Ch. 15 Trauma, Mobile, and Surgical Radiography Workbook Flashcards
1
Q
the two primary types of mobile x-ray units
A
- battery operated, battery drive
- standard AC power source, nonmotor drive
2
Q
how far can a fully charged battery-powered mobile unit drive on a level ground
A
10 miles
3
Q
with a battery-powered mobile unit type, how long does recharging take if the batteries are fully discharged
A
8 hours
4
Q
which type of mobile unit is lighter in weight
A
standard power source, nonmotor drive
5
Q
what is the common term for a mobile fluoroscopy unit
A
C-arm
6
Q
what are the 2 primary components of a mobile fluoroscopy unit
A
- x-ray tube
- image intensifier
7
Q
why should the mobile fluoroscopy unit not be placed in the AP projection
A
more dose to the operators head, neck and eyes area, and it increases OID
8
Q
with the tube and intensifier in a horizontal position, at which side of the patient should the surgeon stand if he or she must remain near the patient
A
on the intensifier side because it is much less dose
9
Q
of the two monitors found on most mobile fluoroscopy units, which is generally considered the “active” monitor
A
left
10
Q
does the operator need to determine image orientation on the mobile fluoroscopy monitors before the patient is brought into the room
A
yes
11
Q
do all mobile digital fluoroscopy units include the ability to magnify the image on the monitor during fluoroscopy
A
yes
12
Q
a 30 degree c-arm tilt from the vertical perspective increases exposure to the head adn neck regions of the operator by a factor of what
A
4
13
Q
are automatic exposure control systems feasible with mobile fluoroscopy
A
yes
14
Q
name the feature that allows an image to be held on the monitor while also providing continuous fluoroscopy imaging and removing stationary structures from the viewing screen
A
roadmapping
15
Q
what does the intermittent mode used during mobile fluoroscopy procedures do
A
produces brighter images and reduces patient dose
16
Q
how is CR centered and aligned in relation to the sternum for an AP portable projection of the chest
A
angled caudal to get CR perp to sternum and 3-4” below jugular notch
17
Q
are focused grids recommended for mobile chest studies
A
no
18
Q
what position can be used to replace the RAO of the sternum for the patient who cannot lie prone on the table but can be rotated into a semi supine position
A
15-20 degree LPO
19
Q
other than the straight AP, what other projections of the ribs can be taken for the supine immobile patient who cannot be rotated into an oblique
A
30-40 degree madiolateral cross-angled
20
Q
what position best demonstrates free intra-abdominal air for the patient who cannot stand or sit erect
A
left lateral decub
21
Q
what projection of the abdomen most effectively demonstrates a possible abdominal aortic aneurysm
A
dorsal decub
22
Q
disadvantage of performing a PA rather than an AP thumb projection
A
increased OID
23
Q
which projections are taken for a post reduction study of the wrist
A
PA and lateral
24
Q
for a trauma lateral elbow projection, the CR must be kept parallel to this plane
A
intercondylar plane
25
a patient with a possible fracture of the proximal humerus enters the ER. due to multiple injuries the patient is unable to stand or sit erect, what positioning routine should be performed to diagnose the extent of the injury
supine AP, and horizontal beam transthoracic lateral or shoulder Y
26
a patient with a possible dislocation of the proximal humerus enters the ER. due to multiple injuries the patient is unable to stand or sit erect. in addition to the AP, what second projection demonstrates whether the condition is an anterior or posterior dislocation
transthoracic
27
a scapular Y projection taken AP supine for a trauma patient requires this much rotation
25-30 degrees
28
how much CR angulation should be used for an AP axial projection of the clavicle on a hypersthenic patient
15 degrees
29
to ensure the joints are opened up for an AP projection of the foot, how is the CR aligned
10 degrees posteriorly from perpendicular to plantar surface
30
an orthopedic surgeon orders a mortise projection of the ankle, but the patient has a severely fractured ankle and can't rotate it for the ankle mortise projection. what can the tech do to provide this projection without rotating the ankle
angle tube 15-20 degrees lateromedially
31
a patient with a possible dislocation of the patella enters the emergency room. what type of positioning routine should be performed on this patient that would safely demonstrate the patella
AP and cross table lateral
32
a patient with a possible fracture of the proximal tibia and fibula enters the emergency room. the routine AP and lateral projections were inconclusive, patient is unable to rotate leg, what position/projection can be performed that would provide an unobstructed view of the fibular head and neck
45 degree lateromedial
33
to provide a lateral view of the proximal femur, what projection would be performed on a trauma patient
danellius miller - cross table lateral hip
34
how must the IR and grid be positioned for the inferosuperior projection of the hip
parallel to the femoral neck
35
what projection demonstrates the odontoid process for the trauma patient who is unable to open the mouth yet can extend the skull and neck
fuchs
36
a patient with a possible C2 fracture enters the ER on a backboard. the AP does not demonstrate C2 and the patient cannot open his mouth due to mandible fracture. what projection can be performed safely
35-40 degree cephalad angle (CR parallel to MML)
37
which projection will best demonstrate the pedicles of the cervical spine on a severely injured patient
AP axial trauma oblique
38
can you use a grid for the AP axial trauma oblique c-spine
no
39
a patient with a Monteggia fracture enters the ER, what positioning routine should be performed
PA/AP and horizontal beam lateral forearm
40
a patient with a possible greenstick fracture enters the ER, what age group does this fracture usually effect
