Ch. 19 Special Radiographic Procedures Workbook Flashcards

1
Q

what is the most common pathologic indication for the HSG

A

assessment of female inferitility

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2
Q

what spinal space is the contrast medium introduced into during myelography

A

subarachnoid space

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3
Q

can skeletal surveys be performed as the initial imaging procedure

A

yes

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4
Q

image produced during a tomographic procedure

A

tomograph

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5
Q

the pivot point of the connecting rod between tube and IR

A

fulcrum

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6
Q

where is the most preferred puncture sire for myelography

A

lumbar (L3-L4)

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7
Q

where are postoperative (t-tube) cholangiograms generally performed

A

in radiology department

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8
Q

what procedure may be performed during a postoperative (T-tube) cholangiogram

A

removal of a biliary stone

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9
Q

how many images may be acquired in one sweep during DTS

A

as many as 60 images

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10
Q

a postoperative (t-tube) cholangiogram is usually performed after what

A

cholecystectomy

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11
Q

what are the other 2 clinical indication for HSG, other than female infertility

A
  • demonstration of intrauterine pathology
  • evaluation of the uterine tubes after tubal ligation or reconstructive surgery
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12
Q

will objects closer or further to the objective plane experience maximum blurring

A

away from (further)

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13
Q

what position is performed to demonstrate the region of C7 during a cervical myelogram

A

cervicothoracic (swimmer’s) lateral using a horizontal beam

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14
Q

which classification of joints are studied with arthography

A

synovial joints

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15
Q

what is the tomographic blurring principle

A

movement of tube and IR will blur objects further from the fulcrum level or objective plane, objects closer and those parallel to tube travel will remain station and experience little to no blurring

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16
Q

other than conventional radiography of synovial joints (arthrography), which imaging procedure is preferred by physicians for studying synovial joints

A

MRI or CT

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17
Q

after contrast medium is introduced into the knee joint should the knee be flexed at all

A

yes in order to distribute contrast

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18
Q

why is a large positioning block placed under the abdomen for a lumbar puncture in the prone position

A

for spinal flexion to widen the interspinous spaces to facilitate needle placement

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19
Q

to reduce patient anxiety, a sedative is usually administered how long before the procedure

A

1 hour

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20
Q

as exposure angle decreases, what does it do to slice thickness

A

thicker slice (thick cut)

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21
Q

which type of contrast medium is most commonly used for myelography

A

nonionic water-soluble, iodine based

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22
Q

what contrast medium is preferred by most radiologist for an HSG

A

water soluble iodinated

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23
Q

what is a hysterosalpinogram (HSG) a radiographic study of

A

uterus and uterine tubes

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24
Q

special type of imaging that is used to obtain a diagnostic image of a specific layer of tissue or an object that is superimposed by other tissues or objects

A

tomography

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25
Q

how is contrast medium removed from the body after myelography

A

excreted by kidneys

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26
Q

to help facilitate the flow of contrast media into the uterine cavity, what position is the patient placed following the injection of contrast media

A

slight trendelenburg

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27
Q

where does fertilization of the ovum occur

A

in the uterine tibe

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28
Q

myelography has been largely replaced by this

A

MRI and CT

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29
Q

postoperative (t-tube) cholangiograms are usually performed to detect what

A

biliary stones

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30
Q

what is the major reason hip to ankle long bone measurement studies are conducted

A

to determine limb length discrepancies and lower limb extremity alignment

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31
Q

what is the largest division of the uterus

A

corpus (body)

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32
Q

where is the CR for a projection taken during an HSG using a 10x12 IR

A

2” superior to symphysis pubis

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33
Q

what is myelography a radiographic study of

A

spinal cord and nerve root branches

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34
Q

T/F - the bucky tray lock must be securely locked before a tomographic exposure

A

false

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35
Q

T/F - anatomy at the fulcrum level becomes blurred and difficult to see on a radiograph

A

false

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36
Q

nonionic water-soluble iodine based contrast provides good radiopacity up to how long after injection

A

1 hour

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37
Q

what is the most common clinical indication for myelography

A

herniated nucleus pulposus (HNP)

