Chapter 58 - Surgery of the ocular surface Flashcards

1
Q

What is the function of the cornea?

A

To allow light to enter the eye and contribute to the eye’s refractive power.

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2
Q
A

Figure 58-1. Regions of the conjunctiva. a, Fornix; b, palpebral conjunctiva; c, bulbar conjunctiva; d, bulbar conjunctiva of the third eyelid; e, palpebral conjunctiva of the third eyelid.

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2
Q
A

Figure 58-2. Blue-gray appearance of the iridocorneal drainage angle as seen through the normal equine cornea at the temporal and nasal limbus (arrows).

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3
Q

What type of collagen transition occurs at the bulbar limbus?

A

From uniformly organized collagen in the cornea to irregularly arranged collagen in the sclera.

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4
Q

Where is the bulbar limbus located?

A

At the junction between the cornea and the sclera.

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4
Q
A

Figure 58-3. Photomicrograph demonstrating the four layers of the equine cornea. a, Epithelium; b, stroma; c, Descemet’s membrane; d, endothelium (arrow) (hematoxylin and eosin, ×170).

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5
Q

What is Tenon’s capsule?

A

A thin fascial layer that envelops the globe beneath the bulbar conjunctiva.

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5
Q

What type of epithelium characterizes the conjunctiva?

A

Nonkeratinized stratified columnar to cuboidal epithelium.

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5
Q

Which part of the conjunctiva covers the inner surface of the eyelids?

A

The palpebral conjunctiva.

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6
Q

What are the two layers of the substantia propria in the conjunctiva?

A

The superficial adenoid layer and the deeper fibrous layer.

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7
Q

What role does the conjunctival goblet cells play?

A

They produce mucin, a key component of the tear film.

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8
Q

Which lymph nodes drain the medial conjunctival regions?

A

The mandibular lymph nodes.

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9
Q

What nerves innervate the bulbar conjunctiva?

A

The long ciliary branches of the ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve.

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10
Q

From which artery is the conjunctival blood supply derived?

A

The anterior ciliary arteries, branches of the ophthalmic artery.

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11
Q

What typical reaction does the conjunctiva show to injury?

A

Hyperemia and edema with possible swelling.

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12
Q

How does conjunctival epithelium heal after injury?

A

By mitotic proliferation and cellular migration over the substantia propria.

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13
Q

What is the primary function of the sclera?

A

To provide structural support and protection for the intraocular contents.

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13
Q

What happens to the mitotic rate of the conjunctival epithelium in response to central corneal injury?

A

It increases significantly.

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14
Q

Why does the sclera appear white?

A

Because its collagen fibers are irregularly arranged, scattering light.

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15
Q

What type of collagen predominates in the scleral stroma?

A

Type I and III collagen.

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16
Q

How does the sclera receive nutrients?

A

Through the vascularized episclera and the underlying choroid.

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17
Q

Which nerve supplies sensory innervation to the anterior sclera?

A

The long posterior ciliary nerves.

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18
Q

What healing process occurs after scleral trauma?

A

Fibroblasts aid in relatively rapid healing of apposed scleral incisions.

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19
Q

What structures meet at the limbus?

A

The epithelial cells of the cornea and conjunctiva.

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20
Q

What cells are located at the palisades of Vogt?

A

Limbal stem cells.

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21
Q

How many cell layers thick is the corneal epithelium?

A

Approximately 8 to 10 layers.

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21
Q

What type of collagen is most abundant in the corneal stroma?

A

Type I and type V collagen.

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22
Q

What is the shape of the cornea in an adult horse?

A

A horizontal ellipse.

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23
Q

How is corneal transparency maintained?

A

Through the lack of vasculature, uniform collagen arrangement, and endothelial pump mechanism.

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23
Q

What structure attaches the corneal epithelium to the stroma?

A

Hemidesmosomes and basement membrane-anchoring fibrils.

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23
Q

What are the main components of Descemet’s membrane?

A

An anterior banded layer and a posterior nonbanded layer.

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24
Q

What happens when corneal endothelial cell density decreases?

A

Fluid accumulates in the stroma, causing corneal edema.

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25
Q

What is the result of irregular collagen arrangement in the corneal stroma after injury?

A

The formation of a corneal opacity or scar.

