Chapter 10 - Preparation for surgery Flashcards

1
Q

When were modern principles of surgery established?

A) Mid-1700s
B) Mid-1800s
C) Early 1900s
D) Late 1900s
A

B) Mid-1800s

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2
Q

Which factor is most critical in preventing surgical morbidities?

A) Use of antibiotics
B) Surgical team coordination
C) Proper technique and sound judgment of the surgeon
D) Advanced surgical tools
A

Answer: C) Proper technique and sound judgment of the surgeon

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3
Q

What percentage of surgical events are related to decision-making?

A) 50%
B) 75%
C) 25%
D) 90%
A

B) 75%

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4
Q

Which is considered more critical in surgery, deciding to operate or deciding not to operate?

A) Deciding to operate
B) Deciding not to operate
C) Both are equally important
D) It depends on the situation
A

B) Deciding not to operate

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5
Q

Which aspect of surgery contributes to optimal outcomes?

A) Surgeon’s technical skills
B) Use of the latest equipment
C) A multidisciplinary and multimodal approach
D) Strict adherence to surgery schedules
A

C) A multidisciplinary and multimodal approach

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6
Q

Which of the following is NOT part of the operative risk assessment?

A) Patient’s inherent capacity to overcome the surgical injury
B) Technical feasibility of the procedure
C) Cost of the surgery
D) The team’s familiarity with the procedure
A

C) Cost of the surgery

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7
Q

Which patient-related factor is critical for assessing surgical risk?

A) Time of day of the surgery
B) Patient’s ability to overcome surgical injury
C) Surgeon’s specialization
D) Type of anesthesia used
A

B) Patient’s ability to overcome surgical injury

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8
Q

In which type of situation is postponing urgent surgical interventions advisable?

A) When equipment is unavailable
B) To allow time for planning and patient preparation
C) When the surgical team is not available
D) To avoid night surgeries
A

B) To allow time for planning and patient preparation

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9
Q

What increases the chance of complications in surgeries?

A) Shorter procedures
B) Emergency surgeries performed at night
C) Use of robotic techniques
D) Surgeries with minimal invasiveness
A

B) Emergency surgeries performed at night

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10
Q

Which surgical prediction models are available for human surgeons?

A) POSSUM and MODS
B) ASA and SMOOS
C) RiskPrediction.org and RiskCalculator.facs.org
D) ASA and POSSUM
A

C) RiskPrediction.org and RiskCalculator.facs.org

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11
Q

Why is clinical judgment important in surgery?

A) It can reduce the cost of surgery
B) It enhances the efficiency of the surgical protocol
C) It identifies patients with poor prognosis
D) It eliminates the need for prediction models
A

C) It identifies patients with poor prognosis

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12
Q

Which type of primary disease is associated with a higher surgical risk?

A) Slowly progressing diseases
B) Diseases involving non-vital body systems
C) Diseases affecting multiple body systems rapidly
D) Diseases with minimal symptoms
A

C) Diseases affecting multiple body systems rapidly

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13
Q

Why are neonatal animals at higher risk during anesthesia?

A) They are immunocompetent
B) They have compensatory mechanisms
C) They lack energy stores and compensatory mechanisms
D) Their organs are fully developed
A

C) They lack energy stores and compensatory mechanisms

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14
Q

Which animals are at higher risk of developing postoperative rhabdomyolysis?

A) Small animals
B) Obese animals
C) Large and heavy animals
D) Neonatal animals
A

C) Large and heavy animals

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15
Q

Which classification system is used to assess the physical status of patients?

A) POSSUM
B) MODS
C) ASA
D) SMOOS
A

C) ASA

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16
Q

What is the reported mortality rate for animals classified as ASA-2 to ASA-5?

A) 0.3%
B) 1.2%
C) 3.0%
D) 5.6%
A
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17
Q

What does the MODS system assess?

A) Anesthesia risks
B) Multiple organ dysfunction syndrome
C) Preoperative nutrition status
D) Recovery time
A

B) Multiple organ dysfunction syndrome

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18
Q

What is POSSUM used for in human surgery?

A) Predicting anesthesia risks
B) Estimating the duration of surgery
C) Assessing physiological and operative severity
D) Evaluating nutritional status
A

C) Assessing physiological and operative severity

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19
Q

What percentage of surgical complications are caused by technical provider-related errors?

A) 20-30%
B) 47-96%
C) 15-50%
D) 60-80%
A

B) 47-96%

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20
Q

What is the definition of physical status I? Prognosis?

A

Healthy with no organic disease. Excellent

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21
Q

What is the definition of physical status II? Prognosis?

A

Local disease with no systemic signs. Good

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22
Q

What is the definition of physical status III? Prognosis?

A

Disease causes moderate systemic signs that limit function. Fair

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23
Q

What is the definition of physical status IV? Prognosis?

A

Disease causes severe systemic signs and threatens life. Guarded

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24
Q

What is the definition of physical status V? Prognosis?

A

Moribund, not expected to live for more than 24 hours with or without surgery. Grave

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25
Q

What is the definition of physical status E? Prognosis?

A

The addition of “E” in any of the above classes denotes Emergency surgery: An emergency is defined as existing when delay in treatment of the patient would lead to a significant increase in the threat to life or body part. Variable.

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26
Q

What are the recommended Laboratory tests MINOR in physical status I and II?

A

PCV, TP, urine specific gravity

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27
Q

What are the recommended Laboratory tests MAJOR in physical status I and II?

A

CBC, U/A, surgical panel

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28
Q

What are the recommended Laboratory tests MINOR in physical status III, IV and V?

A

CBC, U/A, biochemical panel

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29
Q

what are the physiologic parameters to take into account in the P-POSSUM scoring system in humans? They are 6 name them

A

Hemoglobin
WBC
Urea
Sodium
Potassium
Glasgow Coma Scale

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30
Q

What percentage of deaths in small intestinal colic cases were due to judgment errors?

A) 64%
B) 25%
C) 45%
D) 10%
A

A) 64%

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31
Q

Which of the following has been linked to better surgical outcomes?

A) Specialization and training of the surgical team
B) Use of robotic surgery
C) Shorter surgeries
D) Nighttime surgeries
A

A) Specialization and training of the surgical team

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32
Q

What is the main cause of technical errors in routine surgeries?

A) Lack of equipment
B) Patient’s unusual anatomy or complicating factors
C) Use of advanced procedures
D) Fatigue of the surgical team
A

B) Patient’s unusual anatomy or complicating factors

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33
Q

Which factor is less likely to cause technical errors in surgery?

A) Advanced procedures requiring special training
B) Routine surgeries
C) Repeat surgeries
D) Equipment problems
A

A) Advanced procedures requiring special training

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34
Q

What is critical to reduce errors in routine surgeries?

A) Implementing advanced technology
B) Improving decision-making and team performance
C) Shortening the procedure time
D) Increasing the number of team members
A

B) Improving decision-making and team performance

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35
Q

Which condition in horses is linked to higher mortality rates when classified under ASA?

A) Colic
B) Laminitis
C) Fractures
D) Respiratory issues
A

A) Colic

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36
Q
A
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37
Q

What increases the chances of perioperative fatalities in horses?

A) Low ASA classification
B) High ASA classification
C) Routine surgeries
D) Daytime surgeries
A

B) High ASA classification

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38
Q

How much more likely is mortality in colic patients compared to healthy ASA-I animals?

A) 2 times
B) 10 times
C) 12 times
D) 20 times
A

C) 12 times

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39
Q

hich is a primary determinant of surgical risk in animals?

A) Nutritional status
B) Time of surgery
C) Size of the surgical team
D) Type of anesthesia
A

A) Nutritional status

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40
Q

Which type of surgery tends to have more complications due to lack of specialized training?

