Chapter 13 - Minimally Invasive Surgical Techniques Flashcards

1
Q

What is a primary advantage of minimally invasive surgical techniques in equine patients?

A) Increased incision size
B) Decreased postoperative pain and morbidity
C) Longer recovery times
D) Increased surgical site infection rates
A

B) Decreased postoperative pain and morbidity

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2
Q

Which minimally invasive surgery is most commonly performed among large-animal surgeons?

A) Laparoscopy
B) Arthroscopy
C) Thoracoscopy
D) Endoscopic upper airway surgery
A

B) Arthroscopy

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3
Q

What is a disadvantage of minimally invasive surgery mentioned in the text?

A) Increased visibility
B) Specialized equipment costs
C) Reduced recovery times
D) Decreased soft tissue trauma
A

B) Specialized equipment costs

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4
Q

Which procedure has become the standard of care for articular procedures in equines?

A) Open surgery
B) Laparoscopy
C) Arthroscopy
D) Thoracotomy
A

C) Arthroscopy

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5
Q

What technique is used for accessing the dorsal abdomen in mares?

A) Open laparotomy
B) Laparoscopy
C) Thoracoscopy
D) Endoscopy
A

B) Laparoscopy

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6
Q

What surgical method has replaced laryngotomy in respiratory surgery when available?

A) Open surgical approach
B) Diode laser ventriculocordectomy
C) Laparoscopic surgery
D) Standard endoscopic techniques
A

B) Diode laser ventriculocordectomy

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7
Q

What is a challenge of implementing robotic surgical platforms in equine surgery?

A) Increased surgical precision
B) High cost and equipment adaptation
C) Enhanced visibility
D) Reduced surgical site infections
A

B) High cost and equipment adaptation

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8
Q

Which of the following is NOT a type of minimally invasive surgery mentioned for equine patients?

A) Thoracoscopy
B) Natural orifice transluminal endoscopic surgery (NOTES)
C) Single-incision laparoscopic surgery (SILS)
D) Open abdominal surgery
A

D) Open abdominal surgery

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9
Q

What is the primary purpose of a light source in an endoscopy tower?

A) Provide heat to tissues
B) Illuminate the surgical field
C) Reduce costs
D) Cool the surgical instruments
A

B) Illuminate the surgical field

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10
Q

Which light source is considered optimal for illumination in equine surgeries?

A) 100-W LED
B) 150-W halogen
C) 300-W Xenon
D) 400-W fluorescent
A

C) 300-W Xenon

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11
Q

What is a significant benefit of using LED light sources over Xenon sources?

A) Shorter operational life
B) More expensive replacements
C) Longer lifespan and lower maintenance costs
D) Higher heat generation
A

C) Longer lifespan and lower maintenance costs

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12
Q

In a three-chip video camera, what is the benefit of using three separate CCDs?

A) Lower cost
B) Enhanced image quality
C) Smaller size
D) Increased weight
A

B) Enhanced image quality

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13
Q

What type of sterilization is most suitable for video cameras used in surgeries?

A) Autoclaving only
B) Ethylene oxide or plasma
C) Chemical sterilization only
D) Radiation
A

B) Ethylene oxide or plasma

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14
Q

What is the recommended intraarticular pressure for arthroscopy?

A) Up to 50 mm Hg
B) Up to 100 mm Hg
C) Up to 150 mm Hg
D) Up to 200 mm Hg
A

C) Up to 150 mm Hg

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15
Q

What is the primary gas used for insufflation during laparoscopic procedures?

A) Helium
B) Nitrous oxide
C) Carbon dioxide (CO2)
D) Oxygen
A

C) Carbon dioxide (CO2)

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16
Q

How does insufflation with CO2 affect the abdominal cavity postoperatively?

A) Decreases white blood cell count
B) Causes a mild inflammatory reaction
C) Has no effect
D) Enhances healing
A

B) Causes a mild inflammatory reaction

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17
Q

Which pressure is typically adequate for thoracoscopy?

A) 1 mm Hg
B) 5 mm Hg
C) 10 mm Hg
D) 15 mm Hg
A

B) 5 mm Hg

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18
Q

Which pressure is typically adequate for arthroscopy?

A) 1 mm Hg
B) 5 mm Hg
C) 15 mm Hg
D) 150 mm Hg
A

D) 150 mm Hg

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19
Q

Which pressure is typically adequate for laparoscopy?

A) 1 mm Hg
B) 5 mm Hg
C) 15 mm Hg
D) 150 mm Hg
A

C) 15 mm Hg

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20
Q

What is the flow rate recommended for arthroscopu?

A) 1.5 L/min
B) 2.5 L/min
C) 3.5 L/min
D) 4.5 L/min
A

A) 1.5 L/min

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21
Q

What is a potential cardiopulmonary effect of increased intraabdominal pressure during laparoscopic procedures?

A) Enhanced ventilation
B) Decreased cardiac return
C) Improved oxygenation
D) Stabilized heart rate
A

B) Decreased cardiac return

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22
Q

What is a primary consideration when positioning the endoscopy tower during laparoscopic procedures?

A) Aesthetics
B) Surgeon comfort and visibility
C) Equipment weight
D) Patient size
A

B) Surgeon comfort and visibility

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23
Q

What is the function of the fluid irrigation system in arthroscopy?

A) To provide thermal regulation
B) To maintain intraarticular pressure and visualization
C) To cool the surgical instruments
D) To enhance blood flow
A

B) To maintain intraarticular pressure and visualization

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24
Q

What is the disadvantage of using a sterile sleeve for the video camera?

A) It is cost-prohibitive.
B) It can cause fog formation due to fluid entry.
C) It is difficult to apply.
D) It is not sterilizable.
A

B) It can cause fog formation due to fluid entry.

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25
Q

Which type of system allows adjustment of flow rate based on intra-abdominal pressure during surgery?

A) Standard IV drip
B) Gravity flow system
C) Motorized roller pump
D) Manual pump
A

C) Motorized roller pump

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26
Q

In equine laparoscopy, what pressure settings are typically required?

A) Up to 5 mm Hg
B) Up to 10 mm Hg
C) Up to 15 mm Hg
D) Up to 20 mm Hg
A

C) Up to 15 mm Hg

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27
Q

What is a common reason for the slower evolution of thoracoscopic techniques compared to other methods?

A) Increased costs
B) Rare surgical diseases affecting the equine thorax
C) Technical challenges
D) Lack of trained personnel
A

B) Rare surgical diseases affecting the equine thorax

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28
Q

What is a significant drawback of using single-incision laparoscopic surgery (SILS) in equines?

