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Positioning 1 > Ch. 1 - Terminology, Positioning, and Imaging Principles > Flashcards

Ch. 1 - Terminology, Positioning, and Imaging Principles Flashcards

1
Q

the science of the structure of the human body

A

anatomy

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2
Q

how structures of the human body function

A

physiology

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3
Q

the lowest level of organization in the human body

A

chemical level

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4
Q

all chemicals necessary for maintaining life are composed of what

A

atoms

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5
Q

atoms join together to form these

A

molecules

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6
Q

various chemicals in the form of molecules band together to form what

A

cells

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7
Q

This is the basic structural and functional unit of the human body

A

cells

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8
Q

groups of similar cells that perform a specific function

A

tissue

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9
Q

how many bones in the adult skeleton

A

206

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10
Q

how many bones in the axial skeleton

A

80

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11
Q

how many bones in the appendicular skeleton

A

126

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12
Q

lowest level of structural organization in the human body

A

chemical level

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13
Q

4 basic types of tissues

A

epithelial, connective, muscular, nervous

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14
Q

body system that eliminates solid waste

A

digestive system

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15
Q

body system that regulates fluid and electrolyte balance and volume

A

urinary system

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16
Q

body system that maintains posture

A

muscular system

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17
Q

body system that regulates body activities with electrical impulses

A

nervous system

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18
Q

body system that regulates bodily activities through various hormones

A

endocrine system

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19
Q

body system that eliminates carbon dioxide from blood

A

respiratory system

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20
Q

body system that receives stimuli, such as temperature, pressure, and pain

A

integumentary system

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21
Q

body system that reproduces the organism

A

reproductive system

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22
Q

body system that regulates body temperature

A

circulatory system

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23
Q

body system that supports and protects many soft tissues of the body

A

skeletal system

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24
Q

which of the following body systems synthesizes vitamin D and other biochemicals

A

integumentary system

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25
Q

what is the largest organ system in the body

A

integumentary system

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26
Q

T/F the scapula is a part of the axial skeleton

A

false

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27
Q

T/F the pelvic girdle is part of the appendicular skeleton

A

true`

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28
Q

4 classifications of bone

A

long, short, irregular, flat

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29
Q

outer covering of a long bone, which is composed of a dense, fibrous membrane, is called what

A

periosteum

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30
Q

which aspect of long bones is responsible for the production of red blood cells

A

medullary aspect

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31
Q

which aspect of the long bone is essential for bone growth, repair, and nutrition

A

periosteum

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32
Q

primary growth center for long bones

A

diaphysis (body)

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33
Q

secondary growth center for long bones

A

epiphysis

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34
Q

T/F epiphyseal fusion of the long bones is complete by the age of 16 years

A

false - 20-25 years

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35
Q

wider portion of a long bone in which bone growth in length occurs

A

metaphysis

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36
Q

3 functional classifications of joints

A

synarthrosis, amphiarthrosis, diarthrosis

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37
Q

3 structural classifications of joints

A

fibrous, cartilaginous, synovial

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38
Q

structural classification of first carpoetacarpal

A

synovial joint

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39
Q

structural classification of roots around teeth

A

fibrous joint

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40
Q

structural classification of proximal radioulnar joint

A

synovial joint

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41
Q

structural classification of skull sutures

A

fibrous joint

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42
Q

structural classification of epiphysis

A

cartilaginous joint

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43
Q

structural classification of interphalangeal joints

A

synovial joint

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44
Q

structural classification of distal tibiofibular joint

A

fibrous joint

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45
Q

structural classification of intervertebral disk space

A

cartilaginous joint

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46
Q

structural classification of symphysis pubis

A

cartilaginous joint

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47
Q

structural classification of hip joint

A

synovial joint

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48
Q

7 types of movement for synovial joints

A

plane (gliding)
ginglymus (hinge)
pivot (trochoid)
ellipsoid (condylar)
saddle (sellar)
ball and socket (spheroidal)
bicondylar

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49
Q

what type of synovial joint is first carpometacarpal joint

A

saddle

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50
Q

what type of synovial joint is elbow joint

A

ginglymus

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51
Q

what type of synovial joint is shoulder joint

A

ball and socket

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52
Q

what type of synovial joint is intercarpal joint

A

plane

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53
Q

what type of synovial joint is wrist joint

A

ellipsoidal

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54
Q

what type of synovial joint is temporomandibular joint

A

bicondylar

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55
Q

what type of synovial joint is first and second cervical vertebra joint

A

pivot

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56
Q

what type of synovial joint is second interphalangeal joint

A

ginglymus

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57
Q

what type of synovial joint is distal radioulnar joint

A

pivot

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58
Q

what type of synovial joint is ankle joint

A

saddle

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59
Q

what type of synovial joint is knee joint

A

bicondylar

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60
Q

what type of synovial joint is third metacarpophalangeal joint

A

ellipsoidal

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61
Q

the build, physique, and general shape of the body are defined as

A

body habitus

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62
Q

which of the following body-type classification makes up 50% of the population

A

sthenic

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63
Q

which of the following body-type classifications makes up 35% of the population

A

hyposthenic

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64
Q

the image receptor for a hypersthenic adult chest examination should be placed

A

landscape

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65
Q

T/F approximately 5% of the population is classified as hypersthenic

A

true

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66
Q

T/F the term asthenic is only applied to pediatric patient

A

false

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67
Q

an image of a patient’s anatomic part(s) as produced by the actions of x-rays on an image receptor