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25
Q

How thick is Descemet’s membrane in adult horses?

A

Approximately 38 μm.

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26
Q

What is the primary function of the corneal endothelium?

A

To regulate corneal hydration by limiting fluid entry from the anterior chamber.

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26
Q

What prevents Descemet’s membrane from taking up fluorescein stain?

A

Its dense structure and composition as a basement membrane.

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27
Q

What pump mechanism does the corneal endothelium use?

A

The Na+/K+–ATPase pump.

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27
Q

What is the approximate central corneal thickness in an adult horse?

A

Between 0.77 and 0.89 mm.

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28
Q

What cell type is primarily responsible for synthesizing new collagen in corneal wounds?

A

Keratocytes.

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28
Q

How does the corneal stroma’s hydrophilic nature affect wound healing?

A

It relies on the intact epithelium and endothelial pump to maintain relative dehydration.

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29
Q

What feature distinguishes the posterior sclera’s innervation?

A

It is supplied by the short posterior ciliary nerves.

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30
Q

How does limbal stem cell recruitment affect corneal healing?

A

It aids in the reepithelialization of the cornea after injury.

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30
Q

How does the cornea receive nutrition despite being avascular?

A

Through the precorneal tear film and aqueous humor.

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31
Q

What effect does trauma to the corneal endothelium typically have on the cornea?

A

It results in stromal swelling and opacity due to fluid accumulation.

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32
Q

Where is corneal innervation density the greatest?

A

In the superficial corneal stroma, particularly in the central cornea.

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32
Q

Why are functional eyelids essential for corneal health?

A

They distribute the tear film, providing necessary nutrients and protection.

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33
Q

What nerve innervates the cornea, and what branch does it derive from?

A

The cornea is innervated by long ciliary nerves from the ophthalmic branch of the trigeminal nerve.

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34
Q

How does the cornea typically respond to injury?

A

With edema, inflammatory cell infiltration, neovascularization, and sometimes pigmentation or scarring.

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34
Q

What causes corneal edema?

A

Fluid accumulation from either the tear film (if epithelium is damaged) or aqueous humor (if endothelium is damaged).

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35
Q

How can chronic inflammation lead to corneal pigmentation?

A

Melanocytes migrate from limbal tissue into the basal corneal epithelium or stroma.

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35
Q

Which growth factors contribute to corneal neovascularization?

A

Vascular endothelial growth factor-A (VEGF-A) and fibroblast growth factor.

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36
Q

What is the main source of cells and growth factors for corneal wound healing?

A

the aqueous humor, tear film, and limbal vessels.

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37
Q

How quickly do basal epithelial cells migrate after corneal injury?

A

Within one hour of injury, cells begin moving towards the center of the lesion.

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37
Q

What role do matrix metalloproteinases (MMPs) play in wound healing?

A

They decrease cellular adhesion at wound edges, facilitating epithelial migration.

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37
Q

What happens if excess proteolytic activity occurs in the corneal stroma?

A

It can lead to corneal malacia (softening of the corneal tissue).

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38
Q

What is the role of transforming growth factor-β (TGF-β) in corneal healing?

A

It induces differentiation and infiltration of inflammatory cells into the defect.

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39
Q

How do small full-thickness corneal wounds seal?

A

With a fibrin clot that initiates epithelial and stromal healing.

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39
Q

What is the average healing time for a non-infected 7-mm corneal wound?

A

Approximately 11 days.

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40
Q

What can happen with large full-thickness corneal defects?

A

The iris may prolapse, leading to complications such as endophthalmitis.

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40
Q

What is neurogenic anterior uveitis, and what triggers it?

A

An inflammatory response due to corneal injury, triggered by prostaglandins and substance P release.

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41
Q

Which bacteria are commonly found on the normal equine ocular surface?

A

Gram-positive bacteria like Corynebacterium, Staphylococcus, and Bacillus.

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42
Q

What species of fungi are commonly isolated from equine eyes?

A

Aspergillus, Cladosporium, and Penicillium.

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43
Q

What infections commonly complicate keratomycosis?

A

Aspergillus and Fusarium species.

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44
Q

List three causes of infectious ocular surface diseases.

A

Bacterial, fungal, and viral infections.

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44
Q

How is corneal sensation tested during an ophthalmic examination?

