Ch. 1 - Terminology, Positioning, and Imaging Principles Flashcards
the science of the structure of the human body
anatomy
how structures of the human body function
physiology
the lowest level of organization in the human body
chemical level
all chemicals necessary for maintaining life are composed of what
atoms
atoms join together to form these
molecules
various chemicals in the form of molecules band together to form what
cells
This is the basic structural and functional unit of the human body
cells
groups of similar cells that perform a specific function
tissue
how many bones in the adult skeleton
206
how many bones in the axial skeleton
80
how many bones in the appendicular skeleton
126
lowest level of structural organization in the human body
chemical level
4 basic types of tissues
epithelial, connective, muscular, nervous
body system that eliminates solid waste
digestive system
body system that regulates fluid and electrolyte balance and volume
urinary system
body system that maintains posture
muscular system
body system that regulates body activities with electrical impulses
nervous system
body system that regulates bodily activities through various hormones
endocrine system
body system that eliminates carbon dioxide from blood
respiratory system
body system that receives stimuli, such as temperature, pressure, and pain
integumentary system
body system that reproduces the organism
reproductive system
body system that regulates body temperature
circulatory system
body system that supports and protects many soft tissues of the body
skeletal system
which of the following body systems synthesizes vitamin D and other biochemicals
integumentary system
what is the largest organ system in the body
integumentary system
T/F the scapula is a part of the axial skeleton
false
T/F the pelvic girdle is part of the appendicular skeleton
true`
4 classifications of bone
long, short, irregular, flat
outer covering of a long bone, which is composed of a dense, fibrous membrane, is called what
periosteum
which aspect of long bones is responsible for the production of red blood cells
medullary aspect
which aspect of the long bone is essential for bone growth, repair, and nutrition
periosteum
primary growth center for long bones
diaphysis (body)
secondary growth center for long bones
epiphysis
T/F epiphyseal fusion of the long bones is complete by the age of 16 years
false - 20-25 years
wider portion of a long bone in which bone growth in length occurs
metaphysis
3 functional classifications of joints
synarthrosis, amphiarthrosis, diarthrosis
3 structural classifications of joints
fibrous, cartilaginous, synovial
structural classification of first carpoetacarpal
synovial joint
structural classification of roots around teeth
fibrous joint
structural classification of proximal radioulnar joint
synovial joint
structural classification of skull sutures
fibrous joint
structural classification of epiphysis
cartilaginous joint
structural classification of interphalangeal joints
synovial joint
structural classification of distal tibiofibular joint
fibrous joint
structural classification of intervertebral disk space
cartilaginous joint
structural classification of symphysis pubis
cartilaginous joint
structural classification of hip joint
synovial joint
7 types of movement for synovial joints
plane (gliding)
ginglymus (hinge)
pivot (trochoid)
ellipsoid (condylar)
saddle (sellar)
ball and socket (spheroidal)
bicondylar
what type of synovial joint is first carpometacarpal joint
saddle
what type of synovial joint is elbow joint
ginglymus
what type of synovial joint is shoulder joint
ball and socket
what type of synovial joint is intercarpal joint
plane
what type of synovial joint is wrist joint
ellipsoidal
what type of synovial joint is temporomandibular joint
bicondylar
what type of synovial joint is first and second cervical vertebra joint
pivot
what type of synovial joint is second interphalangeal joint
ginglymus
what type of synovial joint is distal radioulnar joint
pivot
what type of synovial joint is ankle joint
saddle
what type of synovial joint is knee joint
bicondylar
what type of synovial joint is third metacarpophalangeal joint
ellipsoidal
the build, physique, and general shape of the body are defined as
body habitus
which of the following body-type classification makes up 50% of the population
sthenic
which of the following body-type classifications makes up 35% of the population
hyposthenic
the image receptor for a hypersthenic adult chest examination should be placed
landscape
T/F approximately 5% of the population is classified as hypersthenic
true
T/F the term asthenic is only applied to pediatric patient
false
an image of a patient’s anatomic part(s) as produced by the actions of x-rays on an image receptor
radiograph
aspect of an x-ray beam that has the least divergence (unless there is angulation)
central ray (CR)
an upright position with arms abducted, palms forward, and head and feet together and directed straight ahead describes what
anatomic position
the vertical plane that divides the body into equal right and left parts
median/midsagittal plane
vertical plane that divides the body into equal anterior and posterior parts
midcoronal plane
plane taken at right angles along any point of the longitudinal axis of the body
transverse, axial, or horizontal plane
T/F the base plane of the skull is a transverse plane located between the infraorbital margin of the orbits and the superior margin of the external auditory meatus (EAM)
true
T/F the Frankfort horizontal plane is also referred to as the occlusal plane
false - base plane of skull
the direction or path of the central ray (CR) defines the following term
projection
positioning term that describes the general and specific body position is
position
T/F oblique body and lateral positions are described according to the side of the body closest to the image receptor
true
decubitus positions always use a horizontal x-ray beam
true
what is the name of the position in which the body is turned 90 degrees from a true AP or PA projection
lateral position
a patient is erect with their back to the image receptor. the left side of the body is turned 45 degrees toward the image receptor, what is this positoin
LPO
a patient is recumbent facing the image receptor. the right side of the body is turned 15 degrees toward the image receptor, what is this position
RAO
the patient is lying on his/her back. the x-ray beam is directed horizontally and enters the right side and exits the left side of the body. an image receptor is placed against the left side of the patient, what specific position has been performed
dorsal decubitus (left lateral position)
