Chapter 69 - Ultrasound Flashcards

1
Q

What is the function of piezoelectric crystals in ultrasound transducers?

A

they generate sound waves when stimulated by electricity and produce an electrical current when interacted with sound.

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2
Q

What frequency range do ultrasound transducers typically operate within?

A

From 1 to 18 MHz.

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3
Q

What is the relationship between frequency and image resolution in ultrasound?

A

Lower frequencies penetrate deeper but provide poorer resolution; higher frequencies offer better resolution but with less depth.

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4
Q

What type of transducer is best suited for imaging tendons and ligaments?

A

Linear transducers, due to their high resolution.

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5
Q

How does a curvilinear transducer differ from a linear transducer?

A

Curvilinear transducers have a convex shape for a larger field of view, sacrificing some resolution.

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6
Q

Why can’t ultrasound waves penetrate air and bone effectively?

A

Due to differences in acoustic impedance, which affects sound wave transmission.

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7
Q

What are phased-array transducers used for?

A

Imaging rapidly moving structures, like the heart, due to their ability to send sound waves simultaneously.

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8
Q

What is anisotropism in ultrasound imaging?

A

The appearance of darker areas on an image due to the ultrasound beam being off-angle to the structure being imaged.

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9
Q

What is acoustic impedance?

A

The product of a tissue’s density and the velocity of sound within that tissue.

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10
Q

What does the gray scale on an ultrasound image represent?

A

It indicates the strength of reflected sound, with black showing no reflection and white showing strong reflection.

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11
Q

How can lateral resolution be optimized in ultrasound imaging?

A

By positioning the focal point at the desired depth to narrow the beam.

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12
Q

What distinguishes axial spatial resolution from lateral spatial resolution?

A

Axial resolution measures the ability to differentiate structures parallel to the beam, while lateral resolution does so perpendicularly.

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13
Q

What affects the axial resolution of an ultrasound image?

A

t is determined by the sound wavelength and frequency; higher frequencies yield better axial resolution.

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14
Q

What is the standard velocity of sound used for calculating depth in ultrasound images?

A

1540 m/s, which corresponds to the speed of sound in soft tissue.

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15
Q

How is the depth of a structure calculated in ultrasound?

A

Based on the time taken for the sound to travel to the structure and back to the probe.

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16
Q

What are wireless transducers currently being developed for?

A

Point-of-care ultrasound (POCUS) in human medicine, with potential applications in equine imaging.

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17
Q

What is the primary limitation of wireless ultrasound transducers?

A

Uncertainty regarding battery life and resolution in clinical settings.

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18
Q

What role does the angle of incidence play in ultrasound imaging?

A

The angle affects the amount of reflected sound returning to the transducer, influencing image quality and accuracy.

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19
Q

What do the terms hyperechoic, hypoechoic, isoechoic, and anechoic indicate in ultrasound imaging?

A

Hyperechoic means brighter, hypoechoic means darker, isoechoic means the same echogenicity, and anechoic means no echoes.

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20
Q

How does harmonic imaging enhance ultrasound image quality?

A

It reduces artifacts by using resonance frequencies, resulting in clearer images with better resolution.

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21
Q

What is the principle behind strain elastography?

A

It measures tissue compressibility through physical compression and relaxation.

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22
Q

How does shear elastography differ from strain elastography?

A

Shear elastography measures sound wave propagation through tissue to assess stiffness without needing physical compression.

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23
Q

What is the purpose of contrast medium-enhanced ultrasound?

A

To predict subclinical tears and monitor healing in equine tendons.

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24
Q

What is the typical preparation process for musculoskeletal ultrasound examinations?

A

Clipping hair, applying alcohol and acoustic coupling gel, and using a high-frequency linear probe.

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25
Q

Why are stand-off pads used in ultrasound imaging?

A

They increase the distance between the probe and skin to reduce near-field artifacts.

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26
Q

What is the significance of acoustic coupling gel in ultrasound?

A

It improves contact between the transducer and the skin, enhancing image quality.

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27
Q

What common issue can arise during ultrasound imaging due to air between the transducer and skin?

A

Contact artifacts, which appear as black streaks in the image.

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28
Q

How can ultrasound assist in evaluating cervical degenerative joint disease in horses?

A

It assesses osseous proliferation of cervical joints and guides therapeutic injections.

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29
Q

What structures can be evaluated using ultrasound in the equine cervical region?