A) Improved cosmetic outcomes
B) Reduced tactile feedback and triangulation
C) Increased patient comfort
D) Lower surgical costs
A

B) Reduced tactile feedback and triangulation

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29
Q

What technological advancement has been introduced to enhance dexterity in minimally invasive surgery?

A) 3D imaging systems
B) Robotic surgical platforms
C) Fiber optic cables
D) Standard laparoscopic instruments
A

B) Robotic surgical platforms

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30
Q

What is the main purpose of using a fluid irrigation system during arthroscopy?

A) Maintain intraarticular pressure
B) Increase tissue temperature
C) Provide anesthesia
D) Enhance visibility
A

A) Maintain intraarticular pressure

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31
Q

Which of the following procedures is NOT typically performed via laparoscopy?

A) Ovariectomy in mares
B) Cryptorchidectomy
C) Inguinal herniorrhaphy
D) Open heart surgery
A

D) Open heart surgery

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32
Q

What is the ideal video resolution for enhanced imaging in surgical settings?

A) 640 × 480 pixels
B) 1280 × 720 pixels
C) 1920 × 1080 pixels
D) 3840 × 2160 pixels
A

C) 1920 × 1080 pixels

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33
Q

What is a primary role of the insufflator during laparoscopic surgery?

A) Deliver anesthetic
B) Maintain intraabdominal pressure
C) Cool the surgical area
D) Enhance blood flow
A

B) Maintain intraabdominal pressure

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34
Q

Which camera technology provides superior image quality for surgical procedures?

A) Single-chip cameras
B) Three-chip cameras
C) Analog cameras
D) Standard definition cameras
A

B) Three-chip cameras

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35
Q

What is one benefit of using motorized roller pumps for fluid irrigation?

A) Manual operation
B) Automatic flow rate adjustment
C) Lower costs
D) Increased fluid waste
A

B) Automatic flow rate adjustment

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36
Q

What challenge does the limited amplitude of laparoscopic instruments pose?

A) Improved visibility
B) Reduced dexterity
C) Enhanced patient comfort
D) Increased surgical site infection
A

B) Reduced dexterity

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37
Q

Why is a powerful light source particularly important in equine abdominal or thoracic surgeries?

A) To minimize costs
B) To ensure good visualization in larger cavities
C) To reduce the number of instruments needed
D) To avoid the use of anesthesia
A

B) To ensure good visualization in larger cavities

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38
Q

What advantage does NOTES offer in minimally invasive surgery?

A) Increased incision size
B) Reduced recovery times
C) Access through natural orifices
D) Elimination of all surgical instruments
A

C) Access through natural orifices

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39
Q
A
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40
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41
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42
Q
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43
Q
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44
Q
A

Figure 13-8. Set of cutting instruments for arthroscopy/tenoscopy. Top to bottom: hooked knife, banana knife, one straight single-sided cutting knife, and two angled single-sided cutting knives.

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45
Q
A

Figure 13-9. The suction arthroscopic punch rongeurs is a sturdy and sharp instrument that allows débridement of dense soft tissues and instant removal of debris. (Reprinted with permission from Sontec Instruments, Inc., Centennial, Colorado, 2010.)

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46
Q
A

Figure 13-10. Handpiece of a motorized shaver with disposable blades. The control knobs allow a forward, backward, or oscillating mode, but foot switch control is also possible. (A) Tooth-edged synovial resector. (B) Burr for bone débridement (Acromionizer, Dyonics). (© Smith & Nephew, Inc.)

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47
Q

What is the optimal angle range for triangulation in endoscopic surgery?

A) 10–20 degrees
B) 15–25 degrees
C) 25–45 degrees
D) 30–60 degrees
A

C) 25–45 degrees

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48
Q

What problem arises when the triangulation angle falls below 20 degrees?

A) Improved visibility
B) Loss of optical-coaxial alignment
C) Clashing of instruments
D) Enhanced maneuverability
A

C) Clashing of instruments

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49
Q

In minimally invasive surgery, what is the “sword fighting effect”?

A) Improved instrument navigation
B) Difficult instrument maneuvers due to loss of triangulation
C) Enhanced field visualization
D) Decreased surgical time
A

B) Difficult instrument maneuvers due to loss of triangulation

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50
Q

Which technique was developed to overcome challenges in triangulation?

A) Single-incision laparoscopic surgery
B) Robotic-assisted surgery
C) Wristed instruments
D) Open surgical techniques
A

C) Wristed instruments

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51
Q

What is the “reverse-camera effect” in endoscopic surgery?

A) Enhanced depth perception
B) An inverted image displayed on the monitor
C) Improved triangulation
D) Increased surgical efficiency
A

B) An inverted image displayed on the monitor

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52
Q

Which simulator is mentioned as an effective training tool for laparoscopic skills?

A) Avid Trainer
B) MISTELS
C) Virtual Reality Simulator
D) Surgical Navigation System
A

B) MISTELS

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53
Q

What is the outer diameter of the most commonly used arthroscope in veterinary arthroscopy?

A) 3 mm
B) 4 mm
C) 5 mm
D) 6 mm
A

B) 4 mm

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54
Q

What is the purpose of the conical obturator during arthroscopic procedures?

A) To inflate the joint capsule
B) To protect the arthroscope during insertion
C) To assist in visualization
D) To provide irrigation
A

B) To protect the arthroscope during insertion

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55
Q

What is the primary use of a blunt hooked probe in arthroscopy?

A) Cutting soft tissue
B) Evaluating cartilage and manipulating structures
C) Removing bone fragments
D) Irrigating the joint
A
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56
Q

Which instrument is preferred for detaching bony fragments during arthroscopy?

A) Blunt probe
B) Elevator
C) Curette
D) Rongeur
A

B) Elevator

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57
Q

What feature is important for Ferris-Smith rongeurs used in equine arthroscopy?

A) Lightweight design
B) Multiple jaw angles
C) Disposable construction
D) Electric operation
A

B) Multiple jaw angles

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58
Q

Why is a bone awl used in arthroscopic procedures?

A) To remove soft tissue
B) To create microfractures in subchondral bone
C) To visualize the joint
D) To stabilize the joint
A

B) To create microfractures in subchondral bone

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59
Q

What is a disadvantage of using sharp obturators for joint access?

A) Increased fluid loss
B) Difficulty in maneuvering
C) Risk of iatrogenic damage to intrasynovial structures
D) Higher costs
A

C) Risk of iatrogenic damage to intrasynovial structures

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60
Q

Which of the following instruments is NOT typically used in arthroscopy?

A) Curette
B) Electrocautery
C) Ferris-Smith rongeurs
D) Bone awl
A

B) Electrocautery

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61
Q

What is the function of the egress cannula in arthroscopic procedures?