A) Routine procedures
B) Advanced procedures
C) Emergency surgeries
D) Minimally invasive surgeries
A

B) Advanced procedures

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41
Q

What factor is a key consideration for reducing routine surgical errors?

A) Strict adherence to protocols
B) Continuous surgeon education
C) More advanced surgical tools
D) Increased postoperative care
A

B) Continuous surgeon education

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42
Q

How are better surgical outcomes related to the number of surgeries performed?

A) More surgeries lead to worse outcomes
B) Higher volume of procedures by specialized surgeons leads to better outcomes
C) Less frequent surgeries are safer
D) There is no correlation between volume and outcomes
A

B) Higher volume of procedures by specialized surgeons leads to better outcomes

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43
Q

What was the mortality rate associated with healthy ASA-I class horses?

A) 0.1%
B) 0.3%
C) 1.0%
D) 3.6%
A

B) 0.3%

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44
Q

What kind of animals are predisposed to post-surgical infection due to malnutrition?

A) Large animals
B) Neonatal animals
C) Cachectic animals
D) Healthy animals
A

C) Cachectic animals

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45
Q

Which animals are at risk for hyperlipemia after surgery?

A) Donkeys and obese animals
B) Large and healthy animals
C) Elderly animals
D) Small animals only
A

A) Donkeys and obese animals

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46
Q

What type of error contributes to most deaths in small intestinal colic cases?

A) Equipment failure
B) Technical and judgment errors
C) Delayed diagnosis
D) Lack of anesthesia
A

B) Technical and judgment errors

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47
Q

Which of the following decreases postoperative recovery smoothness in horses?

A) Good cardiovascular condition
B) Hypotension during surgery
C) Stable nutritional status
D) Fast surgery completion
A

B) Hypotension during surgery

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48
Q

How is the POSSUM system used in human surgery?

A) It evaluates anesthesia protocols
B) It calculates recovery time
C) It assesses the severity of physiological and operative conditions
D) It monitors postoperative care
A

C) It assesses the severity of physiological and operative conditions

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49
Q

Which surgical complication is more frequent in larger animals?

A) Postoperative herniation
B) Hypoglycemia
C) Hemorrhage
D) Reduced wound healing
A

A) Postoperative herniation

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50
Q

What outcome is associated with hospitals that perform a high volume of specialized surgeries?

A) Increased complications
B) Better surgical outcomes
C) Longer recovery times
D) Fewer training opportunities
A

B) Better surgical outcomes

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51
Q

What is the primary purpose of using a surgical safety checklist, as advocated by the WHO?

A) To reduce surgical duration
B) To increase patient anesthesia time
C) To decrease errors and enhance teamwork and communication 
D) To minimize costs in surgeries
A

C) To decrease errors and enhance teamwork and communication

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52
Q

What percentage reduction in surgical morbidity and mortality has been shown with checklist implementation in human studies?

A) 10%-20%
B) 25%-40%
C) 43%-62%
D) 70%-80%
A

C) 43%-62%

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53
Q

In which field has the use of surgical checklists recently been introduced?

A) Large animal veterinary surgery
B) Small animal veterinary surgery
C) Equine surgery
D) Livestock management
A

B) Small animal veterinary surgery

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54
Q

What potential error in equine surgery could a checklist help prevent?

A) Incorrect diagnosis
B) Incorrect anesthesia dosage
C) Operating on the wrong horse or limb 
D) Overuse of surgical instruments
A

C) Operating on the wrong horse or limb

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55
Q

What key benefit does a surgical checklist provide to the team?

A) It reduces the need for surgical equipment
B) It encourages communication and shared responsibility 
C) It decreases the time required for the surgery
D) It increases the number of personnel involved
A

B) It encourages communication and shared responsibility

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56
Q

What is the primary risk factor for increased morbidity and mortality in surgeries?

A) Type of anesthesia used
B) Surgical technique
C) Duration of the procedure 
D) Size of the animal
A

C) Duration of the procedure

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57
Q

How much does SSI risk increase with each minute of prolonged surgical time in small animals?

A) 0.5%
B) 1%
C) 2% 
D) 5%
A

C) 2%

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58
Q

What condition in equine surgery is associated with long surgical duration?

A) Tachycardia
B) Bradycardia
C) Hypertension
D) Hyperthermia
A

B) Bradycardia

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59
Q

What is an appropriate patient preparation time for equine surgery?

A) 10 minutes
B) 30 minutes
C) 60 minutes
D) 90 minutes
A

B) 30 minutes

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60
Q

What is a key element in establishing a bond between a veterinarian and a client during surgery discussions?

A) Quick diagnosis
B) Informed consent 
C) Surgical speed
D) Prescription of medication
A

B) Informed consent

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61
Q

Which of the following is NOT a factor that can reduce anesthesia time in equine surgery?

A) Surgeon experience
B) Poor equipment preparation
C) Efficient team coordination
D) Procedure planning
A

B) Poor equipment preparation

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62
Q

Why is informed consent important for veterinarians in the event of litigation?

A) It protects against malpractice claims
B) It protects against complaints about the outcome
C) It shows effort toward client understanding
D) It is a legal requirement in all cases
A

C) It shows effort toward client understanding

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63
Q

Which of the following is NOT a principle of informed consent?

A) It should be true and objective
B) It should be limited to what the client can understand
C) It should exaggerate the procedure's benefits 
D) It should include financial implications
A

C) It should exaggerate the procedure’s benefits

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64
Q

What is the veterinarian’s role in the decision to proceed with surgery?

A) Sole decision-maker
B) Legal representative of the animal
C) Advisory role
D) Lead in legal paperwork
A

C) Advisory role

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65
Q

What aspect of the veterinarian-client relationship is crucial for client satisfaction?

A) Short procedure time
B) An aligned message between veterinarians
C) Frequent follow-ups
D) Complete delegation of responsibility
A

B) An aligned message between veterinarians

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66
Q

Why is collaboration with other experts, like anesthesia staff, crucial in equine surgery?

A) To reduce costs
B) To improve patient safety and outcomes 
C) To increase recovery time
D) To minimize surgical complications
A

B) To improve patient safety and outcomes

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67
Q

What is the first step in evaluating a surgical patient?

A) Laboratory testing
B) History taking
C) Physical examination
D) Imaging studies
A

B) History taking

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68
Q

Why is it important to discuss the owner’s expectations for the animal during preoperative evaluation?

A) To assess their ability to pay for the procedure
B) To determine the best anesthesia type
C) To align the surgery with the intended use of the animal 
D) To ensure post-surgery satisfaction
A

C) To align the surgery with the intended use of the animal

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69
Q

Why is it important to obtain a tetanus vaccination history before surgery in horses?

A) To avoid anesthesia complications
B) To prevent tetanus infection post-surgery 
C) To ensure better recovery
D) To reduce the risk of SSI
A

B) To prevent tetanus infection post-surgery

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70
Q

What risk factor increases the likelihood of SSI in horses with pituitary pars intermedia dysfunction (PPID)?

A) Delayed wound healing 
B) Increased susceptibility to anesthesia
C) Poor blood circulation
D) Faster recovery times
A

A) Delayed wound healing

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71
Q

What did Koch, Lister, and Halstead contribute to the field of surgery?

A) New surgical techniques
B) Principles of antisepsis and asepsis 
C) Modern anesthesia methods
D) Minimally invasive surgery
A

B) Principles of antisepsis and asepsis

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72
Q

What is one of the most effective and simple methods to prevent SSI?