A

By lightly touching the cornea with cotton to assess the corneal reflex.

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45
Q

Why is dim lighting used during an ocular examination?

A

To improve visualization of lesions with a bright focal light.

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45
Q

What is the purpose of an auriculopalpebral nerve block in ocular exams?

A

To reduce the strength of the blink reflex for easier examination.

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46
Q

Why might sedation be required during an ocular examination?

A

To restrain the horse and facilitate examination, especially if painful lesions are present.

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46
Q

What is fluorescein staining used for?

A

To detect corneal epithelial defects by binding to exposed corneal stroma.

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47
Q

How does the Seidel test work?

A

It detects aqueous leakage by applying fluorescein dye directly to a corneal wound.

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48
Q

What is rose bengal staining particularly useful for?

A

Detecting devitalized epithelial cells in conditions like equine herpesviral corneal disease.

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49
Q

When should culture and sensitivity testing be performed on ocular samples?

A

Before applying anesthetics or stains, as these can inhibit microorganism growth.

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50
Q

What is the purpose of cytology in ocular surface disease?

A

To identify inflammatory cells and infectious organisms.

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51
Q

What tool yields the best diagnostic samples in ocular cytology?

A

A cytobrush.

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51
Q

How are deep corneal ulcers typically sampled for cytology?

A

Carefully, using a cytobrush, Kimura spatula, or blunt scalpel end.

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52
Q

What type of stain can help identify fungal hyphae on cytology?

A

Gomori methenamine silver (GMS) or periodic acid–Schiff (PAS).

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53
Q

Which ocular examination technique should be performed before sedating the horse?

A

Preliminary evaluation of the eye, including assessing symmetry and evidence of discomfort.

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54
Q

How does incomplete lid closure affect corneal health?

A

It prevents normal tear distribution, which can harm corneal integrity.

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55
Q

What is the function of the palpebral reflex in equine eyes?

A

It helps ensure the eyelids close completely, distributing the tear film.

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55
Q

What effect can drugs like flunixin meglumine have on corneal neovascularization?

A

They can delay it but are often used for uveitis treatment and pain relief.

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56
Q

How does the iris respond in a collapsed anterior chamber due to corneal injury?

A

It can prolapse through the cornea, which complicates healing.

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57
Q

Why is cytology recommended for corneal ulcers and abscesses?

A

It provides immediate data on inflammation and presence of infectious organisms.

58
Q

What is the main difference between fluorescein and rose bengal staining?

A

Fluorescein stains stromal defects, while rose bengal stains devitalized cells.

59
Q

what type of bacteria is Corynebacterium?

A

Normally found healty ocular surface
Positive
Rod

60
Q

what type of bacteria is Staphylococcus?

A

Normally found healty ocular surface
Positive
Cocci

61
Q

what type of bacteria is Streptomyces?

A

Normally found healty ocular surface
Positive
Rod

62
Q

what type of bacteria is Streptococcus?

A

Normally found healty ocular surface
Positive
Cocci

63
Q

what type of bacteria is Acinetobacter?

A

Normally found healty ocular surface
Negative
Coccobacilli

64
Q

what type of bacteria is Pseudomonas aeruginosa?

A

Found in ocular disease
Negative
Rod

64
Q

what type of bacteria is E. Coli?

A

Found in ocular disease
Negative
Rod

65
Q

what type of bacteria is Moraxella?

A

Normally found healty ocular surface
Negative
Coccobacilli

66
Q

what type of bacteria is Enterobacter spp.

A

Found in ocular disease
Negative
Rod

67
Q
A

Figure 58-5. Cytobrush for cytology sampling (Microbrush).

68
Q
A

Figure 58-6. (A) Kimura platinum spatula. (B) Technique for acquiring corneal samples for cytology and culture. The corneal surface is scraped with a Kimura platinum spatula.

68
Q
A

(A) Kimura platinum spatula.

69
Q
A

Figure 58-4. Superficial corneal ulcer stained positive with fluorescein.

70
Q
A

Figure 58-9. Subpalpebral lavage kit (Mila International).

71
Q
A

Figure 58-10. Subpalpebral lavage line placed superiorly with silicone tubing secured to the head with tape tabs.

72
Q

What is the main advantage of topical application of ophthalmic drugs?

