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Positioning 1 > Ch. 15 Trauma, Mobile, and Surgical Radiography > Flashcards

Ch. 15 Trauma, Mobile, and Surgical Radiography Flashcards

1
Q

the displacement of a bone that is no longer in contact with its normal articulation

A

dislocation

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2
Q

the most common dislocations encountered in trauma involve this region

A

shoulder, fingers/thumb, patella, and hip

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3
Q

a traumatic partial dislocation of the radial head of a child, caused by hard pull on the hand and wrist of a child

A

nursemaid elbow; jerked elbow

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4
Q

a forced wrenching or twisting of a joint resulting in a partial rupture or tearing of supporting ligaments, without dislocation

A

sprain

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5
Q

bruise type of injury with a possible avulsion fracture

A

contusion

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6
Q

a football injury involving contusion of bone at the iliac crest of the pelvis

A

hip pointer

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7
Q

a disruption of bone caused by mechanical forces applied either directly to the bone or transmitted along the shaft of the bone

A

fracture

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8
Q

this refers to the associative relationship between long axes of the fracture fragments

A

alignment

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9
Q

a fracture is aligned if…

A

long axes of the bone remain parallel to each other

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10
Q

this describes how the fragmented ends of the bone make contact with each other

A

apposition

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11
Q

anatomic alignment of ends of fractured bone fragments, wherein the ends of the fragments make end-to-end contact

A

anatomic apposition

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12
Q

the ends of fragments are aligned but pulled apart and are not making contact with each other

A

lack of apposition (distraction)

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13
Q

the fracture fragments overlap and the shafts make contact, but not at the fracture ends

A

Bayonet apposition

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14
Q

this describes loss of alignment of the fracture

A

angulation

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15
Q

this describes the direction or angle of the apex of the fracture, such as a medial or lateral apex, wherein the point or apex of the fracture points medially or laterally

A

apex angulation

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16
Q

the distal fragment ends are angled toward the midline of the body and the apex is pointed away from the midline

A

varus deformity

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17
Q

the distal fragments ends are angled away from the midline and the apex is pointed toward

A

valgus deformity

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18
Q

a fracture in which the bone does not break through the skin

A

simple (closed) fracture

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19
Q

fracture in which a portion of the bone (usually the fragmented end) protrudes through the skin

A

compound (open) fracture

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20
Q

this type of fracture does not traverse through the entire bone

A

incomplete (partial) fracture

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21
Q

what are the two major types of incomplete fractures

A

torus and greenstick

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22
Q

this is a buckle of the cortex, characterized by localized expansion of the cortex, possibly with little or no displacement, and no complete break in the cortex

A

torus fracture (buckle fracture)

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23
Q

this is a fracture on one side only, the cortex on one side of the bone is broken and the other side is bent

A

greenstick fracture (hickory or willow stick fracture)

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24
Q

in this fracture, the break is complete and includes the cross-section of bone, the bone is broken into 2 pieces

A

complete fracture

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25
Q

what are the 3 major types of complete fractures

A

transverse, oblique, spiral fracture

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26
Q

fracture is at a near right angle to the long axis of the bone

A

transverse fracture

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27
Q

fracture passes trough bone at an oblique angle

A

oblique fracture

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28
Q

the bone has been twisted apart and the fracture goes around the long axis of the bone

A

spiral fracture

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29
Q

in this fracture, the bone is splintered or crushed at the site of impact, resulting in two or more fragments

A

comminuted fracture

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30
Q

what are the 3 types of comminuted fractures

A

segmental, butterfly, and splintered fracture

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31
Q

a type of double fracture in which two fracture lines isolate a distinct segment of bone; the bone is broken into 3 pieces, with the middle fragment fracture at both ends

A

segmental fracture

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32
Q

a comminuted fracture with two fragments on each side of a main, wedge-shaped separate fragment

A

butterfly fracture

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33
Q

a comminuted fracture in which the bone is splintered into thin sharp fragments

A

splintered fracture

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34
Q

in this fracture, one fragment is firmly driven into the other, such as the shaft of the bone being driven into the head or end segment. most commonly occurs at distal or proximal ends of femur humerus or radius