A) Use of alcohol-based rubs for hand hygiene
B) Preoperative shaving of the surgical site
C) Extended antibiotic use
D) Prolonged patient sedation
A

A) Use of alcohol-based rubs for hand hygiene

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73
Q

What is the recommended time for surgeon hand preparation before surgery?

A) 30 seconds
B) 1 minute
C) 2 minutes
D) 5 minutes
A

C) 2 minutes

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74
Q

What is the relative risk increase for developing SSI when basic aseptic principles are not followed?

A) 1.5 times
B) 2.5 times
C) 3.54 times 
D) 4.5 times
A

C) 3.54 times

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75
Q

What is a common compliance issue among human and veterinary surgeons regarding preoperative hygiene?

A) Inadequate use of antibiotics
B) Inconsistent hand hygiene practices
C) Excessive use of surgical gloves
D) Prolonged patient anesthesia
A

B) Inconsistent hand hygiene practices

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76
Q

What is a key feature of an equine surgical facility to reduce morbidity and mortality?

A) Spacious recovery rooms
B) A designated operating facility with dirty-to-clean workflow 
C) A temperature-controlled environment
D) Limited access to anesthesia equipment
A

B) A designated operating facility with dirty-to-clean workflow

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77
Q

Which of the following is essential to performing equine surgery?

A) Lightweight surgical instruments
B) Expensive diagnostic imaging
C) Substantial investment in equipment and trained personnel 
D) Advanced robotic assistance
A

C) Substantial investment in equipment and trained personnel

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78
Q

Which of the following increases the risk of SSI development in surgery?

A) Full compliance with guidelines
B) Basic non-compliance with aseptic principles
C) Prolonged hand hygiene procedures
D) Delayed patient discharge
A

B) Basic non-compliance with aseptic principles

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79
Q

What is the estimated SSI rate in human healthcare with full compliance to guidelines for clean surgeries?

A) 0.5% 
B) 1.5%
C) 2%
D) 5%
A

A) 0.5%

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80
Q

What is the largest contributor to SSI risk in surgical environments?

A) Poor facility design
B) Lack of advanced equipment
C) Human non-compliance with aseptic techniques
D) Long anesthesia times
A

C) Human non-compliance with aseptic techniques

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81
Q

What is a major contributor to the development of SSIs in horses with cardiovascular shock?

A) Delayed surgery times
B) Distant site infections
C) Poor blood circulation
D) Low anesthesia tolerance
A

B) Distant site infections

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82
Q

What should be done if a remote infection is present in a horse before elective surgery?

A) Administer antibiotics during surgery
B) Perform the surgery immediately
C) Postpone the surgery
D) Perform minimally invasive surgery
A

C) Postpone the surgery

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83
Q

What is the risk associated with a 1.5-times increase in creatinine from baseline values post-surgery?

A) Increased risk of SSI
B) Risk of post-surgical bleeding
C) Risk for acute kidney injury
D) Risk of heart failure
A

C) Risk for acute kidney injury

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84
Q

What infection-prevention measure did Pasteur advocate for in surgery?

A) Use of antibiotics
B) Avoiding bacteria introduction into wounds
C) Preoperative blood tests
D) Delayed surgical interventions
A

B) Avoiding bacteria introduction into wounds

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85
Q

What is the recommended approach when an animal has anemia before elective surgery?

A) Administer anesthesia immediately
B) Proceed with surgery without delay
C) Correct the anemia before surgery
D) Perform surgery without anesthesia
A

C) Correct the anemia before surgery

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86
Q

What is the main cause of litigation in veterinary surgeries?

A) Outcomes of the surgery
B) Established means and methods
C) Use of anesthesia
D) Informed consent documents
A

B) Established means and methods

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87
Q

Why should baseline inflammatory parameters be obtained before surgery?

A) To prevent anesthesia complications
B) To assess surgical impact and postoperative evolution 
C) To ensure rapid recovery
D) To increase surgical precision
A

B) To assess surgical impact and postoperative evolution

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88
Q

Which organization’s guidelines are considered high-evidence measures for preventing SSIs?

A) World Health Organization
B) Centers for Disease Control and Prevention 
C) Food and Drug Administration
D) National Institutes of Health
A

B) Centers for Disease Control and Prevention

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89
Q

What is the biggest challenge in infection control during surgery?

A) Use of advanced technology
B) Poor surgical technique
C) The difference between belief and actual practices
D) Limited time for hand hygiene
A

C) The difference between belief and actual practices

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90
Q

What percentage of human surgeons did NOT comply with recommended hygiene guidelines in preoperative practices?

A) 25%
B) 50%
C) 63% 
D) 80%
A

C) 63%

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91
Q

What is the ideal minimum number of surgical suites in a surgical facility?

A) One
B) Two 
C) Three
D) Four
A

B) Two

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92
Q

Why are closed sterile castrations performed in the “dirty” theater?

A) To increase patient safety
B) To reduce environmental pressure on the clean theater
C) To minimize risk of infection
D) To maximize efficiency
A

B) To reduce environmental pressure on the clean theater

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93
Q

What is the minimum recommended size for a surgical suite?

A) 40 m²
B) 50 m² 
C) 60 m²
D) 70 m²
A

B) 50 m²

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94
Q

What size is considered optimal for a surgical theater to allow safe movement of staff and equipment?

A) 8 m x 7 m
B) 9 m x 7 m
C) 10 m x 8 m
D) 12 m x 10 m
A

B) 9 m x 7 m

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95
Q

What equipment requires a larger surgical room due to its size?

A) MRI scanner
B) Cone beam mobile CT 
C) Ultrasound machine
D) Endoscopic equipment
A

B) Cone beam mobile CT

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96
Q

hat should the height of the hoist be to lift an adult Warmblood onto a surgery table?

A) 2 meters
B) 3 meters
C) 4 meters
D) 5 meters
A

C) 4 meters

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97
Q

Where should hoists NOT be installed in the surgical facility?

A) Induction room
B) Recovery room
C) Surgical theater
D) Preparation room
A

C) Surgical theater

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98
Q

Why are hoists not recommended inside the surgical theater?

A) They are expensive
B) They obstruct movement
C) They allow dust and contaminants to accumulate 
D) They are difficult to maintain
A

C) They allow dust and contaminants to accumulate

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99
Q

How high should the surgical suite ceilings be to minimize air volume and dirt accumulation?

A) High
B) Low
C) Medium
D) Very high
A

B) Low

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100
Q

What alternative to hoists is suggested for positioning limbs in arthroscopy procedures?

A) Electric hoists
B) Sailing ropes attached to the ceiling
C) Hydraulic systems
D) Manual lifting
A

B) Sailing ropes attached to the ceiling

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101
Q

What type of outlets should be installed in surgery rooms to prevent wetting during cleaning?

A) Ceiling-mounted outlets
B) Wall-mounted outlets
C) Floor-mounted outlets
D) Portable outlets
A

B) Wall-mounted outlets

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102
Q

Why should recessed cabinets be used in surgical theaters?

A) To increase space
B) To allow for easier cleaning
C) To improve aesthetics
D) To reduce noise
A

B) To allow for easier cleaning

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103
Q

What should the height of pulleys for fracture reduction devices be?

A) Waist height
B) Shoulder height
C) Ceiling height
D) Knee height
A

A) Waist height

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104
Q

What potential risk is associated with floor drains in surgical theaters?

A) They are difficult to clean
B) They can facilitate the formation of bacteria-containing aerosols 
C) They are expensive to install
D) They can cause flooding
A

B) They can facilitate the formation of bacteria-containing aerosols

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105
Q

Why is the patient preparation room separated from the operating room?

A) To improve workflow
B) To increase cleanliness 
C) To enhance comfort
D) To reduce noise
A

B) To increase cleanliness

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106
Q

What type of vacuum system is recommended for patient preparation rooms?