A

It provides a high concentration at the site of action, especially for ocular surface conditions.

73
Q

Which factors influence the retention of topical ophthalmic medications?

A

Precorneal factors like lacrimation and nasolacrimal drainage, and drug formulation characteristics.

74
Q

Why might ophthalmic ointments be chosen over solutions for equine eyes?

A

They have prolonged retention time and ease of administration.

75
Q

Why is it recommended to wait 5 minutes between applications of different solutions?

A

To avoid diluting the previously applied drug.

76
Q

What precaution should be taken if the anterior chamber is penetrated?

A

Use an ophthalmic solution instead of ointment.

77
Q

How can frequent medication administration be facilitated in horses?

A

By placing a subpalpebral lavage line.

78
Q

Why should surgical scrubs with detergents not be used near the eye?

A

They may cause epithelial loss and ulceration.

78
Q

Which drugs are commonly combined in triple-antibiotic formulations?

A

Neomycin, polymyxin B, and bacitracin or gramicidin.

79
Q

Why are aminoglycoside antibiotics used in combination for ocular infections?

A

To expand the spectrum of activity, especially against gram-positive organisms.

79
Q

What is a preferred monotherapy for bacterial ocular infections?

A

Fluoroquinolones, such as Ofloxacin.

80
Q

How can antifungal drug penetration be improved for deeper corneal infections?

A

By debriding the corneal epithelium or adding dimethyl sulfoxide (DMSO) to the formulation.

80
Q

What caution should be given to owners when using chloramphenicol?

A

It can cause aplastic anemia in humans; gloves are recommended.

81
Q

Why are topical antifungals often used prophylactically in horses?

A

Horses are prone to fungal keratitis, especially with corneal injuries.

82
Q

What is the only commercially available topical ophthalmic antifungal?

A

Natamycin ophthalmic suspension

83
Q

What are the risks of using topical corticosteroids in corneal ulcerations?

A

They delay wound healing and can potentiate infections.

84
Q

Which NSAID solutions are commonly used topically for ocular inflammation?

A

Flurbiprofen 0.03% and diclofenac 0.1%.

85
Q

What are the two commonly used topical anesthetics for the eye?

A

Proparacaine 0.5% and tetracaine 0.5%.

86
Q

How long does the anesthetic effect of proparacaine and tetracaine typically last?

A

About 25 to 30 minutes.

87
Q

Why is continuous use of topical anesthetics for therapeutic purposes discouraged?

A

They cause epithelial toxicity and destabilize the tear film.

88
Q

When should ocular cultures ideally be collected in relation to anesthetic application?

A

Before instilling the anesthetic due to its antimicrobial effects.

89
Q

Why is ketamine usually avoided for surgeries involving the anterior chamber?

A

It increases intraocular pressure.

90
Q

How is central positioning of the cornea achieved during surgery?

A

By using neuromuscular blocking agents like atracurium with positive pressure ventilation.

91
Q

what magnification tools are commonly used for corneal surgery?

A

Operating microscopes or head loupes with 2.5× or 4× magnification.

92
Q

Which forceps are recommended for handling conjunctival tissue?

A

Colibri and Bishop-Harmon forceps.

93
Q

What type of scissors are suggested for conjunctival incisions?

A

Fine-tipped blunt tenotomy scissors like the Stevens or Westcott.

94
Q

Which instruments are specifically useful for suture-tying in corneal surgeries?

A

McPherson tying forceps.

95
Q

What are the potential complications if corneal drying occurs during anesthesia?

A

Postoperative corneal ulceration.

96
Q

Which disposable cautery units are typically used in equine eye surgeries?

A

Fine-tipped disposable cautery units.

97
Q

What is the main purpose of using viscoelastic agents during anterior chamber surgeries?

A

To maintain intraocular pressure and prevent collapse of the anterior chamber.

98
Q

What type of suture material is preferred for corneal surgery?

A

Absorbable 910 polyglactin.

99
Q

Why is absorbable 910 polyglactin preferred for ocular surfaces?

A

It’s well-tolerated, reduces trauma risk, and provides secure knot handling.

100
Q

Which suture pattern is best for bulbar conjunctiva apposition?

A

Simple-continuous pattern.

