Ch. 15 Trauma, Mobile, and Surgical Radiography Flashcards

1
Q

the displacement of a bone that is no longer in contact with its normal articulation

A

dislocation

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2
Q

the most common dislocations encountered in trauma involve this region

A

shoulder, fingers/thumb, patella, and hip

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3
Q

a traumatic partial dislocation of the radial head of a child, caused by hard pull on the hand and wrist of a child

A

nursemaid elbow; jerked elbow

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4
Q

a forced wrenching or twisting of a joint resulting in a partial rupture or tearing of supporting ligaments, without dislocation

A

sprain

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5
Q

bruise type of injury with a possible avulsion fracture

A

contusion

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6
Q

a football injury involving contusion of bone at the iliac crest of the pelvis

A

hip pointer

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7
Q

a disruption of bone caused by mechanical forces applied either directly to the bone or transmitted along the shaft of the bone

A

fracture

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8
Q

this refers to the associative relationship between long axes of the fracture fragments

A

alignment

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9
Q

a fracture is aligned if…

A

long axes of the bone remain parallel to each other

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10
Q

this describes how the fragmented ends of the bone make contact with each other

A

apposition

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11
Q

anatomic alignment of ends of fractured bone fragments, wherein the ends of the fragments make end-to-end contact

A

anatomic apposition

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12
Q

the ends of fragments are aligned but pulled apart and are not making contact with each other

A

lack of apposition (distraction)

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13
Q

the fracture fragments overlap and the shafts make contact, but not at the fracture ends

A

Bayonet apposition

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14
Q

this describes loss of alignment of the fracture

A

angulation

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15
Q

this describes the direction or angle of the apex of the fracture, such as a medial or lateral apex, wherein the point or apex of the fracture points medially or laterally

A

apex angulation

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16
Q

the distal fragment ends are angled toward the midline of the body and the apex is pointed away from the midline

A

varus deformity

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17
Q

the distal fragments ends are angled away from the midline and the apex is pointed toward

A

valgus deformity

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18
Q

a fracture in which the bone does not break through the skin

A

simple (closed) fracture

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19
Q

fracture in which a portion of the bone (usually the fragmented end) protrudes through the skin

A

compound (open) fracture

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20
Q

this type of fracture does not traverse through the entire bone

A

incomplete (partial) fracture

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21
Q

what are the two major types of incomplete fractures

A

torus and greenstick

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22
Q

this is a buckle of the cortex, characterized by localized expansion of the cortex, possibly with little or no displacement, and no complete break in the cortex

A

torus fracture (buckle fracture)

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23
Q

this is a fracture on one side only, the cortex on one side of the bone is broken and the other side is bent

A

greenstick fracture (hickory or willow stick fracture)

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24
Q

in this fracture, the break is complete and includes the cross-section of bone, the bone is broken into 2 pieces