A) Portable vacuum systems
B) Built-in or central vacuum systems
C) Handheld vacuum cleaners
D) Filtered vacuum systems
A

B) Built-in or central vacuum systems

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107
Q

What is the benefit of having the vacuum motor outside the patient preparation room?

A) Reduces power consumption
B) Reduces air movement and particle dispersion 
C) Increases suction power
D) Minimizes noise
A

B) Reduces air movement and particle dispersion (Correct)

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108
Q

How should surgeon preparation be handled in a surgical facility?

A) In the surgery room
B) In a separate scrub room 
C) In the patient preparation area
D) In the recovery room
A

B) In a separate scrub room

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109
Q

What should the scrub room contain to facilitate proper hand hygiene?

A) Hand dryers
B) Posters demonstrating proper hand preparation
C) Soap dispensers
D) Sterile towels
A

B) Posters demonstrating proper hand preparation

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110
Q

Why are standing surgeries becoming more popular?

A) They are cheaper
B) They avoid general anesthesia 
C) They are faster
D) They are less risky
A

B) They avoid general anesthesia

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111
Q

Where should the standing surgery room ideally be located?

A) In the recovery area
B) Near the surgical suite
C) In the patient preparation room
D) Next to the scrub room
A

B) Near the surgical suite

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112
Q

What is a benefit of lightweight, moveable surgical stocks for standing surgeries?

A) Easier cleaning
B) Good head support 
C) Lower cost
D) Space-saving design
A

B) Good head support

113
Q

What is the optimal room temperature for surgical theaters?

A) 18°C to 20°C
B) 20°C to 24°C
C) 24°C to 26°C
D) 26°C to 28°C
A

B) 20°C to 24°C

114
Q

What is the purpose of maintaining low positive pressure in the operating room?

A) To reduce temperature fluctuations
B) To prevent entry of contaminated air 
C) To increase airflow
D) To enhance ventilation
A

B) To prevent entry of contaminated air

115
Q

What is the recommended number of air exchanges per hour in an operating room with recirculated air?

A) 10 exchanges
B) 15 exchanges
C) 25 exchanges
D) 30 exchanges
A

C) 25 exchanges

116
Q

ow many CFUs per cubic meter of air are recommended during a surgical procedure with 10 people present?

A) 10 CFU/m³
B) 50 CFU/m³
C) 100 CFU/m³ 
D) 500 CFU/m³
A

C) 100 CFU/m³

117
Q

What lighting intensity is required for surgical lights in the operating room?

A) 10,000 to 20,000 Lux
B) 40,000 to 160,000 Lux 
C) 100,000 to 200,000 Lux
D) 200,000 to 300,000 Lux
A

B) 40,000 to 160,000 Lux

118
Q

hy are LED lights preferred for surgical lighting?

A) They are cheaper
B) They do not generate heat
C) They provide better color contrast
D) They are easier to install
A

B) They do not generate heat

119
Q

What type of lighting is recommended in surgical rooms to improve monitor visibility?

A) Red light
B) Green light 
C) Blue light
D) White light
A

B) Green light

120
Q

What type of surgical attire is mandatory in restricted areas of the surgical facility?

A) Caps, boots, and gloves
B) Masks, caps, and boots
C) Gloves and boots only
D) Scrubs only
A

B) Masks, caps, and boots

121
Q

Where are hydroalcoholic rub dispenser-activated door locks recommended?

A) At the surgery room door
B) At the locker room door to the semirestricted area
C) In the induction room
D) In the recovery room
A

B) At the locker room door to the semirestricted area

122
Q

What is an advantage of having an infection preventionist involved in the surgical facility?

A) Ensures optimal equipment use
B) Helps develop effective infection-control programs
C) Reduces operating costs
D) Improves staff morale
A

B) Helps develop effective infection-control programs

123
Q

Why should walls in surgical theaters be seamless?

A) For better aesthetic appeal
B) To allow easy cleaning 
C) To improve soundproofing
D) To reduce construction costs
A

B) To allow easy cleaning

124
Q

What is a key factor in minimizing airborne microorganisms in an operating room?

A) Use of dehumidifiers
B) Maintaining proper airflow
C) Sterilizing all equipment
D) Installing additional doors
A

B) Maintaining proper airflow

125
Q

How should door openings in the surgical suite be handled to minimize contamination?

A) Leave them open
B) Keep them closed at all times 
C) Use curtains instead of doors
D) Allow traffic during surgeryca
A

B) Keep them closed at all times

126
Q

What is the primary reason for wearing dedicated operating room scrubs in equine surgery?

A) To keep the operating team comfortable
B) To prevent shedding of particulates and microorganisms
C) To follow hospital fashion
D) To increase team morale
A

B) To prevent shedding of particulates and microorganisms

127
Q

What should be worn by all individuals in the operating room to reduce contamination risk?

A) Gloves only
B) Scrub suits, caps, masks, and shoe covers
C) Scrub suits and shoes only
D) Scrub suits and gloves only
A

B) Scrub suits, caps, masks, and shoe covers

128
Q

What is recommended for abdominal interventions to prepare arms?

A) Long-sleeved shirts
B) Short-sleeved shirts
C) Non-sleeved shirts
D) Full jumpsuits
A

C) Non-sleeved shirts

129
Q

Why should scrub attire not be worn outside the surgery suite without being covered by a lab coat?

A) To keep the scrub suit clean
B) To prevent the spread of nosocomial infections
C) To avoid getting cold
D) To protect the suit from dirt
A

B) To prevent the spread of nosocomial infections

130
Q

How often should laboratory coats worn over scrub suits be laundered?

A) Once a week
B) Every day
C) Once every 10 days
D) Once a month
A

B) Every day

131
Q

Which of the following increases airborne particles in the operating room?

A) Wearing masks
B) Having fewer people present
C) Talking and activity
D) Ventilation
A

C) Talking and activity

132
Q

What is the primary benefit of wearing head covers in the operating room?

A) Keeping the head warm
B) Preventing bacterial outflow from the scalp
C) Enhancing team appearance
D) Reducing sweat
A

B) Preventing bacterial outflow from the scalp

133
Q

What is the purpose of using caps with incorporated sweatbands for surgeons?

A) To prevent hair from falling into the wound
B) To keep the surgeon cool
C) To avoid sweat droplets from contaminating the wound
D) To make the cap more comfortable
A

C) To avoid sweat droplets from contaminating the wound

134
Q

ow often should reusable head covers be washed if used?

A) After every procedure
B) Once every 5 procedures
C) Weekly
D) Only after visible contamination
A

A) After every procedure

135
Q

How long can reusable head covers be used before discarding?

A) 100 times
B) 75 times
C) 50 times
D) Indefinitely if cleaned properly
A

B) 75 times

136
Q

What is the main reason disposable masks are recommended over washable ones?

A) More comfortable
B) More efficient bacterial control
C) Easier to use
D) Reusable masks are expensive
A

B) More efficient bacterial control

137
Q

When should a face mask be replaced during a procedure?

A) Every 4 hours
B) Every 2 hours
C) At the end of the day
D) After visible contamination
A

B) Every 2 hours

138
Q

What can happen if a face mask is dangled from the chin during surgery?

A) It becomes more comfortable
B) It reduces bacterial shedding
C) It risks contamination of scrub clothing
D) It helps the surgeon breathe easier
A

C) It risks contamination of scrub clothing

139
Q

What is the suggested role of masks in reducing the spread of bacteria when talking?

A) Prevent respiratory droplets from spreading
B) Improve air ventilation
C) Create a barrier against particles
D) Stop bacteria from escaping the mask
A

A) Prevent respiratory droplets from spreading

140
Q

How much time should the effectiveness of masks be relied on during surgery?