101
Q

What needle type is recommended for 6-0 absorbable sutures in conjunctival surgery?

A

Reverse cutting or spatulated needle.

102
Q

For scleral defects, which suture pattern is used?

A

Simple-interrupted pattern.

103
Q

At what depth should corneal sutures be placed in full-thickness defects?

A

Approximately 80% of the corneal thickness.

104
Q

What risk arises if corneal sutures are placed too superficially?

A

The posterior wound can gape, risking integrity and increasing scarring.

105
Q

What complication occurs if corneal sutures are full-thickness?

A

It can cause anterior uveitis and allow aqueous humor leakage.

106
Q

What suture pattern is used in penetrating keratoplasty?

A

Simple-interrupted pattern.

107
Q

Why is a spatulated needle preferred for corneal suturing?

A

It minimizes corneal collagen damage by creating a circular path.

108
Q

At what angle should the needle enter the corneal surface?

A

Close to 90 degrees.

109
Q

Why is equal entry and exit distance important in corneal suturing?

A

It ensures symmetrical suture placement for better wound stability.

110
Q

Which test checks for aqueous humor leakage after corneal repair?

A

Seidel test with fluorescein dye.

111
Q

How should the patient’s head be positioned for ocular surgery?

A

Laterally with eyelids as horizontal as possible.

112
Q

What solution is used to prepare the ocular adnexa for surgery?

A

1:50 povidone-iodine solution.

113
Q

Why should cotton swabs be avoided for hemostasis in ocular surgery?

A

They shed fibers and are abrasive to the corneal epithelium.

114
Q

Which tool is preferred for hemostasis on the ocular surface?

A

Sterile cellulose ocular sticks.

115
Q

What is used to achieve additional hemostasis if needed?

A

2.5% phenylephrine or 0.1 mg/mL epinephrine on a cotton-tipped applicator.

116
Q

Which agents help maintain anterior chamber depth if it’s compromised?

A

Sodium hyaluronate 2% or hydroxypropyl methylcellulose 2%.

117
Q

What complication can arise from viscoelastic agents postoperatively?

A

Ocular hypertension.

118
Q

Why is a protective eye-cup mask used postoperatively?

A

To prevent self-trauma to the surgical site.

119
Q

What is conjunctivectomy?

A

Resection of a region of conjunctiva.

120
Q

Why might general anesthesia be required for conjunctivectomy?

A

For excision of larger conjunctival or corneoconjunctival lesions.

121
Q

What is the primary goal of performing a conjunctival biopsy?

A

To obtain tissue for histopathological examination.

122
Q

What type of suture is used for conjunctival defects larger than 5 mm?

A

6-0 polyglactin 910.

123
Q

Why is suture placement avoided in palpebral conjunctival defects?

A

To prevent irritation and ulceration of the cornea.

124
Q

What suture type is commonly used for bulbar conjunctival lacerations?

A

Simple-continuous 6-0 absorbable suture.

125
Q

What diagnostic procedure confirms scleral laceration extent?

A

A complete ophthalmic examination.

126
Q

hich suture material is suggested for scleral defect closure?

A

5-0 absorbable suture, like polyglactin 910.

127
Q

What indicates that the anterior chamber might be leaking aqueous humor?

A

Shallowing of chamber depth and decreased globe turgidity.

128
Q

What agents are used to manage anterior uveitis post-surgery?

A

Topical atropine and systemic NSAIDs.

129
Q

How is a lateral canthotomy performed?

A

By making a 5-10 mm incision extending laterally from the canthus.

130
Q

What suture pattern is recommended to close a lateral canthotomy?

A

Simple-continuous for subcutaneous layer, simple-interrupted for skin.

131
Q

What is the function of figure-of-eight sutures in lid margin repair?

A

To secure apposition without causing corneal trauma.

132
Q

When is a simple-interrupted pattern chosen over simple-continuous?

A

For areas requiring precise and isolated tension, like scleral defects.

132
Q

Why is phenylephrine applied directly in conjunctivectomy?

A

For localized hemostasis control.

133
Q

What is the preferred tool for a superficial keratectomy incision?

A

Tenotomy scissors.

134
Q

Why are conjunctival defects typically left to heal by second intention?

A

The conjunctiva heals rapidly without needing primary closure.

135
Q

What is the typical thickness of the cornea?