A) To deliver anesthetic
B) To flush the joint
C) To visualize the joint
D) To stabilize the instruments
A

B) To flush the joint

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62
Q

Which instrument is particularly useful for retrieving loose fragments from the suprapatellar pouch?

A) Curette
B) Ferris-Smith rongeurs
C) Bone awl
D) Elevator
A

B) Ferris-Smith rongeurs

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63
Q

What is the preferred design for the blade of a beaver blade used in arthroscopy?

A) Fixed and non-removable
B) Disposable and consistently sharp
C) Heavy and cumbersome
D) Short and blunt
A

B) Disposable and consistently sharp

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64
Q

What is the purpose of using angled curettes in arthroscopy?

A) To provide better traction
B) To access less reachable areas
C) To remove larger bone fragments
D) To stabilize the joint
A

B) To access less reachable areas

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65
Q

Which type of rongeur is commonly used for trimming lesions during arthroscopic procedures?

A) Large jaw rongeurs
B) Ferris-Smith rongeurs
C) Biopsy rongeurs
D) Scissors
A

B) Ferris-Smith rongeurs

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66
Q

What is the most significant risk associated with using sharp instruments in arthroscopy?

A) Breakage of instruments
B) Iatrogenic injury to tissue
C) Increased operative time
D) Infection
A

B) Iatrogenic injury to tissue

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67
Q

In terms of arthroscopy, what does the term “triangulation” specifically refer to?

A) The alignment of surgical lights
B) The angles formed by the instruments and the target
C) The placement of the patient on the surgical table
D) The use of multiple camera angles
A

B) The angles formed by the instruments and the target

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68
Q

What is the ideal angle of the lens on a standard arthroscope used in equine surgery?

A) 10 degrees
B) 25 to 30 degrees
C) 35 degrees
D) 45 degrees
A

B) 25 to 30 degrees

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69
Q

How is the arthroscope protected during insertion into the joint?

A) By using a rigid sheath
B) By lubricating it with saline
C) By wrapping it in gauze
D) By placing it in a sterile bag
A

A) By using a rigid sheath

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70
Q

What is the importance of optical-coaxial alignment during endoscopic surgery?

A) It minimizes the number of instruments needed
B) It enhances visibility and maneuverability
C) It ensures all components are in a straight line for visualization
D) It reduces surgical time
A

C) It ensures all components are in a straight line for visualization

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71
Q

Which of the following best describes the use of wristed instruments in laparoscopic surgery?

A) They increase the size of the incisions.
B) They allow for greater dexterity in tight spaces.
C) They eliminate the need for triangulation.
D) They simplify the surgical procedure.
A

B) They allow for greater dexterity in tight spaces.

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72
Q

What is the role of stopcocks in the arthroscopic sleeve?

A) To regulate light exposure
B) To control fluid ingress and egress
C) To stabilize the camera position
D) To facilitate instrument movement
A

B) To control fluid ingress and egress

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73
Q

What type of tissue should be avoided in the reverse-camera effect scenario?

A) Bony structures
B) Cartilage
C) Soft tissue
D) Synovial fluid
A

C) Soft tissue

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74
Q

What is the purpose of using a thin osteotome during arthroscopy?

A) To create large incisions
B) To manipulate cartilage
C) To fracture large bone fragments
D) To suction fluid
A

C) To fracture large bone fragments

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75
Q

How does a rounded elevator facilitate fragment detachment?

A) By providing a lever mechanism
B) By increasing the incision size
C) By minimizing tissue trauma
D) By reducing the number of instruments needed
A

A) By providing a lever mechanism

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76
Q

Which of the following statements about arthroscopy is true?

A) It is exclusively for equine surgeries.
B) It requires large incisions for access.
C) It is the standard procedure for exploring joint disorders.
D) It cannot be used in human medicine.
A

C) It is the standard procedure for exploring joint disorders.

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77
Q

What is a common characteristic of instruments used in arthroscopy compared to human medicine?

A) They are typically heavier and larger.
B) They are made from disposable materials.
C) They often have finer tips.
D) They are more fragile.
A

A) They are typically heavier and larger.

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78
Q

Why is it essential to maintain true vertical and horizontal axes with the camera during surgery?

A) To improve aesthetic outcomes
B) To ensure accurate visualization of the target
C) To reduce instrument fatigue
D) To increase surgical speed
A

B) To ensure accurate visualization of the target

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79
Q

What is a potential disadvantage of using a monocular view in arthroscopic simulators?

A) Reduced depth perception
B) Increased training time
C) Higher costs
D) Lower quality images
A

A) Reduced depth perception

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80
Q

What type of lavage cannula is preferred for flushing large debris from joints?

A) Small-diameter with side holes
B) Large-diameter without side holes
C) Standard-length with multiple openings
D) Short and flexible
A

B) Large-diameter without side holes

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81
Q

What is the primary advantage of using a disposable blade in arthroscopic procedures?

A) Cost-effectiveness
B) Consistent sharpness
C) Eco-friendliness
D) Ease of use
A

B) Consistent sharpness

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82
Q

What surgical technique is similar in principle to arthroscopy but applied to tendon sheaths?

A) Bursoscopy
B) Tenoscopy
C) Laparoscopy
D) Endoscopy
A

B) Tenoscopy

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83
Q

What is the recommended working length for most arthroscopes?

A) 100–120 mm
B) 140–160 mm
C) 160–175 mm
D) 200–220 mm
A

C) 160–175 mm

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84
Q

How does the introduction of wristed instruments enhance the surgical procedure?

A) They eliminate the need for triangulation.
B) They provide a greater range of motion.
C) They reduce instrument clashing.
D) They minimize patient discomfort.
A

B) They provide a greater range of motion.

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85
Q

Which instrument is typically used for débridement of subchondral bone?

A) Elevator
B) Curette
C) Rongeur
D) Bone awl
A

B) Curette

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86
Q

What is the significance of having different sizes and shapes of arthroscopic instruments?

A) To increase the cost of surgery
B) To allow for tailored approaches to various anatomical challenges
C) To standardize all surgical procedures
D) To minimize the variety of instruments in the surgical field
A

B) To allow for tailored approaches to various anatomical challenges

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87
Q

What is the typical power output setting range for monopolar electrosurgery?

A) 20-30 W
B) 40-90 W
C) 60-100 W
D) 80-120 W
A

B) 40-90 W

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88
Q

At what temperature does cell vaporization occur?

A) 40°C
B) 50°C
C) 100°C
D) 150°C
A

C) 100°C

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89
Q

What percentage of synovial sepsis risk is typically associated with elective arthroscopy?

