pratt drain
C) Blake drain
D) Trocar catheter
A

D) Trocar catheter

118
Q

In terms of material, what distinguishes the Redon drain from others?

A) It is made of rubber
B) It has a nonfenestrated extension
C) It is made of glass
D) It is metallic
A

B) It has a nonfenestrated extension

119
Q

Which active drain is particularly effective for lavage?

A) Redon drain
B) Jackson-Pratt drain
C) Trocar catheter
D) Blake drain
A

C) Trocar catheter

120
Q

In what scenario is the suction function of the Blake drain compromised?

A) When it is too long
B) When it is not in an airtight space
C) If it is inserted incorrectly
D) When the drain is not maintained
A

B) When it is not in an airtight space

121
Q

What unique feature does the Blake drain possess?

A) Rigid structure
B) Longitudinal slits and protected spaces
C) Only a single fenestration
D) No suction capability
A

B) Longitudinal slits and protected spaces

122
Q

What type of drainage is common to both the Blake drain and Jackson-Pratt drain?

A) External drainage
B) Extraluminal drainage
C) Intraluminal drainage
D) Suction drainage
A

C) Intraluminal drainage

123
Q

Which type of drain is specifically designed to be nonfenestrated at the extension?

A) Blake drain
B) Jackson-Pratt drain
C) Redon drain
D) Trocar catheter
A

C) Redon drain

124
Q

What is a common use for the Jackson-Pratt drain in clinical settings?

A) Wound healing
B) Drainage of deep tissue abscesses
C) External drainage only
D) Supporting tissue scaffolding
A

B) Drainage of deep tissue abscesses

125
Q

What is a shared characteristic of both the Blake and Jackson-Pratt drains?

A) They are both rigid
B) They both utilize suction
C) They have a multifenestrated design
D) They are made from latex
A

C) They have a multifenestrated design

126
Q

What potential benefit does the use of a radiodense marker provide in drains like the Blake drain?

A) Allows for easier removal
B) Helps in imaging and positioning
C) Increases drainage efficiency
D) Reduces risk of infection
A

B) Helps in imaging and positioning

127
Q

What is a critical factor to consider when using the Redon drain?

A) Its size
B) The risk of occlusion
C) The need for airtight conditions
D) Its rigidity
A

B) The risk of occlusion

128
Q

What makes the Redon drain suitable for evacuation of fluids?

A) Its suction capability
B) Its nonfenestrated design
C) Its large diameter
D) Its flexible structure
A

B) Its nonfenestrated design

129
Q

Which active drain is particularly designed for minimizing tissue irritation?

A) Redon drain
B) Jackson-Pratt drain
C) Blake drain
D) Trocar catheter
A

B) Jackson-Pratt drain

130
Q

Which of the following describes the use of a Blake drain in clinical applications?

A) Suitable for external drainage only
B) Can be used for both lavage and drainage
C) It requires special handling
D) It can only be used in large cavities
A

B) Can be used for both lavage and drainage

131
Q

What kind of fluid can be drained effectively with a trocar catheter?

A) Gaseous fluids
B) Viscous fluids
C) Hemorrhagic fluids
D) Serous fluids
A

D) Serous fluids

132
Q

What is the function of the nonfenestrated extension tube in a Redon drain?

A) To provide suction
B) To enhance drainage capacity
C) To prevent occlusion
D) To maintain an airtight seal
A

D) To maintain an airtight seal

133
Q

Which of the following is a common risk associated with the use of a trocar catheter?

A) Infection
B) Allergic reaction
C) Air embolism
D) Dislodgement
A

D) Dislodgement

134
Q

What is the primary reason for the use of longitudinal slits in the Blake drain?

A) To increase strength
B) To enhance flexibility
C) To reduce the risk of occlusion
D) To allow for easy insertion
A

C) To reduce the risk of occlusion

135
Q

What percentage of overlap is recommended when applying circumferential bandage layers?

A) 25%
B) 50%
C) 75%
D) 100%
A

B) 50%

136
Q

Which layer of a bandage acts as padding and absorbs exudate?

A) Contact layer
B) Intermediate layer
C) Outer layer
D) Adhesive layer
A

B) Intermediate layer

137
Q

What is the primary function of the outer layer of a bandage?

A) Absorb exudate
B) Provide cushioning
C) Prevent contamination
D) Support underlying structures
A

C) Prevent contamination

138
Q

The pressure gradient under an evenly applied bandage naturally decreases in which direction?