A

complete fracture

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25
what are the 3 major types of complete fractures
transverse, oblique, spiral fracture
26
fracture is at a near right angle to the long axis of the bone
transverse fracture
27
fracture passes trough bone at an oblique angle
oblique fracture
28
the bone has been twisted apart and the fracture goes around the long axis of the bone
spiral fracture
29
in this fracture, the bone is splintered or crushed at the site of impact, resulting in two or more fragments
comminuted fracture
30
what are the 3 types of comminuted fractures
segmental, butterfly, and splintered fracture
31
a type of double fracture in which two fracture lines isolate a distinct segment of bone; the bone is broken into 3 pieces, with the middle fragment fracture at both ends
segmental fracture
32
a comminuted fracture with two fragments on each side of a main, wedge-shaped separate fragment
butterfly fracture
33
a comminuted fracture in which the bone is splintered into thin sharp fragments
splintered fracture
34
in this fracture, one fragment is firmly driven into the other, such as the shaft of the bone being driven into the head or end segment. most commonly occurs at distal or proximal ends of femur humerus or radius
impacted fracture
35
intra-articular fracture of the distal radius often associated with dislocation or subluxation of the radiocarpal joint
Barton fracture
36
fracture of the distal phalanx caused by a ball striking the end of an extended finger. the DIP joint is partially flexed, and an avulsion fracture is frequently present at the posterior base of the distal phalanx
baseball (mallet) fracture
37
this longitudinal fracture, which occurs at the base of the 1st metacarpal with the fracture line entering the carpometacarpal joint, generally includes a posterior dislocation or subluxation
Bennett fracture
38
this fracture usually involves the distal 5th metacarpal, with an apex posterior angulation best demonstrated on the lateral view
boxer fracture
39
this fracture of the wrist, in which the distal radius is fracture with the distal fragment displaced posteriorly, may result from a forward fall on an outstretched arm
colles fracture
40
this is a fracture of the wrist with the distal fragment of the radius displaced anteriorly, commonly results from a backward fall on an outstretched arm
smith (reverse colles) fracture
41
this fracture occurs through the pedicles of the axis (C2), with or without displacement of C2 or C3
hangman's fracture
42
this is an intra-articular fracture of the radial styloid process
Hutchinson (chauffeur) fracture
43
this fracture of the proximal half of the ulna, along with dislocation of the radial head, may result from defending against blows with the raised forearm
monteggia fracture
44
a complete fracture of the distal fibula with major injury to the ankle joint, including ligament damage and frequent fracture of the distal tibia or medial malleolus
pott's fracture
45
this fracture results from severe stress to a tendon or ligament in a joint region. a fragment of bone is separated or pulled away by the attached tendon or ligament
avulsion fracture
46
these fractures, which result from a direct blow to the orbit and/or maxilla and zygoma, create fractures to the orbital floor and lateral orbital margins
blowout and/or tripod fracture
47
this fracture involves an isolated bone fragment
chip fracture
48
vertebral fracture caused by compression-type injury, vertebral body collapses
compression fracture
49
in this fracture of the skull, a fragment is depressed
depressed fracture (ping-pong fracture)
50
a fracture through the epiphyseal plate, one of the most easily fractured sites in long bones of children
epiphyseal fracture
51
these fractures are due to disease process within the bone, such as osteoporosis, neoplasia, or other bone disease
pathologic fracture
52
the lines radiate from a central point of injury with a starlike pattern, most common example of this type of fracture occurs at the patella
stellate fracture
53
this type of fracture is nontraumatic in origin, results from repeated stress on a bone such as from marching or running
stress or fatigue fracture (march fracture)
54
this fracture of the ankle joint involves the medial and lateral malleoli as well as the posterior lip of the distal tibia
trimalleolar fracture
55
comminuted fracture of the distal phalanx may be caused by a crushing blow to the distal finger or thumb
tuft or burse fracture
56
fracture fragments are realigned by manipulation and are immobilized by a cast or splint; nonsurgical procedure
closed reduction
57
for severe fractures with significant displacement or fragmentation, a surgical procedure is required, the fracture site is exposed and screws, plates, or rods are installed as needed to maintain alignment of the bony fragments until new bone growth can take place
open reduction
58
battery driven and battery operated mobile x-ray units are powered by these
10-16 rechargeable, sealed, lead acid-type 12 volt batteries
59
what is top speed of battery driven mobile units
2.5-3 mph with max 7 degree incline
60
driving range of mobile unit
10 miles on level surface with full charge
61
what are the battery driven and operated mobile x-ray units driven and maneuvered by
dual-drive motors
62
what can the battery driven and operated mobile x-ray units be recharged at
110-220 volts
63
what do the standard power source, capacitor-discharge, non-motor driven units operate on
110 v, 15 amp power source or 220v, 10 amp power source
64
for upper and lower limb follow up examinations what must be included
minimum of one joint - nearest the site of injury
65
this imaging modality is useful for evaluating emergency conditions such as pulmonary embolus, testicular torsion, and GI bleeding
nuclear medicine
66
how far should top of IR be above the shoulders for an AP chest
about 2" (4-5cm) above shoulders
67
what is CR on an AP chest
3-4" below jugular notch and angles 3-5 degrees caudad
68
to determine air fluid levels when the patient cannot be elevated sufficiently for an erect chest, what is performed
left lateral decubitus position
69
when an upright abdomen is not possible, what projection is taken to see air-fluid levels and possible free air in the abdomen
left lateral decubitus position
70
where is CR on an AP supine abdomen
iliac crest
71
where is CR on a left lateral decubitus abdomen
2" above iliac crest
72
for a lateral decubitus abdomen how long must the patient be laying on their side before making an exposure
minimum of 5 minutes
73
what is a dorsal decubitus abdomen used for
possible abdominal aortic aneurysms or in place of lateral decubitus if patient can't be moved
74
CR for scapular Y
scapulohumeral joint - 2-2.5" below top of shoulder
75
CR for inferosuperior axial of shoulder
CR angled 15-30 degrees (less angle for less abduction of arm)
76
CR for trauma oblique foot
angled lateromedially 30-40 degrees
77
CR for trauma mortise
angled lateromedially 15-20 degrees
78
CR for AP pelvis
midway between ASIS and pubic symphysis - 2" inferior to ASIS (top of IR 1" above iliac crest)
79
CR for trauma AP hip
1-2" distal to midfemoral neck
80
IR placement for lateral horizontal beam of c-spine
top of IR 1-2" above EAM
81
CR for cervicothoracic swimmers
C7-T1 - 1" above jugular notch (5 degree caudal angle may be necessary if pt can't depress shoulder)
82
where is CR for lateral lumbar spine
L4 - iliac crest
83
physician licensed and trained in general surgery or a specialty such as cardiovascular or orthopedic procedures
surgeon
83
this person specializes in administering anesthetic drugs to induce and maintain anesthesia in the patient during surgery
anesthesiologist (physician anesthesiologist or certified nurse anesthetist)
83
this person's range of responsibilities may include suctioning, tying and clamping blood vessels and assisting in cutting and suturing tissue
surgical assistant (physician, physician assistant, CST, or RN)
84
health professional who prepares the OR by supplying it with the appropriate supplies and instruments
certified surgical technologist
85
nonsterile CST or RN who assists in the OR by responding to the needs of scrubbed members in the sterile filed before, during, and after the surgical procedure
circulator
86
someone who prepares the sterile field scrubs, gowns the members of the surgical team, and prepares and sterilizes the instruments before the surgical procedure is begun
scrub (CST or RN)
87
equipment permanently stored in the surgical area must be cleaned how often
weekly or as needed
88
why are intramedullary rods better than compression plates and screws for reducing mid shaft fractures
minimizes amount of tissue exposed during surgery, decrease surgical and healing time, reduces opportunity for postsurgical infection
89
this is taken when the urologist withdraws the catheter and injects contrast into one or both ureters
ureterogram
90
this is taken when the urologist injects 3-5mL of contrast directly through the catheter into the renal pelvis of one or both kidneys
pyelogram
91
this is performed during surgery to demonstrate anatomy of the biliary ductal system
operative (immediate) cholangiography
92
this provides a less invasive approach for the removal of a diseased gallbladder
laparoscopic cholecystectomy
93
this position is helpful in projecting the biliary ducts away from the spine
RPO position
94
this is a nonfunctional exam of the urinary system during with contrast is introduced against the flow
retrograde urography