A) No more than 4 hours
B) No more than 3 hours
C) No more than 2 hours
D) No more than 1 hour
A

C) No more than 2 hours

141
Q

In terms of reducing SSI, what is the impact of a mask’s ability to prevent staff from touching their faces?

A) Minor
B) Significant
C) No impact
D) Depends on the material
A

B) Significant

142
Q

What is a reason given for the ongoing debate about the necessity of wearing caps and masks?

A) Lack of strong evidence directly linking them to SSI reduction
B) Caps and masks are uncomfortable
C) They increase particle shedding
D) Cost of use
A

A) Lack of strong evidence directly linking them to SSI reduction

143
Q

Which type of mask is recommended for surgeries involving zoonotic risks?

A) Regular surgical masks
B) Splash-resistant masks
C) Cloth masks
D) Tie-on masks
A

B) Splash-resistant masks

144
Q

What does evidence suggest about nasal carriers of Staphylococcus aureus in the operating room?

A) They should wear double masks
B) They release bacteria primarily by sneezing
C) They release more bacteria through dust on their clothing
D) They pose no risk to surgical sites
A

C) They release more bacteria through dust on their clothing

145
Q

Which factor contributes to increased airborne bacteria in the operating room?

A) Number of people
B) Wearing masks
C) Minimal talking
D) High ventilation
A

A) Number of people

146
Q

What is the recommended practice if a mask causes fogging of glasses?

A) Avoid wearing glasses
B) Use masks designed to prevent fogging
C) Adjust the glasses frequently
D) Reuse the same mask multiple times
A

B) Use masks designed to prevent fogging

147
Q

How does a properly fitted face mask reduce contamination?

A) It filters all bacteria from the air
B) It directs airflow away from the surgical wound
C) It seals off the mouth completely
D) It blocks all particles
A

B) It directs airflow away from the surgical wound

148
Q

How should reusable head covers be managed after their use limit of 75 times?

A) Discarded
B) Laundered carefully
C) Disinfected and reused
D) Sent for professional cleaning
A

A) Discarded

149
Q

Which bacterial species are often associated with hair as a major source of contamination?

A) Escherichia coli
B) Staphylococcus aureus
C) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
D) Bacillus subtilis
A

B) Staphylococcus aureus

150
Q

What type of clothing is suggested for nonscrubbed assistants during surgery?

A) Short-sleeved shirts
B) Cuffed long-sleeved jumpsuits
C) Full surgical gowns
D) Lab coats
A

B) Cuffed long-sleeved jumpsuits

151
Q

Which of the following materials is not recommended for face masks in surgery?

A) Disposable surgical masks
B) Cup masks
C) Washable gauze
D) Splash-resistant masks
A

C) Washable gauze

152
Q

What is the main concern regarding reusable surgical attire?

A) Comfort
B) Cost
C) Ability to harbor bacteria long-term
D) Difficulty in finding correct sizes
A

C) Ability to harbor bacteria long-term

153
Q

In addition to preventing particle shedding, what other benefit is provided by proper surgical attire?

A) Increases surgeon comfort
B) Reflects professionalism and decorum
C) Allows flexibility in movement
D) Reduces surgical time
A

B) Reflects professionalism and decorum

154
Q

What kind of head covers are available for surgical teams?

A) Bouffants, hoods, and surgeon’s caps
B) Helmets only
C) Surgical hair nets
D) Disposable scarves
A

A) Bouffants, hoods, and surgeon’s caps

155
Q

Why are reusable surgical caps not generally recommended?

A) They are uncomfortable
B) They can harbor bacteria for long periods
C) They are difficult to clean
D) They are expensive
A

B) They can harbor bacteria for long periods

156
Q

hat is the ideal practice for laboratory coats worn over scrub suits?

A) Single-use or laundered daily
B) Worn for a week before washing
C) Never worn in surgery rooms
D) Laundered once a month
A

A) Single-use or laundered dail

157
Q

What impact does a surgical mask have when the wearer talks?

A) No impact
B) It increases bacterial spread
C) It reduces bacterial shedding
D) It causes fogging of eyewear
A

C) It reduces bacterial shedding

158
Q

Which practice can lead to the transmission of bacteria from the inside of the mask to the patient?

A) Wearing the mask for too long
B) Pushing the mask on top of the head
C) Tying the mask loosely
D) Wearing two masks simultaneously
A

B) Pushing the mask on top of the head

159
Q

What is the effect of wearing proper surgical attire on the behavior of the operating team?

A) It distracts them
B) It reduces attention
C) It increases attention and professionalism
D) It has no effect
A

C) It increases attention and professionalism

160
Q

Which component of the operating room environment contains the highest number of bacteria?

A) Airborne particles
B) Scrub suits
C) Surgical instruments
D) Floors
A

A) Airborne particles

161
Q

What is the estimated number of particles and bacteria in the operating room air per cubic foot?

A) 100,000 particles, 5 bacteria
B) 250,000 particles, 11 to 13 bacteria
C) 1,000 particles, 1 bacteria
D) 500,000 particles, 20 bacteria
A

B) 250,000 particles, 11 to 13 bacteria

162
Q

What type of face mask provides the best fit and minimizes contamination during surgery?

A) Washable cloth masks
B) Disposable tie-on masks
C) Cup masks with elastic bands
D) Surgical loupes masks
A

C) Cup masks with elastic bands

163
Q

Why is wearing face masks during surgery still debated?

A) They are not effective in filtering bacteria
B) There is a lack of direct evidence linking masks to SSI reduction
C) They are uncomfortable
D) They increase the risk of infection
A

B) There is a lack of direct evidence linking masks to SSI reduction

164
Q

What is a key role of face masks in preventing contamination?

A) Acting as a bacterial filter
B) Redirecting airflow from the surgical wound
C) Protecting from skin shedding
D) Covering all exposed skin
A

B) Redirecting airflow from the surgical wound

165
Q

What is the primary function of surgical gowns during a procedure?
A) To provide aesthetic appeal
B) To prevent liquid exposure
C) To serve as a barrier between skin and surgical instruments
D) To absorb moisture

A

C) To serve as a barrier between skin and surgical instruments

166
Q

Which type of gown showed a significantly higher incidence of bacterial strikethrough according to Ward et al.?
A) Paper gowns
B) Cloth gowns
C) Plastic gowns
D) Neoprene gowns

A

B) Cloth gowns

167
Q

How many cloth gowns out of 27 tested showed bacterial strikethrough in Ward’s study?
A) 0
B) 13
C) 26
D) 27

A

C) 26

168
Q

What is the maximum number of washing cycles a reusable gown can endure before being replaced?
A) 25
B) 50
C) 75
D) 100

A

C) 75

169
Q

Which standard applies to surgical gowns in the US regarding liquid barrier performance?
A) EN 13795
B) ISO 9001
C) AAMI PB70
D) FDA 113

A

C) AAMI PB70

170
Q

For which type of procedures are minimal-barrier gowns most appropriate?
A) Orthopedic surgery
B) Colic surgery
C) Ophthalmologic procedures
D) Cardiovascular surgery

A

C) Ophthalmologic procedures

171
Q

What is a primary risk if a gown is not breathable?
A) Overheating the surgeon
B) Increased risk of SSIs due to sweat contamination
C) Faster gown wear and tear
D) Decreased tactile sensation

A

B) Increased risk of SSIs due to sweat contaminatio

172
Q

What material should be avoided in modern surgical gowns due to potential bacterial harboring?
A) Cotton
B) Nitrile
C) Pure plastic
D) Neoprene