A) Distal to proximal
B) Proximal to distal
C) Lateral to medial
D) Medial to lateral
A

B) Proximal to distal

139
Q

In a half-limb bandage, where should the application start?

A) Elbow region
B) Heel bulbs
C) Mid-carpus
D) Coronary band
A

B) Heel bulbs

140
Q

The Robert Jones bandage is best characterized by what feature?

A) A single layer of cotton
B) Several layers of cotton
C) A waterproof layer
D) A foam padding layer
A

B) Several layers of cotton

141
Q

The ideal diameter for PVC pipe splints is determined by which factor?

A) Width of the limb
B) Length of the limb
C) Size of the horse
D) Size of the hoof
A

A) Width of the limb

142
Q

What is the maximum thickness of each layer in a Robert Jones bandage?

A) 1 cm
B) 2 cm
C) 3 cm
D) 4 cm
A

B) 2 cm

143
Q

How does the pressure on the gastrocnemius tendon get reduced when applying a hind limb bandage?

A) By applying tension
B) By adding padding
C) By leaving it uncovered
D) By incising the gauze
A

B) By adding padding

144
Q

What is the main purpose of a stent bandage?

A) To provide cushioning
B) To immobilize the limb
C) To cover sutured incisions
D) To support bony prominences
A

C) To cover sutured incisions

145
Q

Which material is commonly used to create a splint?

A) Cotton
B) PVC pipe
C) Metal
D) Fiberglass
A

B) PVC pipe

146
Q

What is the intended use of a compression boot?

A) To provide warmth
B) To prevent injury
C) For temporary immobilization
D) To reduce edema
A

C) For temporary immobilization

147
Q

How long should a stent bandage be removed after surgery to prevent contamination?

A) 12 hours
B) 24 hours
C) 48 hours
D) 72 hours
A

B) 24 hours

148
Q

The main benefit of CM hernia belts compared to nylon abdominal binders is:

A) Lower cost
B) Higher subbandage pressure
C) More comfort
D) Easier application
A

B) Higher subbandage pressure

149
Q

Which bandage layer should ideally be waterproof yet breathable?

A) Contact layer
B) Intermediate layer
C) Outer layer
D) Tertiary layer
A

C) Outer layer

150
Q

What type of pressure relief is achieved by creating an empty space in a bandage?

A) Pressure buildup
B) Pressure concentration
C) Pressure relief
D) No effect
A

C) Pressure relief

151
Q

What is the recommended action if a bandage does not stay in place?

A) Leave it as is
B) Change it immediately
C) Reinforce it with duct tape
D) Apply more padding
A

B) Change it immediately

152
Q

In what manner should the layers of a full-limb bandage be applied?

A) Randomly
B) In a circular fashion
C) In a figure-of-eight pattern
D) Stacked
A

D) Stacked

153
Q

The main function of abdominal bandages is to:

A) Reduce bleeding
B) Support muscle strains
C) Protect incisions
D) Immobilize limbs
A

C) Protect incisions

154
Q

When applying a full-limb bandage to the hind limb, caution should be used to prevent tension over which tendon?

A) Extensor tendon
B) Gastrocnemius tendon
C) Flexor tendon
D) Patellar tendon
A

B) Gastrocnemius tendon

155
Q

Which type of bandage provides excellent support for a severely injured extremity?

A) Adhesive bandage
B) Stent bandage
C) Robert Jones bandage
D) Elastic bandage
A

C) Robert Jones bandage

156
Q

The function of duct tape in a half-limb bandage is primarily to:

A) Increase comfort
B) Secure the bandage
C) Reduce swelling
D) Provide cushioning
A

B) Secure the bandage

157
Q

What is the maximum allowable diameter for a PVC pipe used as a splint?

A) The diameter of the hoof
B) The widest part of the limb
C) The size of the horse's body
D) A standard 10 cm
A

B) The widest part of the limb

158
Q

What is the main disadvantage of wooden splints?

A) They are expensive
B) They lack strength in small widths
C) They are too lightweight
D) They conform too well to the limb
A

B) They lack strength in small widths

159
Q

Which of the following is NOT typically a feature of a full-limb bandage?

A) Applied from heel bulbs to elbow
B) Allows for full joint movement
C) Prevents bedding from entering
D) Can include a doughnut-shaped cotton ring
Correct Answer: B) Allows for full joint movement
A

B) Allows for full joint movement

160
Q

In a full-limb bandage, what is the typical method of securing the dressing in place?

A) With elastic adhesive tape
B) With bandaging clips
C) Using conforming gauze
D) With adhesive glue
A

C) Using conforming gauze

161
Q

A half-limb bandage applied clockwise serves what specific purpose?