A) 0.1%–0.5%
B) 0.5%–1%
C) 1%–2%
D) 2%–5%
A

B) 0.5%–1%

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90
Q

What is the recommended distention pressure for the synovial cavity during arthroscopy?

A) 30-60 mm Hg
B) 60-150 mm Hg
C) 100-200 mm Hg
D) 150-250 mm Hg
A

B) 60-150 mm Hg

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91
Q

How long can equine synovial villi take to regenerate after synovectomy?

A) 1 month
B) 3 months
C) 6 months
D) 12 months
A

C) 6 months

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92
Q

What is the diameter of the most commonly used cannula in equine laparoscopy/thoracoscopy?

A) 5 mm
B) 8 mm
C) 10 mm
D) 11 mm
A

D) 11 mm

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93
Q

What percentage of patients is likely to experience a higher risk of infection during carpal sheath tenoscopies?

A) 1%–2%
B) 2%–3%
C) Higher than 1%
D) No significant risk
A

C) Higher than 1%

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94
Q

What is the maximum working length for standard human laparoscopes?

A) 20 cm
B) 30 cm
C) 40 cm
D) 57 cm
A

B) 30 cm

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95
Q

Which temperature range results in cell death during electrosurgery?

A) 30°C–40°C
B) 40°C–50°C
C) 50°C–60°C
D) 60°C–70°C
A

B) 40°C–50°C

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96
Q

What is the length of the specialized laparoscope available for equine surgery?

A) 30 cm
B) 40 cm
C) 57 cm
D) 60 cm
A

C) 57 cm

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97
Q

What is the common outcome when using 1.5% glycine solution in electrosurgery studies?

A) Increased infection rate
B) No significant impact on results
C) Decreased efficiency
D) Increased power settings
A

B) No significant impact on results

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98
Q

What is the typical outer diameter of endoscopes used in equine laparoscopy?

A) 8 mm
B) 10 mm
C) 11 mm
D) 12 mm
A

B) 10 mm

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99
Q

What is the effect of using saline solutions in the synovial cavity during surgery?

A) Permanent damage to cartilage
B) Temporary inhibition of proteoglycan synthesis
C) Enhanced visibility
D) Increased healing time
A

B) Temporary inhibition of proteoglycan synthesis

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100
Q

How many categories are motorized blades divided into?

A) One
B) Two
C) Three
D) Four
A

C) Three

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101
Q

What is the benefit of using a Teflon-coated probe in electrosurgery?

A) Higher voltage
B) Reduced electrical dispersion
C) Increased thermal damage
D) Increased tissue heating
A

B) Reduced electrical dispersion

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102
Q

What is the typical skin incision size for arthroscopy?

A) 5-10 mm
B) 10-15 mm
C) 15-20 mm
D) 20-25 mm
A

B) 10-15 mm

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103
Q

What is the diameter of the optical trocar used in some procedures?

A) 10 mm
B) 11 mm
C) 12 mm
D) 13 mm
A

C) 12 mm

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104
Q

How long does a typical surgery under general anesthesia take compared to standing procedures?

A) 10% longer
B) 25% longer
C) 50% longer
D) Significantly longer
A

B) 25% longer

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105
Q

What is the power setting for radiofrequency chondroplasty that can cause significant thermal damage?

A) Less than 10 W
B) 10-20 W
C) Greater than 20 W
D) 30-40 W
A

C) Greater than 20 W

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106
Q

What percentage of surgeons reported no increase in infection rates when antibiotics were not used?

A) 30%
B) 50%
C) 70%
D) 90%
A

D) 90%

107
Q

What is the common range of the voltage applied in bipolar electrosurgery?

A) 10-20 V
B) 20-30 V
C) 30-40 V
D) Constant
A

D) Constant

108
Q

What is the maximum pressure for distending the synovial cavity during an arthroscopic procedure?

A) 40 mm Hg
B) 100 mm Hg
C) 150 mm Hg
D) 200 mm Hg
A

C) 150 mm Hg

109
Q

What percentage of soft tissue dissections can successfully use monopolar electrosurgery?

A) 40%-50%
B) 60%-70%
C) 70%-80%
D) 80%-90%
A

C) 70%-80%

110
Q

How long should a typical trocar be in length for laparoscopic surgery?

A) 10 cm
B) 20 cm
C) 30 cm
D) 40 cm
A

B) 20 cm

111
Q

What is the likelihood of inadvertent visceral puncture with optical trocars in nondistended abdomens?

A) Low risk
B) Moderate risk
C) High risk
D) No risk
A

D) No risk

112
Q

How many different sizes and shapes of probes are available for bipolar electrosurgical devices?

A) 1-2 sizes
B) 3-5 sizes
C) 5-10 sizes
D) Numerous sizes
A

D) Numerous sizes

113
Q

What is the risk of hemorrhage obscuring the surgical field?

A) Rarely reported
B) Occasionally reported
C) Commonly reported
D) Never reported
A

B) Occasionally reported

114
Q

What is the preferred diameter for large cannulas used in laparoscopic surgery?

A) 8 mm
B) 10 mm
C) 11 mm
D) 12 mm
A

C) 11 mm

115
Q

What is the typical length of the blunt obturator used in accessing the abdomen?

A) 10 cm
B) 20 cm
C) 30 cm
D) 40 cm
A

B) 20 cm

116
Q

What temperature can lead to tissue vaporization?

A) 60°C
B) 70°C
C) 100°C
D) 120°C
A

C) 100°C

117
Q

What is the maximum risk of synovial sepsis after an elective arthroscopy?

A) 0.1%
B) 0.5%
C) 1%
D) 1.5%
A

B) 0.5%

118
Q

What type of tissue can burrs be used for in surgical procedures?

A) Soft tissues
B) Bone
C) Ligaments
D) Synovial fluid
A

B) Bone

119
Q

How much faster can motorized equipment reduce surgical time compared to hand-held instruments?

A) 10-20% faster
B) 25-50% faster
C) 50-75% faster
D) 75-90% faster
A

B) 25-50% faster

120
Q

What is the typical voltage maintained during monopolar electrosurgery?

A) 40-70 V
B) 70-90 V
C) 90-110 V
D) Variable
A

D) Variable

121
Q

What is the result of using 0.9% saline in the synovial cavity?

A) Permanent damage
B) Temporary effect
C) No effect
D) Increased inflammation
A

B) Temporary effect

122
Q

What is the typical diameter of dual-use blades provided by companies like Smith and Nephew?

A) 5 mm
B) 10 mm
C) Varies by use
D) 12 mm
A

C) Varies by use

123
Q

What is the effect of using thermal energy in tissues during electrosurgery?