A

C) Pure plastic

173
Q

What is the best current option for gowns during colic surgery?
A) Disposable cotton gowns
B) Pure plastic gowns
C) High-performance gowns with sterile sleeves
D) Minimal-barrier gowns

A

C) High-performance gowns with sterile sleeves

174
Q

When loosening the gown during removal, who assists the surgeon first?
A) Surgical assistant loosens the front
B) Surgeon loosens the back
C) Surgical assistant loosens the back
D) Surgeon loosens the sleeves

A

C) Surgical assistant loosens the back

175
Q

During gown removal in a procedure, how are gloves typically removed?
A) By the surgeon pulling them off with the gown
B) By the assistant using a clean technique
C) By both the surgeon and assistant pulling simultaneously
D) By using an antiseptic solution

A

B) By the assistant using a clean technique

176
Q

Surgical gloves are made from which of the following materials?
A) Cotton
B) Nitrile
C) Nylon
D) Paper

A

B) Nitrile

177
Q

What is the primary benefit of nitrile gloves?
A) Superior tactile sensation
B) Latex and protein-free, suitable for allergic individuals
C) High moisture absorption
D) Eco-friendly

A

B) Latex and protein-free, suitable for allergic individuals

178
Q

What should be avoided when rinsing gloves during a procedure?
A) Water
B) Alcohol
C) Chlorhexidine
D) Sterile saline

A

B) Alcohol

179
Q

What can occur if gloves are used past their expiration date?
A) Gloves will shrink
B) Microorganisms can permeate
C) Gloves will remain unaffected
D) Gloves will become stronger

A

B) Microorganisms can permeate

180
Q

Which type of powder was commonly used in gloves but is now banned in many countries?
A) Cornstarch
B) Magnesium
C) Sodium
D) Teflon

A

A) Cornstarch

181
Q

Which of the following has been shown to cause “cornstarch granulomas” in patients?
A) Magnesium silicate
B) Latex gloves
C) Chlorhexidine
D) Glove powder

A

D) Glove powder

182
Q

What is the industry-accepted pre-use puncture rate for surgical gloves?
A) 0.5%
B) 1.5%
C) 5%
D) 10%

A

B) 1.5%

183
Q

What is the recommended glove change interval during surgeries lasting more than 90 minutes?
A) Every 30 minutes
B) Every 60–90 minutes
C) Every 2 hours
D) Only after surgery

A

B) Every 60–90 minutes

184
Q

What is the glove perforation rate after surgeries lasting more than 60 minutes in equine surgeries?
A) 5%
B) 10%
C) 27%
D) 40%

A

C) 27%

185
Q

Where are glove punctures most commonly found during surgery?
A) Thumb of dominant hand
B) Index finger of nondominant hand
C) Palm of dominant hand
D) Middle finger of nondominant hand

A

B) Index finger of nondominant hand

186
Q

Which gloves are recommended for procedures with high puncture risk, such as orthopedic surgeries?
A) Minimal-barrier gloves
B) Latex-free gloves
C) Orthopedic gloves
D) Powdered gloves

A

C) Orthopedic gloves

187
Q

What is the best practice to reduce glove perforations during laparotomies?
A) Use double gloves
B) Change gloves every 30 minutes
C) Wear latex-free gloves
D) Use sterile arm covers or rectal sleeves

A

D) Use sterile arm covers or rectal sleeves

188
Q

What percentage reduction in x-ray radiation exposure is provided by special sterile radiation gloves?
A) 25%
B) 50%
C) 75%
D) 100%

A

C) 75%

189
Q

What gloving technique provides the least contamination of the glove cuff and gown?
A) Open technique
B) Double gloving technique
C) Closed, third-party gloving technique
D) Cross-sterilization technique

A

C) Closed, third-party gloving technique

190
Q

What is the recommended placement of gloves during gloving?
A) Just over the wrist
B) Over the gown’s knuckles
C) Over the gown cuff at the knuckles
D) Over the elbow

A

C) Over the gown cuff at the knuckles

191
Q

When should outer gloves be removed in surgery?
A) At the start of the surgery
B) After draping the surgical field
C) Once the surgery finishes
D) Only if the gloves tear

A

B) After draping the surgical field

192
Q

What is the advantage of indicator gloves during surgery?
A) Lower cost
B) Reduced contamination risk
C) Better puncture detection
D) Longer wear time

A

C) Better puncture detection

193
Q

In which country was the use of powdered gloves banned in 1998?
A) USA
B) UK
C) Germany
D) France

A

C) Germany

194
Q

What is a primary factor increasing the risk of glove perforation in surgeries involving suturing?
A) The length of the procedure
B) Use of orthopedic instruments
C) Manual handling of the needle
D) Use of antimicrobial gloves

A

C) Manual handling of the needle

195
Q

Which glove material offers the best barrier protection against blood-borne pathogens?
A) Vinyl
B) Latex
C) Nitrile
D) Polyvinyl chloride

A

B) Latex

196
Q

What happens to latex gloves when they degrade?
A) They become stronger
B) They shrink
C) Microorganisms can permeate through
D) They become more puncture-resistant

A

C) Microorganisms can permeate through

197
Q

In which type of surgery is glove perforation least likely?
A) Minimally invasive surgeries
B) Orthopedic procedures
C) Suturing procedures
D) Equine celiotomies

A

A) Minimally invasive surgeries

198
Q

What is a recommended method to avoid contamination during glove removal?
A) Pull off quickly
B) Use antiseptic spray
C) Fold gloves inward
D) Use the open technique

A

C) Fold gloves inward

199
Q

What is a consequence of glove punctures during equine surgery?
A) Decreased tactile sensation
B) Increased risk of infection
C) Improved surgical outcomes
D) Decreased durability of gloves

A

B) Increased risk of infection

200
Q

What should be done to gloves after handling implants during surgery?
A) Discard the gloves
B) Disinfect them with alcohol
C) Replace the gloves
D) Leave them on

A

C) Replace the gloves

201
Q

What technique is used to provide clean glove changes during surgery?
A) Open gloving
B) Closed gloving
C) Third-party gloving
D) Self-gloving

A

C) Third-party gloving

202
Q

What glove material poses a risk of sensitization due to proteins and chemicals in it?
A) Nitrile
B) Vinyl
C) Latex
D) Neoprene

A

C) Latex

203
Q

Which of the following should be avoided in gloving to reduce contamination risk?
A) Reusing gloves
B) Latex gloves
C) Double gloving
D) Powdered gloves

A

D) Powdered gloves

204
Q

When should gloves be rinsed during surgery?
A) Before the procedure
B) During sterile breaks
C) After handling contaminated equipment
D) After every procedure

A

C) After handling contaminated equipment

205
Q

What material is commonly used for disposable shoe covers to avoid strikethrough?

A) Latex
B) Polyurethane
C) Polypropylene
D) Vinyl
A

C) Polypropylene

206
Q

What is the primary purpose of shoe covers in the operating room?

A) Reducing floor contamination
B) Keeping the surgeon's feet dry
C) Reducing hand contamination
D) Preventing infections
A

B) Keeping the surgeon’s feet dry

207
Q

What risk is associated with the removal of shoe covers?

A) Increased foot infections
B) Hand contamination
C) Strikethrough of liquids
D) Loss of shoe cover integrity
A

B) Hand contamination

208
Q

What should always follow the removal of shoe covers?

A) Disposal in a biohazard container
B) Hand hygiene
C) Application of a new shoe cover
D) Sterilization of shoes
A

B) Hand hygiene

209
Q

What is a better alternative to disposable shoe covers for reducing environmental contamination?