A

0.7 mm.

135
Q

Why is general anesthesia recommended for a superficial keratectomy?

A

To ensure safety and precision during the procedure.

136
Q

What are two key tools used to perform the initial incision in superficial keratectomy?

A

A No. 64 or No. 69 Beaver blade and Corneal Colibri forceps.

137
Q

What is the purpose of a superficial keratectomy?

A

To remove the corneal epithelium and anterior stroma to a specific dept

138
Q

Why is a lamellar plane important in a superficial keratectomy?

A

To maintain a level and uniform corneal depth during dissection.

139
Q

What is a Martinez corneal dissector used for?

A

It’s a lamellar separator used to undermine the lesion.

140
Q

How is the remaining corneal bed inspected after stromal dissection?

A

Carefully, to confirm if additional tissue removal is needed.

141
Q

How long does epithelialization take post-superficial keratectomy?

A

1 to 2 weeks.

141
Q

What adjunctive therapy is sometimes used for limbal-based SCC removal?

A

Beta irradiation, cryotherapy, or mitomycin C.

142
Q

What additional procedures can aid healing if adjunctive therapy is used?

A

A conjunctival hood graft or amniotic membrane graft.

142
Q

List a common complication of superficial keratectomy.

A

Scarring, infection, or corneal perforation.

143
Q

What is the goal of adjunctive therapies for ocular surface tumors?

A

To reduce recurrence after tumor removal.

143
Q

When is a corneal graft indicated?

A

If dissection is deeper than 50% stromal depth.

144
Q

What depth of tissue does beta irradiation penetrate?

A

1 to 2 mm.

145
Q

Name a radioactive isotope used in beta irradiation therapy.

A

Strontium-90 (90Sr).

146
Q

What is the maximum safe dose for beta irradiation therapy?

A

500 Gy.

147
Q

What is the reported recurrence rate for beta irradiation combined with superficial keratectomy in equine corneal SCC?

A

17%.

147
Q

Why is cryotherapy less ideal for corneal lesions?

A

It can damage the corneal endothelium at temperatures over 25°C

148
Q

What temperature range is used for cryotherapy in limbal lesions?

A

−20°C to −40°C.

148
Q

What complication is associated with high doses of beta irradiation?

A

Permanent corneal endothelial damage.

149
Q

What type of cryotherapy delivery device is most preferred?

A

Contact CO2 or nitrous oxide units with small probe tips.

150
Q

List a complication of cryotherapy.

A

Chemosis, subconjunctival hemorrhage, or transitory uveitis.

150
Q

What is the recurrence rate for CO2 laser ablation in equine ocular tumors?

A

14%.

151
Q

Describe a visual sign that indicates effective CO2 laser ablation.

A

White discoloration at the treated site.

152
Q

What should be avoided during CO2 laser treatment?

A

Excessive laser energy and duration.

153
Q

What is mitomycin C’s role in adjunctive therapy?

A

It acts as an antineoplastic and antifibrotic agent

154
Q

What concentration of mitomycin C is typically used?

A

0.04%.

155
Q

How is mitomycin C applied post-surgery?

A

Topically, QID for 7 days with a 7-day interval.

156
Q

What is the primary action of mitomycin C?

A

Inhibiting DNA synthesis.

157
Q

For which lesions is intratumoral cisplatin used?

A

Conjunctival lesions.

157
Q

What complication can mitomycin C cause due to its toxicity?

A

Stromal corneal ulceration or conjunctival necrosis.

158
Q

What complication can result from beta irradiation?

A

Progressive corneal edema.

159
Q

What treatment combines with CO2 laser to treat surface ocular neoplasia in horses?

A

Superficial keratectomy.

160
Q

What type of tissue forms as a minor complication of CO2 laser treatment?

A

Granulation tissue.

161
Q

What specific temperature limit is crucial to avoid endothelial damage in cryotherapy?

A

Greater than 25°C.

162
Q

How does mitomycin C prevent tumor recurrence?

A

By inhibiting the DNA of residual cancer cells.

163
Q

Which adjunctive therapy is most likely to cause bullous keratopathy?

A

Mitomycin C.

164
Q

What determines the depth of incision during superficial keratectomy?

A

The depth required to remove abnormal tissue effectively.