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38
Q

to gain max blurring of the body of the sternum in tomography, how should it be placed to tube movement

A

perpendicular

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39
Q

what is the distal aspect of the uterus extending to the vagina

A

cervix

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40
Q

if surgery is indicated, how might long bone measurement imaging help with planning

A

to determine hardware needs and prothesis or appliance placement

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41
Q

what are the 2 routine projections for conventional radiographic projections used for knee arthrography

A

Ap and lateral

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42
Q

what exposure angle is recommended for a large structure or a thick cut

A

<(or equal to) 10 degrees

43
Q

what radiographic tools may be used to promote even x-ray absorption from hip to ankle with long bone measurements

A

a wedge filter or anode-heel effect

44
Q

on average, how many exposures are taken of each meniscus during fluoroscopy of the knee

A

9 images per meniscus

45
Q

is blurring a desired outcome of tomography

A

yes

46
Q

what is the general name for the conjoined tendons of the 4 major shoulder muscles

A

rotator cuff

47
Q

what type of needle is commonly used for shoulder arthograms

A

2 3/4 - 3 1/2” spinal needle

48
Q

what is an example of nontraumatic pathology of the knee joint indicating arthrography

A

Baker cyst

49
Q

what type of radiographic table must be used for myelography

A

90/45 degree or 90/90 degree tilting table

50
Q

what are 3 clinical indications for a shoulder arthogram

A
  • chronic pain
  • general weakness
  • suspected tear in the rotator cuff
51
Q

radiographic skeletal surveys may be performed following a positive finding on this

A

radionuclide bone scan

52
Q

where are the 2 common puncture sites for contrast media injection during myelography

A
  • lumbar (L3-L4)
  • cervical (C1-C2)
53
Q

myelography of which spinal regions is the most common

A

cervical and lumbar

54
Q

what is the minimum exposure time required to produce a breathing lateral projection of the t-spine

A

2 seconds

55
Q

the plane or section of the object that is clear and in relative focus

A

object (focal) plane

56
Q

what are the 4 common contraindications for myelography

A
  • blood in the cerebrospinal fluid
  • arachnoiditis
  • increased intracranial pressure
  • recent lumbar puncture (within 2 weeks)
57
Q

what is the name of the radiographic procedure of examining the biliary and main pancreatic ducts

A

endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatogram (ERCP)

58
Q

what type of special endoscope is commonly used for an ERCP

A

duodenoscope or video endoscope

59
Q

what member of the health care team usually performs an ERCP

A

gastroenterologist

60
Q

what are the 2 primary contraindications for arthrography of any joint

A
  • allergic reactions to iodine-based contrast media
  • allergic reactions to local anesthetics
61
Q

what are the 4 factors that determine amount of blurring

A
  • distance of object from the objective plane
  • exposure angle or amplitude
  • OID
  • alignment of anatomic part to tube movement
62
Q

why should a patient be NPO at least 1 hour after an ERCP

A

prevent aspiration of food or liquids into lungs

63
Q

why should the patient’s head and neck remain hyperextended during cervical myelography

A

to keep contrast from entering the cranial subarachnoid space

64
Q

what are the 6 projections frequently taken during a shoulder arthrogram

A
  • AP scout
  • AP internal rotation
  • AP external rotation
  • glenoid fossa (grashey)
  • transaxillary (inferosuperior)
  • intertubercular (bicipital) sulcus
65
Q

what is the patient’s general body position for a cervical puncture

A

erect or prone

66
Q

using an exposure angle of < or equal to 10 degrees

A

thick cut

67
Q

what is the normal appearance of synovial fluid

A

clear and tinged yellow

68
Q

what is the uterus situated between

A

rectosigmoid colon posteriorly and urinary bladder anteriorly

69
Q

the are of distortion of objects outside the objective plane

A

blur

70
Q

what are the 4 divisions of the uterus

A
  • fundus
  • corpus (body)
  • isthmus
  • cervix
71
Q

in addition to the supine position, what 2 other positions may be imaged to adequately visualize the pertinent anatomy for an HSG

A

LPO and RPO

72
Q

which 2 blood chemistry values must be checked before a postoperative (t-tube) cholangiogram