A

The larynx, hyoid apparatus, vocal folds, arytenoid cartilages, and cervical vertebral bodies.

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30
Q

What role does ultrasound play in cervical centesis for cerebrospinal fluid collection?

A

It guides the needle into the subarachnoid space with minimal blood contamination.

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31
Q

What structures are typically examined when performing an ultrasound of the shoulder?

A

Biceps brachii tendon, bicipital bursa, humeral tubercles, infraspinatus muscle, and supraspinatus muscle.

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32
Q

Why is a high-frequency transducer (>7 MHz) preferred for shoulder examinations?

A

It provides good resolution for imaging structures located 4 to 6 cm deep.

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33
Q

What imaging techniques should be employed when evaluating shoulder structures?

A

Both transverse and longitudinal imaging planes should be used.

34
Q

What complicates the ultrasonographic examination of the equine carpus?

A

The irregular bone structure and the superficial nature of the tendons and ligaments.

35
Q

What is the potential application of elastography in equine tendon evaluation?

A

To detect subclinical tendon tears before they progress to larger lesions that cause clinical signs.

36
Q

How can ultrasound help differentiate between intracapsular and extracapsular swelling in the carpus?

A

It determines whether swelling is within the joint or surrounding it.

37
Q

What is the advantage of using multiple angles in ultrasound imaging?

A

It helps identify true lesions versus artifacts by confirming hypoechoic areas in different planes.

37
Q

What imaging modality may provide a better overview of carpal structures compared to ultrasound?

A

Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI).

38
Q
A

Figure 69-5. The zone method for localizing a lesion on the thoracic limb using ultrasound. 1, Superficial digital flexor tendon; 2, deep digital flexor tendon; 3, distal check ligament; 4, suspensory ligament; 5, third metacarpal bone; 6, branches of the suspensory ligament; 7, proximal sesamoid bones; 8, palmar annular ligament.

39
Q
A

Figure 69-5. The zone method for localizing a lesion on the thoracic limb using ultrasound. 1, Superficial digital flexor tendon; 2, deep digital flexor tendon; 3, distal check ligament; 4, suspensory ligament; 5, third metacarpal bone; 6, branches of the suspensory ligament; 7, proximal sesamoid bones; 8, palmar annular ligament.

40
Q
A

Figure 69-6. Ultrasonographic image of the palmar proximal interphalangeal (pastern) region with the straight sesamoidean ligament and deep and superficial digital flexor tendons identified. In the medial lobe of the deep digital flexor tendon, a focal lesion appears hypoechoic (circle). An edge shadow is also identified (arrow).

40
Q
A

Figure 69-5. The zone method for localizing a lesion on the thoracic limb using ultrasound. 1, Superficial digital flexor tendon; 2, deep digital flexor tendon; 3, distal check ligament; 4, suspensory ligament; 5, third metacarpal bone; 6, branches of the suspensory ligament; 7, proximal sesamoid bones; 8, palmar annular ligament.

41
Q
A

Figure 69-7. A transverse image of the left coxofemoral joint of an adult horse with pain localized to the hip. The large anechoic region (arrows) is a distended joint capsule and the irregular margin of the femoral head is secondary to osteophyte formation. Ultrasound-guided centesis of the joint space was performed and synovial fluid was obtained that indicated degenerative change rather than infection.

42
Q

What types of lesions can ultrasound detect in the metacarpal and metatarsal regions?

A

Core lesions that appear as focal anechoic-to-hypoechoic regions.

43
Q

What complicates the evaluation of the proximal suspensory ligament?

A

Variations in fat and smooth muscle affecting echogenicity and echotexture among horses.

43
Q

Name the main structures evaluated in the metacarpal and metatarsal regions.

A

Superficial and deep digital flexor tendons, suspensory ligament, and accessory ligament of the deep digital flexor tendon.

44
Q

What is the sensitivity and specificity of ultrasound for detecting proximal suspensory lesions compared to MRI?

A

90% sensitivity and 8% specificity.

45
Q

What are the challenges of obtaining ultrasound images of the proximal suspensory ligament?

A

The narrow width of the limb and difficulty achieving a perpendicular angle.

46
Q

What methods are used to identify lesion locations in the metacarpal and metatarsal regions?

A

Zone method and metric measuring method.

47
Q

How many zones are defined in the thoracic limb for ultrasound evaluation?

A

Seven zones.