the patient is erect with the right side of the body against the image receptor. the x-ray beam enters the left side and exits the right side of the body, what position has been performed
right lateral
a patient on a cart is lying on the left side. the x-ray beam is directed horizontally and enters the posterior surface and exits the anterior aspect of the body. the image receptor is against the anterior surface, what specific position has been performed
left lateral decubitus
term for palm of the hand
palmar
term for lying on the back facing upward
supine
term for an upright position
erect
term for lying in any position
recumbent
term for front half of the patient
anterior
term for top or anterior surface of the foot
dorsum pedis
term for position in which head is higher than the feet
fowler
term for posterior aspect of the foot
plantar
term for position in which head is lower than the feet
trendelenburg
term for back half of the patient
posterior
a projection using a CR angle of more than 10 degrees directed parallel along the long axis of the body or body part
axial projection
position that demonstrates the apices of the lungs, without superimposition of the clavicles, is termed
lordotic (apical) position
T/F radiographic view is not a correct positioning term in the United States
true
T/F the term varus describes the bending of a part outward
false - inward
opposite of flexion
extension
opposite of ulnar deviation
radial deviation
opposite of dorsiflexion
plantar flexion
opposite of eversion
inversion
opposite of lateral (external) rotation
medial (internal) rotation
opposite of abduction
adduction
opposite of supination
pronation
opposite of retraction
protraction
opposite of depression
elevation
near the source or beginning
proximal
on the opposite side
contralateral
toward the center
medial
toward the head end of the body
cephalad or superior
away from the source or beginning
distal
outside or outward
exterior
on the same side
ipsilateral
near the skin surface
superficial
away from the head end
caudad or inferior
farther from the skin surface
deep
moving or thrusting the jaw forward from the normal position in an example of
protraction
to turn or bend the wrist toward the thumb side
radial deviation
which two types of information should be imprinted on every radiographic image
patient ID & date and anatomic side markers
3 recommendations stated in the ASRT ACE communication campaign
Announce your name
Communicate your credentials
Explain what you’ll be doing
minimum projections for a foot exam
3
minimum projections for a chest exam
2
minimum projections for a wrist exam
3
minimum projections for a tibia/fibula exam
2
minimum projections for a humerus
2
minimum projections for a fifth toe
3
minimum projections for a postreduction of wrist
2
minimum projections for a left hip exam
2
minimum projections for a knee exam
3
minimum projections for a pelvis exam with no hip injury
1
physical localization of topographic landmarks on a patient
palpation
which two landmarks may not be palpated because of institutional policy
symphysis pubis, ischial tuberosity
T/F the technologist should verify that the correct patient is having the correct procedure by a minimum of two means
true
the range of exposure over which a film produces an acceptable image
exposure latitude
which exposure factor controls the energy or penetrating power of the x-ray beam
kVp
exposure time is usually expressed in what
milliseconds
the amount of blackness seen on a processed radiograph
density
the primary controlling factor for the overall blackness on a radiograph
mAs
if SID is increased from 40 to 80 inches, what specific effect will it have on the radiographic density if other factors are not changed
decrease density to 25%
which term is used to describe a radiograph that has too little density
underexposed
doubling the mAs will result in what to the density of the image
double the density
a minimum change of what in mAs is required to make a visible difference in the radiographic density
25%-30%
according to the anode heel effect, the x-ray beam is less intense at what end of the x-ray tube
anode
to best use the anode heel effect, the thicker part of the anatomic structure should be placed under what end of the x-ray tube
cathode
what device may be used to compensate for the difference in anatomic part thickness and produce an acceptable density on the IR image
compensating filters
which compensating filter is used commonly for AP projections of the thoracic spine
wedge filter
which type of compensating filter permits soft tissue and bony detail of the shoulder to be equally visualized
boomerang filter
the difference in density on adjacent areas of the radiographic image defines
radiographic contrast
what is the primary controlling factor for (analog) radiographic contrast
kVp
what is the radiographic scale for high contrast
short-scale
what is the radiographic scale for low contrast
long-scale
what scale of contrast is produced with a 100-kVp technique
long-scale (low contrast)
T/F a 50 kVp technique produces a high-contrast image
True
the recorded sharpness of structures or objects on the radiograph
spatial resolution
the lack of visible sharpness
blur or unsharpness
the unsharp edges of the projected image
penumbra
the greatest deterrent to image unsharpness as related to positioning is
motion
what is the best mechanism to control involuntary motion during exposure
decrease exposure time
the misrepresentation of an object size or shape projected onto a radiograph recording medium is called
distortion
T/F a decrease in SID reduces distortion
false
T/F an increase in OID reduces distortion
false
T/F distortion is reduced when the CR is kept perpendicular to the plane of the image receptor
true
T/F every radiographic image reflects some degree of unsharpness, even if the smallest focal spot is used
true
T/F as the distance between the object and the image receptor is increased, magnification is reduced
false
T/F image distortion increases as the angle of divergence increases from the center of the x-ray beam to the outer edges
true
T/F the greater the angle of inclination of the object or the IR, the greater the amount of distortion
true
T/F digital imaging systems have a narrow dynamic range
false
digital processing involves the systemic application of highly complex mathematical formulas called
algorithms
the range or level of image contrast in the digital image is primarily controlled by what
digital processing
current range of spatial resolution for digital radiographic imaging systems is between
2.5 and 5.0m lp/mm
a random disturbance that obscures or reduces clarity is the definition for
noise
changing or enhancing the electronic image to improve its diagnostic quality is called
postprocessing