A) Increases fluid absorption
B) Causes cell death
C) Enhances visibility
D) Reduces healing time
A

B) Causes cell death

124
Q

What is the range of power settings generally recommended for electrosurgical probes?

A) 20-30 W
B) 30-50 W
C) 40-90 W
D) 50-100 W
A

C) 40-90 W

125
Q

What temperature range is achieved with bipolar electrosurgery?

A) 40°C to 50°C
B) 50°C to 60°C
C) 60°C to 70°C
D) Above 100°C
A

A) 40°C to 50°C

126
Q
A

Figure 13-13. (A) Laparoscopic cannula. (B) 5-mm reducer cap.
(C) Reusable safety trocar.

127
Q
A

Figure 13-14. Visiport optical trocar. (A) Close-up view of the transparent lens at the end of the trocar. (B) Insertion technique of the Visiport trocar by introduction of the laparoscope in the handle. (Image courtesy Louis-Marie Desmaizieres.)

128
Q
A

Figure 13-15. Basic laparoscopic instrument set. (A) Semm claw forceps. (B) Knot pusher. (C) Babcock forceps. (D) Injection needle. (E) Needle holders. (F) Scissors.

129
Q
A

Figure 13-16. Laparoscopic Babcock forceps used as a knot pusher.

130
Q
A

Figure 13-16. Laparoscopic Babcock forceps used as a knot pusher.

131
Q
A

Figure 13-17. LigaSure vessel-sealing device. (A) LigaSure handpiece. (B) Close-up view of the instrument tip. (C) Laparoscopic view of the LigaSure being applied to the spermatic cord of an abdominal cryptorchid for hemostasis and transection.

132
Q
A

Figure 13-18. Close-up view of a 4-S modified Roeder slipknot.
VetBooks

133
Q

What is the most common diameter of instruments used for equine laparoscopy/thoracoscopy?

A) 5 mm
B) 10 mm
C) 12 mm
D) 15 mm
A

B) 10 mm

134
Q

What is the standard working length for most laparoscopic instruments mentioned?

A) 30 cm
B) 37.5 cm
C) 45 cm
D) 57 cm
A

C) 45 cm

135
Q

What is the outer diameter of the EndoStitch instrument?

A) 5 mm
B) 10 mm
C) 12 mm
D) 15 mm
A

B) 10 mm

136
Q

How long is the working length of the EndoStitch instrument?

A) 30 cm
B) 37.5 cm
C) 45 cm
D) 50 cm
A

B) 37.5 cm

137
Q

What is the maximum vessel diameter that vessel-sealing devices can permanently fuse?

A) 5 mm
B) 6 mm
C) 7 mm
D) 8 mm
A

C) 7 mm

138
Q

How much time does it take for vessel-sealing devices to create a seal?

A) 1-2 seconds
B) 2-4 seconds
C) 5-10 seconds
D) 10-15 seconds
A

B) 2-4 seconds

139
Q

What percentage of normal systolic blood pressure can vessel seals withstand?

A) 100%
B) 200%
C) 300%
D) 400%
A

C) 300%

140
Q

What is the typical number of staples fired by common endostaplers?

A) 2-4
B) 4-6
C) 6-8
D) 8-10
A

B) 4-6

141
Q

What is the diameter of the Endo Universal stapler used for titanium staples?

A) 5 mm
B) 10 mm
C) 12 mm
D) 15 mm
A

C) 12 mm

142
Q

What is the length of the tack provided by the AbsorbaTack fixation device?

A) 3.5 mm
B) 4.1 mm
C) 4.8 mm
D) 5.0 mm
A

B) 4.1 mm

143
Q

How much longer is the tack length of the AbsorbaTack compared to the Protack fixation device?

A) 0.3 mm
B) 0.5 mm
C) 1.0 mm
D) 1.5 mm
A

A) 0.3 mm

144
Q

What is the maximum working length of laparoscopic needle holders designed for right-handed surgeons?

A) 30 cm
B) 35 cm
C) 45 cm
D) 50 cm
A

D) 50 cm

145
Q

What is the outer diameter of the laparoscopic Kelly grasping forceps recommended for use with the nondominant hand?

A) 5 mm
B) 10 mm
C) 11 mm
D) 12 mm
A

A) 5 mm

146
Q

What is the recommended number of hours of training required for efficient laparoscopic suturing and knot-tying?

A) 5 hours
B) 10 hours
C) 20 hours
D) Multiple hours
A

D) Multiple hours

147
Q

What type of forceps can serve as both a grasping and knot-pushing device?

A) Semm claw forceps
B) Babcock forceps
C) Biopsy forceps
D) Needle holders
A

B) Babcock forceps

148
Q

What is the breaking strength of the 4S-modified Roeder slipknot when applied as laparoscopic ligatures?

A) High
B) Moderate
C) Low
D) Variable
A

A) High

149
Q

What is the recommended diameter for cannulas when using endostaplers?

A) 5 mm
B) 10 mm
C) 12 mm
D) 15 mm
A

C) 12 mm

150
Q

What is the maximum number of tacks that can be deployed by the Protack fixation device?

A) 20
B) 25
C) 30
D) 35
A

C) 30

151
Q

What is the maximum diameter of tissue bundles that can be fused by vessel-sealing devices?

A) 5 mm
B) 7 mm
C) 10 mm
D) 12 mm
A

B) 7 mm

152
Q

What is the length of the shaft for a taper point needle typically used with USP 0 V-Loc 180 sutures?

A) 50 mm
B) 60 mm
C) 65 mm
D) 70 mm
A

C) 65 mm

153
Q

What percentage of sutures is recommended to avoid sterilization due to the weakening effect of the process?

A) 50%
B) 60%
C) 70%
D) None
A

D) None

154
Q

What is the typical outer diameter of staplers used for tacking devices?

A) 5 mm
B) 10 mm
C) 12 mm
D) 15 mm
A

B) 10 mm

155
Q

What is the working length of laparoscopic instruments that are designed for delicate manipulation?

A) 30 cm
B) 45 cm
C) 60 cm
D) 75 cm
A

B) 45 cm

156
Q

How many different types of laparoscopic suturing and knot-tying devices are mentioned?

A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) More than 3
A

D) More than 3

157
Q

What is the standard suture size for the barbed suture V-Loc mentioned?

A) USP 0
B) USP 1
C) USP 2
D) USP 3
A

A) USP 0

158
Q

What is the typical cost comparison for laparoscopic staplers versus traditional suturing?

A) Lower cost
B) Comparable cost
C) Higher cost
D) Varies significantly
A

C) Higher cost

159
Q

What is the maximum pressure that vessel seals can withstand compared to normal systolic blood pressure?

A) Twice
B) Three times
C) Four times
D) Five times
A

B) Three times

160
Q

How many types of suturing devices are specifically noted for use in equine laparoscopic procedures?