A) To immobilize the joint
B) To pull the tendons to the inside
C) To prevent circulation
D) To provide warmth
A

B) To pull the tendons to the inside

162
Q

The maximum subbandage pressure with CM hernia belts compared to nylon binders is:

A) Lower
B) Equal
C) Higher
D) Unpredictable
A

C) Higher

163
Q

The purpose of incorporating splints into a bandage is primarily to:

A) Add color
B) Provide rigidity
C) Increase flexibility
D) Reduce cost
A

B) Provide rigidity

164
Q

The main characteristic of a compression boot is to:

A) Provide style
B) Offer temporary immobilization
C) Increase weight bearing
D) Promote circulation
A

B) Offer temporary immobilization

165
Q

Which technique is recommended for preventing contamination of an incision site during recovery?

A) Use of antibiotics
B) Application of a stent bandage
C) Regular dressing changes
D) Daily washing
A

B) Application of a stent bandage

166
Q

When applying a full-limb bandage, what should be done to prevent sores at bony prominences?

A) Use thicker padding
B) Avoid bandaging these areas
C) Use doughnut-shaped cotton pads
D) Apply more adhesive tape
A

C) Use doughnut-shaped cotton pads

167
Q

what condition should a bandage be immediately changed?

A) When it becomes wet
B) When it is too loose
C) If it does not stay in place
D) All of the above
A

D) All of the above

168
Q

Which bandage type should not be applied to extend to the shoulder or hip?

A) Robert Jones bandage
B) Full-limb bandage
C) Fiberglass casting tape splints
D) Half-limb bandage
A

C) Fiberglass casting tape splints

169
Q

Fiberglass casts are how many times stronger than plaster of Paris casts?

A) 10 times
B) 20 times
C) 30 times
D) 40 times
A

B) 20 times

170
Q

What is the main disadvantage of plaster of Paris casts compared to fiberglass casts?

A) Heavier weight
B) Less durable
C) Poor molding capability
D) All of the above
A

D) All of the above

171
Q

What is the ideal immersion temperature for fiberglass tape before application?

A) 15°C to 20°C
B) 21°C to 27°C
C) 28°C to 35°C
D) 36°C to 40°C
A

B) 21°C to 27°C

172
Q

What is the typical setting time for fiberglass casts?

A) 1 to 2 minutes
B) 4 to 5 minutes
C) 10 to 15 minutes
D) 20 to 30 minutes
A

B) 4 to 5 minutes

173
Q

What percentage of horses show clinical signs of complications from casts?

A) 50%
B) 60%
C) 77%
D) 90%
A

C) 77%

174
Q

How much lighter are fiberglass casts compared to plaster casts?

A) 2 times lighter
B) 3 times lighter
C) 4 times lighter
D) 5 times lighter
A

C) 4 times lighter

175
Q

What is the preferred application position for casting a horse?

A) Lying down
B) Standing
C) Sitting
D) In a sling
A

B) Standing

176
Q

Which part of the limb is most susceptible to pressure sores from casts?

A) Proximal metacarpus
B) Distal metatarsus
C) Palmar/plantar aspect
D) Dorsal aspect
A

C) Palmar/plantar aspect

177
Q

What is the range of thickness for a properly applied fiberglass cast?

A) 5 to 6 mm
B) 7 to 8 mm
C) 9 to 10 mm
D) 11 to 12 mm
A

B) 7 to 8 mm

178
Q

What is the primary reason for using cool water during fiberglass application?

A) To save time
B) To reduce exothermic reaction
C) To allow longer application time
D) To improve molding
A

C) To allow longer application time

179
Q

What is the risk associated with casting a limb in a flexed position?

A) Reduced blood flow
B) Increased risk of cast sores
C) Limited movement
D) Increased temperature
A

B) Increased risk of cast sores

180
Q

What is a common complication following cast removal?

A) Inflammation
B) Infection
C) Cast sores
D) All of the above
A

D) All of the above

181
Q

What percentage of horses develop support limb laminitis after receiving casts?

A) 5% to 10%
B) 12% to 16%
C) 20% to 25%
D) 30% to 35%
A

B) 12% to 16%

182
Q

Which material is recommended for reducing cast sores?

A) Iodine solution
B) Zinc oxide
C) Orthopedic felt
D) Polyurethane foam
A

D) Polyurethane foam

183
Q

What technique is advised for adding a splint to a cast?