A) Wearing double shoe covers
B) Using powdered shoe covers
C) Dedicated operating room shoes
D) Waterproof shoe covers
A

C) Dedicated operating room shoes

210
Q

What is a recommended practice for maintaining dedicated operating room shoes?

A) Autoclaving them weekly
B) Disinfecting them regularly
C) Wearing them outside surgery for short periods
D) Replacing them monthly
A

B) Disinfecting them regularly

211
Q

Dedicated operating room shoes should never be worn:

A) During non-sterile procedures
B) In the recovery room
C) Outside the surgery area
D) In areas with high contamination risk
A

C) Outside the surgery area

212
Q

Footwear used in the operating room can become contaminated with which of the following?

A) Staphylococcus aureus
B) Coagulase-negative staphylococci
C) Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus pseudintermedius
D) Extended-spectrum β-lactamase-producing E. coli
A

B) Coagulase-negative staphylococci

213
Q

What footwear can be autoclaved for sterilization?

A) All disposable shoe covers
B) Only dedicated surgical shoes
C) Any surgical boots
D) Some specific types of footwear
A

D) Some specific types of footwear

214
Q

Why is jewelry considered a hazard in surgical theaters?

A) It can increase bacterial colonization
B) It can increase the risk of allergic reactions
C) It may increase hand sweating
D) It may cause glove tearing
A

A) It can increase bacterial colonization

215
Q

Earrings worn in surgery pose a contamination risk because:

A) They create hand hygiene issues
B) They are colonized with bacteria
C) They may fall into the sterile field
D) They interfere with PPE
A

C) They may fall into the sterile field

216
Q

Why are rings discouraged during surgical procedures?

A) They increase glove puncture risk
B) They prevent proper aseptic hand preparation
C) They have been shown to harbor microorganisms
D) They are difficult to clean
A

C) They have been shown to harbor microorganisms

217
Q

tudies show nail polish increases bacterial counts after how many days of application?

A) 2 days
B) 4 days
C) 6 days
D) 8 days
A

B) 4 days

218
Q

What is the risk associated with artificial nails in surgical settings?

A) They harbor fewer bacteria than natural nails
B) They cause frequent glove tears
C) They enhance proper hand hygiene practices
D) They are easier to disinfect than natural nails
A

B) They cause frequent glove tears

219
Q

Which of the following microorganisms are significantly more present on artificial nails compared to normal nails?

A) Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA)
B) Coagulase-negative staphylococci
C) Gram-negative rods
D) Yeast species
A

C) Gram-negative rods

220
Q

Proper disinfection of artificial nails is difficult due to:

A) The inability to reach under the nails
B) Their resistance to all disinfectants
C) Substantial retention of pathogens after hand asepsis
D) The ease with which they crack
A

C) Substantial retention of pathogens after hand asepsis

221
Q

What percentage of mobile phones in hospitals cultured positive for MRSA according to a systematic review?

A) 20%
B) 30%
C) 40%
D) 50%
A

C) 40%

222
Q

The use of mobile phones in surgical theaters poses a risk of contamination by:

A) Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus pseudintermedius
B) Extended-spectrum β-lactamase-producing E. coli
C) Coagulase-negative staphylococci
D) Vancomycin-resistant enterococci
A

B) Extended-spectrum β-lactamase-producing E. coli

223
Q

Up to what percentage of stethoscopes are contaminated with MRSA?

A) 15%
B) 30%
C) 42%
D) 50%
A

C) 42%

224
Q

Which type of bacteria found on mobile devices is especially relevant in equine medicine?

A) MRSA
B) MRSP
C) Escherichia coli
D) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
A

A) MRSA

225
Q

What is a recommended method to reduce mobile device contamination in hospitals?

A) Cleaning mobile devices with disinfectant wipes regularly
B) Banning mobile phones from surgery theaters
C) Covering mobile devices with sterile wraps
D) Using ultraviolet (UV) light for disinfection
A

A) Cleaning mobile devices with disinfectant wipes regularly

226
Q

What is one benefit of using mobile devices in surgical theaters?

A) They increase bacterial contamination
B) They facilitate better communication and documentation
C) They reduce the need for sterile equipment
D) They sterilize automatically
A

B) They facilitate better communication and documentation

227
Q

What is the main goal of presurgical hand preparation?

A) To remove all skin organisms
B) To increase skin elasticity
C) To kill transient skin organisms and reduce resident bacteria
D) To dry the skin thoroughly
A

C) To kill transient skin organisms and reduce resident bacteria

228
Q

What effect does aggressive cleaning of the skin with medicated soaps like CHX have?

A) It enhances bacterial elimination
B) It damages the skin and increases bacterial colonization
C) It prevents future infections
D) It reduces the need for hand rubbing
A

B) It damages the skin and increases bacterial colonization

229
Q

What is a risk associated with the use of scrub brushes for hand preparation?

A) They increase skin moisture
B) They increase bacterial load on the skin
C) They cause glove tears
D) They remove essential skin oils
A

B) They increase bacterial load on the skin

230
Q

If hands are visibly soiled before surgery, they should be cleaned with:

A) Antibacterial lotion
B) A soft sponge and water
C) A disinfectant wipe
D) An alcohol-based hand rub (AHR)
A

B) A soft sponge and water

231
Q

Which hand preparation solution has been shown to be superior for rapid and effective microbial reduction?

A) CHX soap
B) Alcohol-based hand rub (AHR)
C) Povidone-iodine (PVP) soap
D) Non-medicated soap
A

B) Alcohol-based hand rub (AHR)

232
Q

What is one of the advantages of alcohol-based hand rubs over traditional scrubbing?

A) Reduced skin irritation
B) Increased glove tearing risk
C) Slower bacterial regrowth
D) Fewer antimicrobial agents
A

A) Reduced skin irritation

233
Q

Alcohol-based hand rubs (AHRs) prevent bacterial regrowth to baseline values for how long after application?

A) 3 hours
B) 4 hours
C) 6 hours
D) 12 hours
A

C) 6 hours

234
Q

What is a recommended procedure when hands are visibly soiled before using an AHR?

A) Use a stronger AHR formulation
B) Prewash with nonmedicated soap
C) Double the AHR application time
D) Scrub hands for a longer duration
A

B) Prewash with nonmedicated soap

235
Q

What skin condition is associated with the long-term use of medicated soaps containing CHX?

A) Dermatitis
B) Psoriasis
C) Eczema
D) Skin thickening
A

A) Dermatitis

236
Q

Which of the following is recommended to maintain good hand asepsis after using alcohol-based hand rubs?

A) Wearing moisturized gloves
B) Using an additional round of scrubbing
C) Applying a hand moisturizer to avoid dry skin
D) Avoiding hand moisturizers
A

C) Applying a hand moisturizer to avoid dry skin

237
Q

What should be avoided to prevent contamination of sterile gloves during donning?

A) Putting on gloves immediately after hand disinfection
B) Donning gloves in a contaminated area
C) Wearing too large gloves
D) Double-gloving without removing the inner pair
A

A) Putting on gloves immediately after hand disinfection

238
Q

Which type of contamination does double-gloving reduce?

A) Resident skin flora
B) Transient bacteria
C) Environmental contaminants
D) All of the above
A

D) All of the above

239
Q

Which practice is recommended after contact with an environmental surface in surgery?

A) Re-gloving
B) Sterilizing gloves with alcohol
C) Changing scrubs
D) Immediate hand hygiene
A

D) Immediate hand hygiene

240
Q

How frequently should hands be disinfected in the operating room during a single surgery?

A) After every 30 minutes
B) Whenever hands are not in a sterile field
C) After every break or environmental contact
D) At least every 60 minutes
A

C) After every break or environmental contact

241
Q

What is the major challenge with using alcohol-based hand rubs in operating rooms?