A

impacted fracture

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35
Q

intra-articular fracture of the distal radius often associated with dislocation or subluxation of the radiocarpal joint

A

Barton fracture

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36
Q

fracture of the distal phalanx caused by a ball striking the end of an extended finger. the DIP joint is partially flexed, and an avulsion fracture is frequently present at the posterior base of the distal phalanx

A

baseball (mallet) fracture

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37
Q

this longitudinal fracture, which occurs at the base of the 1st metacarpal with the fracture line entering the carpometacarpal joint, generally includes a posterior dislocation or subluxation

A

Bennett fracture

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38
Q

this fracture usually involves the distal 5th metacarpal, with an apex posterior angulation best demonstrated on the lateral view

A

boxer fracture

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39
Q

this fracture of the wrist, in which the distal radius is fracture with the distal fragment displaced posteriorly, may result from a forward fall on an outstretched arm

A

colles fracture

40
Q

this is a fracture of the wrist with the distal fragment of the radius displaced anteriorly, commonly results from a backward fall on an outstretched arm

A

smith (reverse colles) fracture

41
Q

this fracture occurs through the pedicles of the axis (C2), with or without displacement of C2 or C3

A

hangman’s fracture

42
Q

this is an intra-articular fracture of the radial styloid process

A

Hutchinson (chauffeur) fracture

43
Q

this fracture of the proximal half of the ulna, along with dislocation of the radial head, may result from defending against blows with the raised forearm

A

monteggia fracture

44
Q

a complete fracture of the distal fibula with major injury to the ankle joint, including ligament damage and frequent fracture of the distal tibia or medial malleolus

A

pott’s fracture

45
Q

this fracture results from severe stress to a tendon or ligament in a joint region. a fragment of bone is separated or pulled away by the attached tendon or ligament

A

avulsion fracture

46
Q

these fractures, which result from a direct blow to the orbit and/or maxilla and zygoma, create fractures to the orbital floor and lateral orbital margins

A

blowout and/or tripod fracture

47
Q

this fracture involves an isolated bone fragment

A

chip fracture

48
Q

vertebral fracture caused by compression-type injury, vertebral body collapses

A

compression fracture

49
Q

in this fracture of the skull, a fragment is depressed

A

depressed fracture (ping-pong fracture)

50
Q

a fracture through the epiphyseal plate, one of the most easily fractured sites in long bones of children

A

epiphyseal fracture

51
Q

these fractures are due to disease process within the bone, such as osteoporosis, neoplasia, or other bone disease

A

pathologic fracture

52
Q

the lines radiate from a central point of injury with a starlike pattern, most common example of this type of fracture occurs at the patella

A

stellate fracture

53
Q

this type of fracture is nontraumatic in origin, results from repeated stress on a bone such as from marching or running

A

stress or fatigue fracture (march fracture)

54
Q

this fracture of the ankle joint involves the medial and lateral malleoli as well as the posterior lip of the distal tibia

A

trimalleolar fracture

55
Q

comminuted fracture of the distal phalanx may be caused by a crushing blow to the distal finger or thumb

A

tuft or burse fracture

56
Q

fracture fragments are realigned by manipulation and are immobilized by a cast or splint; nonsurgical procedure

A

closed reduction

57
Q

for severe fractures with significant displacement or fragmentation, a surgical procedure is required, the fracture site is exposed and screws, plates, or rods are installed as needed to maintain alignment of the bony fragments until new bone growth can take place

A

open reduction

58
Q

battery driven and battery operated mobile x-ray units are powered by these

A

10-16 rechargeable, sealed, lead acid-type 12 volt batteries

59
Q

what is top speed of battery driven mobile units

A

2.5-3 mph with max 7 degree incline

60
Q

driving range of mobile unit

A

10 miles on level surface with full charge

61
Q

what are the battery driven and operated mobile x-ray units driven and maneuvered by

A

dual-drive motors

62
Q

what can the battery driven and operated mobile x-ray units be recharged at

A

110-220 volts

63
Q

what do the standard power source, capacitor-discharge, non-motor driven units operate on