A

radiograph

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68
Q

aspect of an x-ray beam that has the least divergence (unless there is angulation)

A

central ray (CR)

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69
Q

an upright position with arms abducted, palms forward, and head and feet together and directed straight ahead describes what

A

anatomic position

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70
Q

the vertical plane that divides the body into equal right and left parts

A

median/midsagittal plane

71
Q

vertical plane that divides the body into equal anterior and posterior parts

A

midcoronal plane

72
Q

plane taken at right angles along any point of the longitudinal axis of the body

A

transverse, axial, or horizontal plane

73
Q

T/F the base plane of the skull is a transverse plane located between the infraorbital margin of the orbits and the superior margin of the external auditory meatus (EAM)

A

true

74
Q

T/F the Frankfort horizontal plane is also referred to as the occlusal plane

A

false - base plane of skull

75
Q

the direction or path of the central ray (CR) defines the following term

A

projection

76
Q

positioning term that describes the general and specific body position is

A

position

77
Q

T/F oblique body and lateral positions are described according to the side of the body closest to the image receptor

A

true

78
Q

decubitus positions always use a horizontal x-ray beam

A

true

79
Q

what is the name of the position in which the body is turned 90 degrees from a true AP or PA projection

A

lateral position

80
Q

a patient is erect with their back to the image receptor. the left side of the body is turned 45 degrees toward the image receptor, what is this positoin

A

LPO

81
Q

a patient is recumbent facing the image receptor. the right side of the body is turned 15 degrees toward the image receptor, what is this position

A

RAO

82
Q

the patient is lying on his/her back. the x-ray beam is directed horizontally and enters the right side and exits the left side of the body. an image receptor is placed against the left side of the patient, what specific position has been performed

A

dorsal decubitus (left lateral position)

83
Q

the patient is erect with the right side of the body against the image receptor. the x-ray beam enters the left side and exits the right side of the body, what position has been performed

A

right lateral

84
Q

a patient on a cart is lying on the left side. the x-ray beam is directed horizontally and enters the posterior surface and exits the anterior aspect of the body. the image receptor is against the anterior surface, what specific position has been performed

A

left lateral decubitus

85
Q

term for palm of the hand

A

palmar

86
Q

term for lying on the back facing upward

A

supine

87
Q

term for an upright position

A

erect

88
Q

term for lying in any position

A

recumbent

89
Q

term for front half of the patient

A

anterior

90
Q

term for top or anterior surface of the foot

A

dorsum pedis

91
Q

term for position in which head is higher than the feet

A

fowler

92
Q

term for posterior aspect of the foot

A

plantar

93
Q

term for position in which head is lower than the feet

A

trendelenburg

94
Q

term for back half of the patient

A

posterior

95
Q

a projection using a CR angle of more than 10 degrees directed parallel along the long axis of the body or body part

A

axial projection

96
Q

position that demonstrates the apices of the lungs, without superimposition of the clavicles, is termed