A) They increase glove tearing risk
B) They cause more skin irritation
C) They evaporate too slowly
D) They are ineffective in the presence of organic matter
A

D) They are ineffective in the presence of organic matter

242
Q

Which of the following hand antiseptic agents is associated with skin drying?

A) Alcohol-based solutions
B) Chlorhexidine gluconate (CHX)
C) Povidone-iodine (PVP)
D) All of the above
A

D) All of the above

243
Q

Studies show CHX formulations retain bacterial suppression for how long?

A) 3 hours
B) 4 hours
C) 6 hours
D) 12 hours
A

B) 4 hours

244
Q

What should be used if surgical gloves are compromised during surgery?

A) Alcohol-based hand rub
B) Sterile surgical towel
C) Immediate glove change
D) A new set of foot covers
A

C) Immediate glove change

245
Q

During standing procedures, the horse should stand:

A) Cross-legged
B) Square in the stocks
C) Diagonally
D) On one leg
A

B) Square in the stocks

246
Q

What should be avoided regarding the width of the stocks?

A) Too narrow
B) Too wide
C) Ideal width
D) Adjustable width
A

B) Too wide

247
Q

What is the purpose of a horizontal bar in front of or behind the horse?

A) To provide comfort
B) To restrict cranio-caudal movements
C) To hold the horse in place
D) To decorate the stocks
A

B) To restrict cranio-caudal movements

248
Q

The horse’s head during procedures should be rested on:

A) A flat surface
B) A padded headstand
C) The ground
D) A veterinarian’s lap
A

B) A padded headstand

249
Q

For how long should the horse’s head not hang below shoulder level?

A) Short periods
B) Extended periods
C) Only during procedures
D) It doesn't matter
A

B) Extended periods

250
Q

What is a major source of undesirable movements during surgery?

A) Noise in the room
B) The horse’s reaction
C) Filling of the urinary bladder
D) The veterinarian's movements
A

C) Filling of the urinary bladder

251
Q

What is recommended for prolonged procedures concerning the urinary bladder?

A) Empty it beforehand
B) Monitor it closely
C) Catheterization
D) No action needed
A

C) Catheterization

252
Q

In equine surgery, hair removal is often:

A) Discouraged
B) Only necessary if it interferes with surgery
C) Mandatory
D) Not a concern
A

B) Only necessary if it interferes with surgery

253
Q

What is the primary concern regarding hair removal in equine surgery?

A) Aesthetic reasons
B) Presence of loose hair
C) Speed of surgery
D) Comfort of the horse
A

B) Presence of loose hair

254
Q

Razors can cause substantial injury compared to which methods?

A) Hair removal creams
B) Depilation or clipping
C) Scissors
D) Shears
A

B) Depilation or clipping

255
Q

When should clipping occur to reduce infection rates in veterinary patients?

A) The day before surgery
B) Immediately before surgery
C) Any time before surgery
D) Only if the hair is long
A

B) Immediately before surgery

256
Q

What should be done to clipper blades after each use?

A) Store them away
B) Clean them
C) Discard them
D) Sharpen them
A

B) Clean them

257
Q

The clipped area for surgery should extend:

A) Just around the incision
B) 5 to 10 cm around the incision
C) 15 to 20 cm around the incision
D) No extension needed
A

C) 15 to 20 cm around the incision

258
Q

What is the recommended tool for clipping in the preparation room?

A) Manual clippers
B) No. 40 clipper blades
C) Hair scissors
D) Disposable razors
A

B) No. 40 clipper blades

259
Q

What should be done with loose hair at the surgery site?

A) Leave it alone
B) Sweep it away
C) Remove it with a vacuum cleaner system
D) Shave it off
A

C) Remove it with a vacuum cleaner system

260
Q

Biocides used for surgical preparation may be ineffective in the presence of:

A) Hair
B) Organic debris
C) Dust
D) Water
A

B) Organic debris

261
Q

What is recommended to avoid backflow of water onto the surgical site?

A) Rinse thoroughly
B) Use sterile gloves
C) Ensure nonclipped areas are clean
D) Use a fan
A

C) Ensure nonclipped areas are clean

262
Q

What is the main reason for avoiding scrubbing with brushes?

A) It increases cleaning time
B) It can create undesirable skin defects
C) Brushes can damage the drapes
D) Brushes are hard to use
A

B) It can create undesirable skin defects

263
Q

What is the minimum recommended concentration of CHX for bactericidal activity?

A) 0.5%
B) 1%
C) 2%
D) 5%
A

C) 2%

264
Q

How should antiseptic solutions be applied to the surgical site?

A) By scrubbing vigorously
B) Using a concentric pattern
C) Splashing on
D) Wiping with bare hands
A

B) Using a concentric pattern

265
Q

What antiseptic is particularly active against MRSA?

A) CHX
B) PVP
C) Alcohol
D) Soap
A

B) PVP

266
Q

Why should CHX solutions be avoided near the eye or ear?

A) They are ineffective
B) They are too expensive
C) They can cause irreversible damage
D) They are irritating
A

C) They can cause irreversible damage

267
Q

What is the purpose of cyanoacrylate-based microbial sealants?

A) To reduce bleeding
B) To block migration of pathogens
C) To improve aesthetic appearance
D) To speed up healing
A

B) To block migration of pathogens

268
Q

Which of the following draping materials is preferred due to better barrier function?

A) Plastic drapes
B) Cotton drapes
C) Nonwoven disposable materials
D) Woven fabrics
A

C) Nonwoven disposable materials

269
Q

What type of drape should not be used due to bacterial growth concerns?

A) Nonwoven drapes
B) Plastic drapes
C) Paper drapes
D) Cotton drapes
A

B) Plastic drapes

270
Q

Which surgical drapes are designed to keep the intestine moist when exteriorized?

A) Cotton drapes
B) Laparotomy drapes
C) Adhesive drapes
D) Thyroid drapes
A

B) Laparotomy drapes

271
Q

What should be done immediately after drapes are applied?

A) Adjust them toward the surgical site
B) Leave them as they are
C) Remove and reapply
D) Secure them to the horse
A

B) Leave them as they are

272
Q

What technique is recommended for double draping?

A) Applying a single layer of drape
B) Using a quadrant method
C) Wrapping drapes tightly
D) Using non-adhesive drapes
A

B) Using a quadrant method

273
Q

What should be done to the horse’s tail before procedures near the hindquarters?

A) Leave it loose
B) Firmly braid and fold it
C) Cut it off
D) Braid loosely
A

B) Firmly braid and fold it

274
Q

Postoperative team debriefings are important because they:

A) Improve communication and identify issues
B) Serve no real purpose
C) Take too much time
D) Are only needed after complications
A

A) Improve communication and identify issues

275
Q

What is the main goal of surgical report writing?

A) To provide entertainment
B) To describe procedures and intraoperative findings
C) To criticize the team
D) To save time
A

B) To describe procedures and intraoperative findings

276
Q

Why should adhesive drapes not be used when excessive bleeding is anticipated?

A) They increase bleeding
B) They interfere with fluid absorption
C) They are hard to remove
D) They cause irritation
A

B) They interfere with fluid absorption

277
Q

What is the ideal position of the horse’s limbs when in lateral recumbency?

A) Both limbs extended
B) Upper limb flexed and lower limb extended
C) Both limbs flexed
D) Upper limb extended, lower limb folded
A

B) Upper limb flexed and lower limb extended

278
Q

Why is it important to support the head of the horse when in lateral recumbency?

A) To avoid strain on the neck muscles
B) To make the horse more comfortable
C) To increase airflow
D) To keep the head elevated for observation
A

A) To avoid strain on the neck muscles