A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) Numerous
A

D) Numerous

161
Q

What is the angle of the Endo Universal stapler when applying staples?

A) 15 degrees
B) 30 degrees
C) 45 degrees
D) 60 degrees
A

B) 30 degrees

162
Q

What percentage of surgeons prefer laparoscopic needle holders with jaws curved for their dominant hand?

A) 50%
B) 75%
C) 80%
D) 90%
A

D) 90%

163
Q

How many different types of staplers are used in equine laparoscopy?

A) One
B) Two
C) Three
D) Four
A

B) Two
1) Tacking devices anchor a mesh or a peritoneal flap at a desired location.They can be used alone or in combination with intracorporeal sutures and/or glue.
2) Endostaplers used for achieving gastrointestinal anastomoses in human surgery are useful tools for hemostasis of a large pedicle; however, vessel-sealing devices have replaced them in the laparoscopic instrument set

164
Q

What is the maximum number of vessels that can be sealed simultaneously using vessel-sealing devices?

A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) Multiple
A

D) Multiple

165
Q

What is the percentage of time saved using tacking devices compared to traditional suturing techniques?

A) 10%
B) 20%
C) 30%
D) 40%
A

C) 30%

166
Q

What is the most significant disadvantage of using pretied ligature loops in surgery?

A) High cost
B) Weakness after sterilization
C) Insufficient working length
D) Small loop size
A

B) Weakness after sterilization

167
Q

What is the recommended suture material for creating ligatures?

A) PDS-II
B) Polyglyconate
C) Both A and B
D) None of the above
A

C) Both A and B

168
Q

What is the key advantage of using barbed suture V-Loc?

A) Reduces tissue trauma
B) Eliminates the need for knot tying
C) Provides a strong anchoring force
D) All of the above
A

D) All of the above

169
Q

What is the effect of using 5-mm diameter instruments compared to 10-mm ones?

A) More expensive
B) Less robust
C) Less expensive
D) More complex
A

C) Less expensive

170
Q

What is the surgical advantage of using LigaSure and SurgRx EnSeal devices?

A) Faster procedure time
B) Enhanced safety
C) Improved outcomes
D) All of the above
A

D) All of the above

171
Q

What is the typical outer diameter of flexible endoscopes used in equine procedures?

A) 5-7 mm
B) 8-10 mm
C) 11-12 mm
D) 13-15 mm
A

B) 8-10 mm

172
Q

What is the working length range for flexible endoscopes mentioned?

A) 80-90 cm
B) 90-100 cm
C) 100-110 cm
D) 110-120 cm
A

C) 100-110 cm

173
Q

How long should horses be fasted before laparoscopic surgery?

A) 12-24 hours
B) 24-36 hours
C) 36-48 hours
D) 48-72 hours
A

B) 24-36 hours

174
Q

What is the average time for general anesthesia recovery for horses post-laparoscopy?

A) 30 minutes
B) 1 hour
C) 2 hours
D) 3 hours
A

C) 2 hours

175
Q

What is the maximum length of time recommended for horses to be in the Trendelenburg position?

A) 5 minutes
B) 10 minutes
C) 15 minutes
D) 20 minutes
A

A) 5 minutes

176
Q

What percentage of surgical procedures performed on horses should avoid hand-assisted techniques?

A) 25%
B) 50%
C) 75%
D) 100%
A

D) 100%

177
Q

What is the diameter of the trocar used in transvaginal NOTES?

A) 25 mm
B) 30 mm
C) 33 mm
D) 36 mm
A

C) 33 mm

178
Q

What is the typical external diameter of endoscopic instruments used for lumbosacral epiduroscopy?

A) 3.0 mm
B) 3.5 mm
C) 3.8 mm
D) 4.0 mm
A

C) 3.8 mm

179
Q

What is the working length sufficient to reach the thoracolumbar junction in smaller horses?

A) 40 cm
B) 50 cm
C) 60 cm
D) 70 cm
A

C) 60 cm

180
Q

What is the maximum working length of the flexible endoscope for cervical vertebral canal endoscopy?

A) 100 cm
B) 110 cm
C) 120 cm
D) 130 cm
A

B) 110 cm

181
Q

What percentage of human laparoscopic surgeries reported deaths due to morcellating device complications?

A) 1%
B) 2%
C) 3%
D) 4%
A

C) 3%

182
Q

How much time should the mare be held off hay prior to surgery?

A) 1 day
B) 2 days
C) 3 days
D) 4 days
A

C) 3 days

183
Q

What is the typical weight of commercial endoscopic instruments unsuitable for equine use?

A) Light
B) Moderate
C) Heavy
D) Variable
A

C) Heavy

184
Q

What is the size of the incision made for laparoscopic access?

A) 1 cm
B) 1.5 cm
C) 2 cm
D) 2.5 cm
A

B) 1.5 cm

185
Q

What is the recommended distance from the last rib to the tuber coxae for portal placement?

A) 10 cm
B) 15 cm
C) 20 cm
D) 25 cm
A

B) 15 cm

186
Q

What is the typical duration of the Trendelenburg position’s effects on blood gas levels?

A) Short-term
B) Moderate
C) Long-term
D) Variable
A

B) Moderate

187
Q

What is the maximum number of incisions typically made during equine laparoscopic surgery?

A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) More than 3
A

D) More than 3

188
Q

What is the primary purpose of flexible endoscopes in equine surgery?

A) Biopsy only
B) Diagnostic and interventional
C) Monitoring
D) None of the above
A

B) Diagnostic and interventional

189
Q

What is the average diameter of the working channel in flexible endoscopes?

A) 1.5 mm
B) 2.0 mm
C) 2.5 mm
D) 2.8 mm
A

D) 2.8 mm

190
Q

What is the main disadvantage of commercial retrieval bags for equine specimens?

A) Too large
B) Too small
C) Expensive
D) Both B and C
A

D) Both B and C

191
Q

What is the risk associated with morcellating devices?

A) Faster surgery
B) Tissue trauma
C) Neoplastic cell spread
D) All of the above
A

C) Neoplastic cell spread

192
Q

How long does it typically take for gas insufflation in the equine abdomen via Verres needle?

A) 5 minutes
B) 10 minutes
C) 30 minutes
D) 60 minutes
A

D) 60 minutes

193
Q

What is the recommended surgical position for complicated thoracoscopic procedures?

A) Standing
B) Dorsal recumbency
C) Lateral recumbency
D) Ventral recumbency
A

B) Dorsal recumbency

194
Q

What is the risk percentage of iatrogenic injuries when using a sharp trocar?