A
  • BUN (blood, urea, nitrogen)
  • creatinine
73
Q

what are the 4 common lesions or clinical indications demonstrated during myelography

A
  • herniated nucleus pulposus (HNP)
  • cancerous or benign tumors
  • cysts
  • possible bone fragments
74
Q

what is the contrast media for a t-tube cholangiogram occasionally diluted before injection

A

if it’s too concentrated it may obscure small stones in the biliary ducts

75
Q

what are the 2 types of contrast media used for a knee arthogram

A
  • positive/radiopaque such as iodinated water soluble
  • negative/radiolucent such as air, oxygen, or carbon dioxide
76
Q

if the patient is in an AP position but the biliary ducts are superimposed over the spine, which position will move it away from spine

A

RPO

77
Q

what are the 3 layers of tissue that form the uterus (from inner most to outer most)

A
  • endometrium
  • myometrium
  • serosa
78
Q

what is the recommended SID for long bone measurement studies of hip to ankle

A

120”

79
Q

how many degrees of rotation of the leg are used between exposures of the meniscus

A

20 degrees

80
Q

how far apart should the lateral malleoli be with the patient standing for long bone measurement images

A

20 cm

81
Q

what is the angle and placement of the CR for hip to ankle long bone measurement images

A

perpendicular to the knee joint

82
Q

what are the 3 common forms of knee injury that may require arthrography

A
  • tears of joint capsule
  • tears of menisci
  • tears of ligaments
83
Q

what is the main advantage of DTS over conventional tomography

A

structures in each plane are more clearly visible with out interference of tissue in front and back

84
Q

radiographic images that encompass the entire skeleton or those regions appropriate for the clinical indications

A

skeletal survery

85
Q

the distal portion of the uterine tube opens into this

A

peritoneal cavity

86
Q

what are some indications for a skeletal survery

A

to accurately identify the focal and diffuse abnormalities of the skeletal such as evaluation of fxs, bone lesions, metabolic bone disease, skeletal dysplasia, developmental changes

87
Q

what term is used to describe the “degree of openness” of the uterine tube

A

patency

88
Q

the distance from tabletop to fulcrum

A

fulcrum level

89
Q

multiple very low-dose x-ray projection images acquired from different angles during a single linear sweep of the x-ray tube across a stationary detector

A

digital tomosynthesis (DTS)

90
Q

the thickness of the objective or focal plane

A

sectional thickness

91
Q

what is the patient’s general body position for a lumbar puncture

A

prone or left lateral

92
Q

what projections are normally taken during a thoracic spine myelography

A

R and L lateral decubs and R or L lateral with vertical beam

93
Q

what condition of the pancreas may contraindicate an ERCP

A

pseudocyst

94
Q

what projections are taken for a cervical myelography

A
  • horizontal bream lateral (prone)
  • horizontal beam cervicothoracic lateral (swimmers)
95
Q

what projections are typically taken for a lumbar myelography

A

semierect horizontal beam lateral (prone)

96
Q

which locks on the x-ray tube must be opened or unlocked during linear tomography

A
  • longitudinal tube
  • bucky tray
  • angle locks
97
Q

what dosage range of contrast medium is usually injected for myelography

A

9-15 mL

98
Q

a tomographic principle in which the anatomic structure moves but the IR/tube remain stationary

A

orthostatic breathing technique

99
Q

what 4 aspects of shoulder anatomy are demonstrated with shoulder arthrography

A
  • joint capsule
  • rotator cuff
  • long tendon of biceps muscle
  • articular cartilage
100
Q

what are the 4 common adjustments or features found on the tomographic control panel

A
  • tube travel speed
  • tube angle
  • tube center
  • fulcrum
101
Q

what are the 3 common types of lesions that can be demonstrated during an HSG

A
  • endometrial polyps
  • uterine fibroids
  • intrauterine adhesions
102
Q

the total distance that the x-ray tube travels during the actual exposure

A

exposure angle (exposure amplitude)

103
Q

what device might be needed to aid the insertion and fixation of the cannula or catheter during the HSG

A

tenaculum