48
Q

What anatomical features are examined distal to the proximal sesamoid bones?

A

Superficial and deep digital flexor tendons and distal sesamoidean ligaments.

49
Q

What type of transducer is recommended for imaging collateral ligaments of the MCP/MTP joints?

A

A high-frequency linear transducer.

50
Q

How do the long and short collateral ligaments of the MCP/MTP joint differ in imaging?

A

They must be imaged individually due to differences in fiber direction and echogenicity.

51
Q

What prevents ultrasound penetration at the distal aspect of the collateral ligament of the DIP joint?

A

The hoof capsule encasing the ligament.

52
Q

What transducer frequency is typically used for evaluating the coxofemoral joint?

A

A lower frequency transducer (3–5 MHz).

52
Q

What advantages does ultrasound have over radiography in evaluating the pelvis?

A

It is noninvasive and provides real-time evaluation without the risks associated with anesthesia.

53
Q

What are some indications for performing pelvic ultrasonography in horses?

A

Suspected pelvic fractures, hematomas, joint distention, osteoarthritis, and coxofemoral joint luxation.

54
Q

What is the purpose of transcutaneous and transrectal ultrasound examination of the pelvis?

A

To evaluate the pelvis and coxofemoral joints effectively.

55
Q

What can extended-view imaging reveal in cases of pelvic fractures?

A

Anatomic information, such as symmetry of the tuber sacrale and involvement of the sacroiliac joint.

56
Q

Which ligaments can be examined when assessing the distal sesamoidean region?

A

The straight and oblique sesamoidean ligaments, as well as the cruciate ligaments of the proximal sesamoid bones.

57
Q

What can be evaluated in the MCP/MTP, PIP, and DIP joints through ultrasound?

A

Presence of osseous fragments and increased synovial fluid.

57
Q

What primary imaging method is used for evaluating the femorotibial region?

A

Radiography.

58
Q

What structures can ultrasonography evaluate in the femorotibial region?

A

Femoropatellar joint, lateral and medial femorotibial joints, menisci, and collateral ligaments.

59
Q

Which transducer type is recommended for imaging the cranial attachment of the medial meniscus?

A

A microconvex, curvilinear transducer.

60
Q

What ultrasound findings may indicate meniscal damage?

A

Increased joint fluid in one or more joint spaces.

61
Q

Why is ultrasound challenging for imaging the equine tarsus?

A

Due to thin tissue over irregular bone protrusions.

62
Q

What can ultrasound determine about swellings in the tarsus?

A

Whether they are intracapsular or extracapsular.

63
Q

What structures can be evaluated in the tarsus using ultrasound?

A

Collateral ligaments, trochlear ridges, tarsal sheath, and sustentaculum tali.

64
Q

What limitations does abdominal ultrasonography face?

A

The size of the abdomen and the presence of gas, especially in the colon and cecum.

65
Q

What is the normal wall thickness for the small intestine in equines?

A

Approximately 3 to 4 mm.

66
Q

Which transducer frequency is ideal for imaging the liver or kidneys?

A

A lower frequency (3–5 MHz) macroconvex transducer.

67
Q

What does FLASH stand for in the context of equine abdominal ultrasound?

A

Fast Localized Abdominal Sonography in Horses.

68
Q

What specific areas are assessed during FLASH for acute abdominal pain?

A

Colon wall thickness, small intestine, and areas for left dorsal displacement.

69
Q

What ultrasound techniques can evaluate the thorax in horses?

A

Intercostal evaluation to identify fluid, atelectasis, pneumonia, or pulmonary masses.

70
Q

What artifact is commonly seen when ultrasound evaluates the lung?

A

Reverberation artifact, characterized by a hyperechoic line with a shadow.

71
Q

What is a significant advantage of ultrasound over radiography in equine thoracic evaluation?

A

It allows superficial evaluation without the need for high-powered x-ray generators.

72
Q

How does ultrasound assist in surgical planning for equine injuries?

A

By providing diagnostic information about soft tissue swellings, fluid pockets, and foreign materials.

73
Q

What role does user skill play in the effectiveness of ultrasonography?

A

The image quality and examination depend on the user’s skill, knowledge of anatomy, and evaluation time.

74
Q

Which transducer type is best for general abdominal imaging in horses?

A

A high-frequency microconvex curvilinear transducer.

75
Q

What condition might be indicated by fluid in the thoracic cavity?

A

Pleuritis.