A) 1-2%
B) 2-5%
C) 5-10%
D) 10-15%
A

B) 2-5%

195
Q

How many layers are closed for skin incisions larger than 10 mm?

A) 1 layer
B) 2 layers
C) 3 layers
D) 4 layers
A

B) 2 layers

196
Q

What is the length of laparoscopic instruments that are considered too short for equine NOTES?

A) 35 cm
B) 45 cm
C) 55 cm
D) 60 cm
A

D) 60 cm

197
Q

What is the maximum duration of surgery recommended to minimize the risk of complications in standing procedures?

A) 30 minutes
B) 1 hour
C) 2 hours
D) 3 hours
A

C) 2 hours

198
Q

What percentage of flexible endoscopes are equipped with a working channel?

A) 50%
B) 70%
C) 90%
D) 100%
A

D) 100%

199
Q

How long is the typical working length of instruments used in flexible endoscopy for mares?

A) 60 cm
B) 70 cm
C) 80 cm
D) 90 cm
A

A) 60 cm

200
Q

What is the average number of portals created for laparoscopic procedures?

A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
A

C) 3

201
Q

What is the diameter of the optical trocar recommended for controlled access?

A) 8 mm
B) 10 mm
C) 12 mm
D) 15 mm
A

B) 10 mm

202
Q

What is the maximum diameter for instruments used in cervical vertebral canal endoscopy?

A) 4 mm
B) 5 mm
C) 6 mm
D) 7 mm
A

B) 5 mm

203
Q

What is the expected decrease in mean arterial pressure when using the Trendelenburg position?

A) 5%
B) 10%
C) 15%
D) 20%
A

B) 10%

204
Q

What is the risk of complications associated with standing laparoscopic surgeries?

A) Low
B) Moderate
C) High
D) Variable
A

A) Low

205
Q

What is the common portal placement location for laparoscopic procedures?

A) Above the umbilicus
B) At the umbilicus
C) Below the umbilicus
D) None of the above
A

B) At the umbilicus

206
Q

How often should blood gas analysis be performed during general anesthesia in horses?

A) Every 15 minutes
B) Every 30 minutes
C) Every hour
D) As needed
A

D) As needed

207
Q

What is the maximum working length of instruments for interventional endoscopy in horses?

A) 100 cm
B) 110 cm
C) 120 cm
D) 130 cm
A

B) 110 cm

208
Q

What is the minimal fasting time for pelleted feed before surgery?

A) 12 hours
B) 24 hours
C) 36 hours
D) 48 hours
A

B) 24 hours

209
Q

What percentage of time is saved using morcellating devices compared to traditional methods?

A) 10%
B) 20%
C) 30%
D) 40%
A

C) 30%

210
Q

What is the common complication related to morcellating devices during laparoscopic procedures?

A) Hemorrhage
B) Infection
C) Neoplastic spread
D) Both A and C
A

D) Both A and C

211
Q
A

Figure 13-23. Fogarty catheter in closed (top) and expanded (bottom) positions.

212
Q
A

Figure 13-24. (A) A plate-passing device made from a broad DCP with a sharpened end and handle to facilitate formation of a subcutaneous tunnel.

213
Q
A

(B) The plate-passing device being contoured using a large plate-bending device. (C) The plate-passing device being introduced through a proximal incision. The device is used to create a subcutaneous tunnel on the dorsolateral surface of the third metatarsal bone.

214
Q

What is the typical diameter of a Fogarty graft thrombectomy catheter when expanded?

A) 12 mm
B) 16 mm
C) 20 mm
D) 32 mm
A

B) 16 mm

215
Q

What is the length of the Fogarty graft thrombectomy catheter?

A) 40 cm
B) 50 cm
C) 100 cm
D) 110 cm
A

B) 50 cm

216
Q

What is the dose of heparin administered intraoperatively per kg of body weight?

A) 50 IU
B) 100 IU
C) 150 IU
D) 200 IU
A

B) 100 IU

217
Q

What percentage of horses treated with minimally invasive thrombectomy regained athletic activity?

A) 50%
B) 53%
C) 60%
D) 65%
A

D) 65%

218
Q

In the context of embolization, what percentage of horses is at risk for general anesthesia?

A) 10%
B) 15%
C) 20%
D) 25%
A

B) 15%

219
Q

What percentage of horses experience postanesthetic myopathy after surgery?

A) 10%
B) 20%
C) 24%
D) 30%
A

C) 24%

220
Q

How long should postoperative anticoagulation therapy be continued?

A) 1 month
B) 2 months
C) 3 months
D) 6 months
A

C) 3 months

221
Q

What is the length of the Coda-compliant angioplasty balloon catheter?

A) 50 cm
B) 75 cm
C) 100 cm
D) 150 cm
A

C) 100 cm

222
Q

How much does sodium gluconate contribute to medical treatment in cases of thrombi?

A) 10%
B) 50%
C) 75%
D) 90%
A

D) 90%

223
Q

What is the minimum incision length for accessing the femoral artery in thrombectomy?

A) 5 cm
B) 7 cm
C) 10 cm
D) 15 cm
A

C) 10 cm

224
Q

What is the diameter of the Coda-compliant angioplasty balloon catheter when inflated?

A) 16 mm
B) 24 mm
C) 32 mm
D) 40 mm
A

C) 32 mm

225
Q

What is the size of the introducer used in catheter-directed embolization?

A) 16G
B) 18G
C) 20G
D) 22G
A

B) 18G

226
Q

What is the thickness of the embolization material’s coils used in horses?

A) 0.5 mm
B) 1 mm
C) 2 mm
D) 3 mm
A

A) 0.5 mm

227
Q

What percentage decrease in surgical site infections (SSI) is noted with MIPO techniques?

A) 10%
B) 20%
C) 30%
D) 40%
A

D) 40%

228
Q

What is the most common embolization material used in horses?

A) Stainless steel
B) Titanium
C) Dacron-coated coils
D) Nitinol
A

C) Dacron-coated coils

229
Q

What is the success rate of restoring blood supply via thrombectomy, as per recent studies?

A) 60%
B) 75%
C) 80%
D) 90%
A

A) 60%

230
Q

What percentage of horses may experience thromboembolism in the contralateral limb during thrombectomy?

A) 5%
B) 10%
C) 15%
D) 20%
A

B) 10%

231
Q

What is the common suturing material used to close the femoral artery?

A) USP 3-0
B) USP 4-0
C) USP 5-0
D) USP 6-0
A

B) USP 4-0

232
Q

What is the typical follow-up duration for monitoring postoperative recovery?

A) 2 weeks
B) 3 weeks
C) 4 weeks
D) 6 weeks
A

C) 4 weeks

233
Q

What proportion of cases requires additional femoral artery thrombectomy distal to the incision?