A

110 v, 15 amp power source or 220v, 10 amp power source

64
Q

for upper and lower limb follow up examinations what must be included

A

minimum of one joint - nearest the site of injury

65
Q

this imaging modality is useful for evaluating emergency conditions such as pulmonary embolus, testicular torsion, and GI bleeding

A

nuclear medicine

66
Q

how far should top of IR be above the shoulders for an AP chest

A

about 2” (4-5cm) above shoulders

67
Q

what is CR on an AP chest

A

3-4” below jugular notch and angles 3-5 degrees caudad

68
Q

to determine air fluid levels when the patient cannot be elevated sufficiently for an erect chest, what is performed

A

left lateral decubitus position

69
Q

when an upright abdomen is not possible, what projection is taken to see air-fluid levels and possible free air in the abdomen

A

left lateral decubitus position

70
Q

where is CR on an AP supine abdomen

A

iliac crest

71
Q

where is CR on a left lateral decubitus abdomen

A

2” above iliac crest

72
Q

for a lateral decubitus abdomen how long must the patient be laying on their side before making an exposure

A

minimum of 5 minutes

73
Q

what is a dorsal decubitus abdomen used for

A

possible abdominal aortic aneurysms or in place of lateral decubitus if patient can’t be moved

74
Q

CR for scapular Y

A

scapulohumeral joint - 2-2.5” below top of shoulder

75
Q

CR for inferosuperior axial of shoulder

A

CR angled 15-30 degrees (less angle for less abduction of arm)

76
Q

CR for trauma oblique foot

A

angled lateromedially 30-40 degrees

77
Q

CR for trauma mortise

A

angled lateromedially 15-20 degrees

78
Q

CR for AP pelvis

A

midway between ASIS and pubic symphysis - 2” inferior to ASIS (top of IR 1” above iliac crest)

79
Q

CR for trauma AP hip

A

1-2” distal to midfemoral neck

80
Q

IR placement for lateral horizontal beam of c-spine

A

top of IR 1-2” above EAM

81
Q

CR for cervicothoracic swimmers

A

C7-T1 - 1” above jugular notch (5 degree caudal angle may be necessary if pt can’t depress shoulder)

82
Q

where is CR for lateral lumbar spine

A

L4 - iliac crest

83
Q

physician licensed and trained in general surgery or a specialty such as cardiovascular or orthopedic procedures

A

surgeon

83
Q

this person specializes in administering anesthetic drugs to induce and maintain anesthesia in the patient during surgery

A

anesthesiologist (physician anesthesiologist or certified nurse anesthetist)

83
Q

this person’s range of responsibilities may include suctioning, tying and clamping blood vessels and assisting in cutting and suturing tissue

A

surgical assistant (physician, physician assistant, CST, or RN)

84
Q

health professional who prepares the OR by supplying it with the appropriate supplies and instruments

A

certified surgical technologist

85
Q

nonsterile CST or RN who assists in the OR by responding to the needs of scrubbed members in the sterile filed before, during, and after the surgical procedure

A

circulator

86
Q

someone who prepares the sterile field scrubs, gowns the members of the surgical team, and prepares and sterilizes the instruments before the surgical procedure is begun

A

scrub (CST or RN)

87
Q

equipment permanently stored in the surgical area must be cleaned how often

A

weekly or as needed

88
Q

why are intramedullary rods better than compression plates and screws for reducing mid shaft fractures

A

minimizes amount of tissue exposed during surgery, decrease surgical and healing time, reduces opportunity for postsurgical infection

89
Q

this is taken when the urologist withdraws the catheter and injects contrast into one or both ureters

A

ureterogram

90
Q

this is taken when the urologist injects 3-5mL of contrast directly through the catheter into the renal pelvis of one or both kidneys

A

pyelogram

91
Q

this is performed during surgery to demonstrate anatomy of the biliary ductal system

A

operative (immediate) cholangiography

92
Q

this provides a less invasive approach for the removal of a diseased gallbladder

A

laparoscopic cholecystectomy

93
Q

this position is helpful in projecting the biliary ducts away from the spine

A

RPO position

94
Q

this is a nonfunctional exam of the urinary system during with contrast is introduced against the flow

A

retrograde urography

Positioning 1 (53 decks)

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