A

lordotic (apical) position

97
Q

T/F radiographic view is not a correct positioning term in the United States

A

true

98
Q

T/F the term varus describes the bending of a part outward

A

false - inward

99
Q

opposite of flexion

A

extension

100
Q

opposite of ulnar deviation

A

radial deviation

101
Q

opposite of dorsiflexion

A

plantar flexion

102
Q

opposite of eversion

A

inversion

103
Q

opposite of lateral (external) rotation

A

medial (internal) rotation

104
Q

opposite of abduction

A

adduction

105
Q

opposite of supination

A

pronation

106
Q

opposite of retraction

A

protraction

107
Q

opposite of depression

A

elevation

108
Q

near the source or beginning

A

proximal

109
Q

on the opposite side

A

contralateral

110
Q

toward the center

A

medial

111
Q

toward the head end of the body

A

cephalad or superior

112
Q

away from the source or beginning

A

distal

113
Q

outside or outward

A

exterior

114
Q

on the same side

A

ipsilateral

115
Q

near the skin surface

A

superficial

116
Q

away from the head end

A

caudad or inferior

117
Q

farther from the skin surface

A

deep

118
Q

moving or thrusting the jaw forward from the normal position in an example of

A

protraction

119
Q

to turn or bend the wrist toward the thumb side

A

radial deviation

120
Q

which two types of information should be imprinted on every radiographic image

A

patient ID & date and anatomic side markers

121
Q

3 recommendations stated in the ASRT ACE communication campaign

A

Announce your name
Communicate your credentials
Explain what you’ll be doing

122
Q

minimum projections for a foot exam

A

3

123
Q

minimum projections for a chest exam

A

2

124
Q

minimum projections for a wrist exam

A

3

125
Q

minimum projections for a tibia/fibula exam

A

2

126
Q

minimum projections for a humerus

A

2

127
Q

minimum projections for a fifth toe

A

3

128
Q

minimum projections for a postreduction of wrist

A

2

129
Q

minimum projections for a left hip exam

A

2

130
Q

minimum projections for a knee exam

A

3

131
Q

minimum projections for a pelvis exam with no hip injury

A

1

132
Q

physical localization of topographic landmarks on a patient

A

palpation

133
Q

which two landmarks may not be palpated because of institutional policy

A

symphysis pubis, ischial tuberosity

134
Q

T/F the technologist should verify that the correct patient is having the correct procedure by a minimum of two means

A

true

135
Q

the range of exposure over which a film produces an acceptable image

A

exposure latitude

136
Q

which exposure factor controls the energy or penetrating power of the x-ray beam

A

kVp

137
Q

exposure time is usually expressed in what

A

milliseconds

138
Q

the amount of blackness seen on a processed radiograph

A

density

139
Q

the primary controlling factor for the overall blackness on a radiograph

A

mAs

140
Q

if SID is increased from 40 to 80 inches, what specific effect will it have on the radiographic density if other factors are not changed

A

decrease density to 25%

141
Q

which term is used to describe a radiograph that has too little density

A

underexposed

142
Q

doubling the mAs will result in what to the density of the image

A

double the density

143
Q

a minimum change of what in mAs is required to make a visible difference in the radiographic density

A

25%-30%

144
Q

according to the anode heel effect, the x-ray beam is less intense at what end of the x-ray tube

A

anode

145
Q

to best use the anode heel effect, the thicker part of the anatomic structure should be placed under what end of the x-ray tube

A

cathode

146
Q

what device may be used to compensate for the difference in anatomic part thickness and produce an acceptable density on the IR image

A

compensating filters

147
Q

which compensating filter is used commonly for AP projections of the thoracic spine

A

wedge filter

148
Q

which type of compensating filter permits soft tissue and bony detail of the shoulder to be equally visualized

A

boomerang filter

149
Q

the difference in density on adjacent areas of the radiographic image defines

A

radiographic contrast

150
Q

what is the primary controlling factor for (analog) radiographic contrast

A

kVp

151
Q

what is the radiographic scale for high contrast

A

short-scale

152
Q

what is the radiographic scale for low contrast

A

long-scale

153
Q

what scale of contrast is produced with a 100-kVp technique

A

long-scale (low contrast)

154
Q

T/F a 50 kVp technique produces a high-contrast image

A

True

155
Q

the recorded sharpness of structures or objects on the radiograph

A

spatial resolution

156
Q

the lack of visible sharpness

A

blur or unsharpness

157
Q

the unsharp edges of the projected image

A

penumbra

158
Q

the greatest deterrent to image unsharpness as related to positioning is

A

motion

159
Q

what is the best mechanism to control involuntary motion during exposure

A

decrease exposure time

160
Q

the misrepresentation of an object size or shape projected onto a radiograph recording medium is called

A

distortion

161
Q

T/F a decrease in SID reduces distortion

A

false

162
Q

T/F an increase in OID reduces distortion

A

false

163
Q

T/F distortion is reduced when the CR is kept perpendicular to the plane of the image receptor

A

true

164
Q

T/F every radiographic image reflects some degree of unsharpness, even if the smallest focal spot is used

A

true

165
Q

T/F as the distance between the object and the image receptor is increased, magnification is reduced

A

false

166
Q

T/F image distortion increases as the angle of divergence increases from the center of the x-ray beam to the outer edges

A

true

167
Q

T/F the greater the angle of inclination of the object or the IR, the greater the amount of distortion

A

true

168
Q

T/F digital imaging systems have a narrow dynamic range

A

false

169
Q

digital processing involves the systemic application of highly complex mathematical formulas called

A

algorithms

170
Q

the range or level of image contrast in the digital image is primarily controlled by what

A

digital processing

171
Q

current range of spatial resolution for digital radiographic imaging systems is between

A

2.5 and 5.0m lp/mm

172
Q

a random disturbance that obscures or reduces clarity is the definition for

A

noise

173
Q

changing or enhancing the electronic image to improve its diagnostic quality is called

A

postprocessing

Positioning 1 (53 decks)

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