A) 20%
B) 30%
C) 40%
D) 50%
A

C) 40%

234
Q

What is the usual incision length for stab incisions in MIPO procedures?

A) 2-3 cm
B) 2-4 cm
C) 3-5 cm
D) 5-6 cm
A

B) 2-4 cm

235
Q

What percentage of patients may benefit from minimally invasive approaches for complex fractures?

A) 30%
B) 40%
C) 50%
D) 60%
A

B) 40%

236
Q

What is the time frame for initiating light exercise post-surgery?

A) 1 week
B) 2 weeks
C) 3 weeks
D) 4 weeks
A

B) 2 weeks

237
Q

What is the typical expanded diameter of the balloon catheter used for thrombectomy?

A) 16 mm
B) 20 mm
C) 32 mm
D) 40 mm
A

C) 32 mm

238
Q

How often should intraoperative blood flow be tested during a thrombectomy?

A) After every clamp
B) After every 10 minutes
C) After arteriotomy
D) After removing the thrombus
A

C) After arteriotomy

239
Q

What percentage reduction in soft tissue damage is associated with MIPO techniques?

A) 20%
B) 30%
C) 40%
D) 50%
A

B) 30%

240
Q

What is the frequency of utilizing fluoroscopic guidance in embolization procedures?

A) 50%
B) 75%
C) 90%
D) 100%
A

C) 90%

241
Q

What is the approximate size of the incision for accessing the femoral artery in a thrombectomy?

A) 8 cm
B) 10 cm
C) 12 cm
D) 15 cm
A

B) 10 cm

242
Q

What is the potential risk of complications in minimally invasive procedures according to the text?

A) 5-10%
B) 10-20%
C) 20-30%
D) 30-40%
A

B) 10-20%

243
Q

How many IU of low-molecular-weight heparin are administered?

A) 30 IU/kg
B) 40 IU/kg
C) 50 IU/kg
D) 60 IU/kg
A

C) 50 IU/kg

244
Q

What is the ideal use for intraoperative imaging during MIPO?

A) Confirming anesthesia
B) Facilitating implant placement
C) Monitoring vital signs
D) Assessing blood loss
A

B) Facilitating implant placement

245
Q

What is the recommended maximum length of a standard dynamic compression plate (DCP) used in MIPO?

A) 10 cm
B) 20 cm
C) 30 cm
D) 40 cm
A

C) 30 cm

246
Q

What is the duration for which hand-walking is advised immediately after surgery?

A) 1 hour
B) 1 day
C) 3 days
D) 1 week
A

A) 1 hour

247
Q

What is the targeted percentage for success in restoring limb function post-thrombectomy?

A) 50%
B) 60%
C) 70%
D) 80%
A

B) 60%

248
Q

What percentage of equine patients showed improved outcomes after MIPO techniques?

A) 40%
B) 50%
C) 60%
D) 70%
A

C) 60%

249
Q

What is the anticipated risk of re-thrombosis in equine patients after initial treatment?

A) 5%
B) 15%
C) 25%
D) 35%
A

C) 25%

250
Q

What is the proportion of success in retaining previous athletic levels post-surgery?

A) 30%
B) 50%
C) 53%
D) 70%
A

C) 53%

251
Q

What is the common follow-up imaging method for assessing fracture repairs?

A) X-ray
B) MRI
C) Ultrasound
D) CT
A

D) CT

252
Q

What percentage of equine fractures could be repaired using MIPO techniques?

A) 20%
B) 30%
C) 50%
D) 70%
A

D) 70%

253
Q

What is the range of screw length used in MIPO procedures?

A) 3-5 cm
B) 5-7 cm
C) 7-10 cm
D) 10-12 cm
A

B) 5-7 cm

254
Q

MIPO is well suited for repair of:
A) femur
B) tibia
C) phalanx
D) lateral and medial condylar fractures

A

MIPO is well suited for repair of lateral and medial condylar fractures that require screws inserted in lag fashion or plate fixation.

255
Q

What type of fractures is MIPO primarily well-suited for?

A) Long bone fractures
B) Lateral and medial condylar fractures
C) Comminuted fractures in foals
D) Simple fractures
A

B) Lateral and medial condylar fractures

256
Q

Which joints can be arthrodesed using a minimally invasive approach?

A) Proximal interphalangeal joint only
B) Metacarpophalangeal joint only
C) Both proximal interphalangeal and metacarpo-/metatarsophalangeal joints
D) None of the above
A

C) Both proximal interphalangeal and metacarpo-/metatarsophalangeal joints

257
Q

In which condition is minimally invasive arthrodesis particularly indicated?

A) Mild joint instability
B) Severe osteoarthritis with significant loss of articular cartilage
C) Intact articular cartilage
D) Normal suspensory apparatus
A

B) Severe osteoarthritis with significant loss of articular cartilage

258
Q

What is the diameter of the drill bit used for partial cartilage débridement?

A) 4.0 mm
B) 5.0 mm
C) 5.5 mm
D) 6.0 mm
A

C) 5.5 mm

259
Q

What advantage does MIPO provide in terms of joint stability?

A) Increased joint instability due to incision size
B) Decreased postoperative joint instability due to preservation of collateral ligaments
C) No effect on joint stability
D) Complete stabilization of all joints
A

B) Decreased postoperative joint instability due to preservation of collateral ligaments

260
Q

Why is arthroscopic débridement in the proximal interphalangeal joint considered to be of limited value?

A) It causes significant soft tissue damage
B) The joint is too small for arthroscopic techniques
C) The surgeon's access is limited and ineffective
D) It is not applicable for any joint surgeries
A

C) The surgeon’s access is limited and ineffective

261
Q

How does MIPO for long bone fractures compare to its use in condylar fractures?

A) MIPO is equally effective for both
B) MIPO has limited clinical use for long bone fractures
C) MIPO is more commonly used for long bone fractures
D) MIPO is not used for any fractures
A

B) MIPO has limited clinical use for long bone fractures

262
Q

Which type of fracture is more feasible for minimally invasive approaches in foals?

A) Simple fractures
B) Long bone fractures
C) Comminuted metacarpal III fractures
D) Condylar fractures
A

C) Comminuted metacarpal III fractures

263
Q
A

Figure 13-26. Equipment used for navigation. (A) Arcadis Orbic 3D C-arm. (B) The corresponding computer with monitor. (C) The VetGATE computer system with monitor (ARTORG Center for Biomedical Engineering Research, University of Bern, Bern, Switzerland). (D) The two-eyed navigation camera (Polaris Spectra) on which the preoperative planning is performed and subsequent surgical guidance is viewed.