A) Above the cast material
B) Under the cast material
C) No splint needed
D) Just on the dorsal aspect
A

D) Just on the dorsal aspect

184
Q

What should be done daily to monitor a cast?

A) Remove the cast
B) Palpate for heat and pressure points
C) Change the cast
D) Apply more tape
A

B) Palpate for heat and pressure points

185
Q

What method should be used for cast removal under general anesthesia?

A) Oscillating saw
B) Manual twisting
C) Obstetrical wire
D) Hammer and chisel
A

C) Obstetrical wire

186
Q

How should the cast be applied in terms of limb position?

A) Flexed
B) Extended
C) Neutral
D) Weight-bearing
A

D) Weight-bearing

187
Q

What is the primary material used in modern external coaptation?

A) Metal
B) Plaster of Paris
C) Fiberglass
D) Wood
A

C) Fiberglass

188
Q

What should be applied to the hoof before cast application?

A) Water
B) Zinc oxide
C) Iodine or thrush buster
D) No treatment
A

C) Iodine or thrush buster

189
Q

What is the maximum weight limit for casting a horse?

A) 500 kg
B) 600 kg
C) 700 kg
D) No limit
A

D) No limit

190
Q

n a multicenter study, what percentage of horses developed complications from traditional casts?

A) 48%
B) 49%
C) 50%
D) 52%
A

D) 52%

191
Q

Which procedure is less successful according to the text?

A) Cast application
B) Cast monitoring
C) Cast repair
D) Cast removal
A

C) Cast repair

192
Q

Which joint is particularly at risk when applying a hind limb cast?

A) Hock
B) Knee
C) Ankle
D) Coxofemoral joint
A

D) Coxofemoral joint

193
Q

What is a significant sign of infection under a cast?

A) Increased temperature
B) Swelling above the cast
C) Fetid odor
D) All of the above
A

D) All of the above

194
Q

What is the preferred stocking size for adult horses when applying a cast?

A) 5 cm (2 in)
B) 7.5 cm (3 in)
C) 10 cm (4 in)
D) 12.5 cm (5 in)
A

B) 7.5 cm (3 in)

195
Q

Which factor increases the risk of dermal pressure necrosis in casts?

A) Age of the horse
B) Duration of casting
C) Tight application
D) All of the above
A

D) All of the above

196
Q

When should the wrap at the top of the cast be removed?

A) Daily
B) Weekly
C) Monthly
D) Not necessary
A

A) Daily

197
Q

What type of cast provides superior stabilization for soft tissue injuries?

A) Traditional cast
B) Bandage cast
C) Fiberglass cast
D) No cast needed
A

B) Bandage cast

198
Q

What is essential for proper weight distribution when applying a cast to a foal?

A) Extended cast length
B) Splint use
C) Heel wedge
D) No cast at all
A

D) No cast at all

199
Q

What does an increased temperature of 4.3°C indicate during thermography?

A) No sores
B) Deep dermal sores
C) Normal condition
D) Inflammation
A

B) Deep dermal sores

200
Q

What is the recommended length for a full-limb cast application?

A) 3 to 4 rolls
B) 4 to 6 rolls
C) 10 to 12 rolls
D) 15 to 20 rolls
A

C) 10 to 12 rolls

201
Q

Which component is crucial for stabilizing a cast?

A) Splints
B) Molding
C) Padding
D) Color
A

A) Splints

202
Q

What is the average percentage of limb weight a cast should carry?

A) 30%
B) 50%
C) 60%
D) 80%
A

B) 50%

203
Q

What is the optimal humidity level for curing fiberglass casts?

A) 30%
B) 50%
C) 70%
D) 90%
A

C) 70%

204
Q

What is an early sign of compromised circulation in a casted limb?

A) Cold toes
B) Warm toes
C) Increased swelling
D) Color changes
A

D) Color changes

205
Q

Which type of horse is most likely to require a cast?

A) Mature horses
B) Foals
C) Racehorses
D) Show horses
A

B) Foals

206
Q

What is a common method for treating a sore caused by a cast?

A) Topical ointment
B) Surgical removal
C) Cast replacement
D) Bandaging
A

A) Topical ointment

207
Q

What is the role of thermography in cast monitoring?

A) Pain assessment
B) Moisture control
C) Detecting inflammation
D) All of the above
A

C) Detecting inflammation

208
Q

How does the weight of a fiberglass cast change when it becomes wet?

A) Increases by 1.5 times
B) Remains the same
C) Decreases by 1.5 times
D) Doubles
A

A) Increases by 1.5 times