pediatric
41
a patient with a possible Pott's fracture enters the ER, what positioning routine should be performed for this patient
AP and horizontal beam lateral lower leg
42
a patient is struck directly on the patella with a heavy object, and the patella is shattered. the resultant fracture most likely would describe this
stellate fracture
43
four essential attributes of the successful surgical technologist
- confidence
- mastery
- problem-solving skills
- communication
44
individual who assists the surgeon
surgical assistant
45
health professional who prepares the operating room (OR) by supplying it with the appropriate supplies and instruments
certified surgical technologist
46
individual who has the responsibility of ensuring the safety of the patient and monitoring physiologic functions and fluid levels of the patient during surgery
anesthesiologist
47
individual who has primary responsibility for the surgical procedure and the well-being of the patient before, during, and immediately after surgery
surgeon
48
individual who prepares the sterile field, scrubs, and gowns for the members of the surgical team, and prepares and sterilizes the instruments before the surgical procedure
scrub
49
individual who assists in the OR with the needs of the scrubbed members within the sterile field before, during, and after the surgical procedure
circulator
50
can the technologist violate the sterile environment in surgery if he/she is wearing sterile glove, mask, and surgical scrubs
no
51
who's responsible to maintain a safe radiation environment for all personnel in the OR
the x-ray tech
52
does the tech have a moral and ethical responsibility to report any violations of the sterile field during surgery even if it was not noticed by another member of the surgical team
yes
53
this is the absence of infectious organisms
surgical asepsis
54
this consists of the practice and procedures to minimize the level of infectious agents present in the surgical environment
surgical asepsis
55
which parts of the sterile gown are considered sterile
the shoulders to the level of the sterile field, as well as the sleeve from the cuff to just above the elbow
56
is the entire OR table considered sterile
no
57
what are the 3 measures that can be taken to maintain the sterile field when operating a mobile fluoroscopy unit
- drape the intensifier, tube, and c-arm
- drape patient or the surgical site
- use shower curtain
58
should soft (canvas) shoes be worn in surgery
no
59
what is the pliable nose strip on the surgical mask for
help prevent fogging of eyeglasses
60
during most surgical procedures is the tech required to wear protective eyewear
no
61
do sterile gloves needs to be worn when handling contaminated IR in surgery
no
62
what type of equipment cleaner should not be used in surgery
aerosol
63
what is the primary disadvantage of using the "boost" feature during a mobile fluoroscopic procedure
can add to patient dose and to surround surgical team
64
what is the primary advantage of using the "boost" feature during a mobile fluoroscopic procedure
brighter image
65
which cardinal rule is most effective in reducing occupational exposure
distance
66
what are the 3 words describing the cardinal rules of radiation protection
time, distance, shielding
67
what measure is most effective in limiting exposure with mobile fluoroscopy
use intermittent or "foot tapping" fluoroscopy
68
what anatomy is examined during an operative (immediate) cholangiogram
biliary ductal system
69
what is the common name for the special tray device that holds the IR and grid during an operative cholangiogram
"pizza pan"
70
how must the IR and grid be aligned if the OR table is tilted during an operative cholangiogram
landscape
71
on average, how much contrast media is injected during an operative cholangiogram
6-8mL
72
what are the 3 advantages of laparoscopic cholecystectomy over traditional cholecystectomy
- can be done as an outpatient procedure
- less invasive procedure
- reduce hospital time and cost
73
a radiographic exam of the pelvicalyceal system only during surgery is termed what
retrograde pyelogram
74
in what position is the patient placed during retrograde urography
modified lithotomy position
75
what orthopedic procedure is considered nonsurgical
closed reduction
76
which of the following orthopedic devices is classified as an external fixator
ilizarov device
77
which of the following orthopedic devices is often used during a hip pinning
cannulated screw assembly
78
which of the following devices is often used to reduce femoral, tibial, and humeral shaft fractures
intramedullary nail
79
what is the name of the newer type of prosthetic device to replace a defective hip joint
modular bipolar hip prosthesis
80
a surgical procedure, performed to alleviate pain caused by bony neural impingement involving the spine, is termed this
laminectomy
81
what is the name of the device used to stabilize the vertebral body in lieu of traditional spinal fusion
interbody fusion cages
82
in what position is the patient placed during most cervical laminectomies
supine
83
what are the two external fixators commonly used during scoliosis surgery
- Harrington rods
- luque rods
84
orthopedic wire that tightens around the fracture site to reduce shortening of limb
cerclage wire
85
narrow orthopedic screw designed to enter and fix cortical bone
cortical screw
86
large screw used in internal fixation of nondisplaced fractures of proximal femur
cannulated screw
87
fabricated (artificial) substitute for a disease or missing anatomic part
prosthesis
88
isolation drape that separates the sterile field from the nonsterile environment
shower curtain
89
soaking of moisture through a sterile or nonsterile drape, cover, or protective barrier
strike through
90
unthreaded (smooth) or threaded metallic wire used to reduce fractures of wrist (carpals) and individual bones of the hands and feet
kirschner wire
91
orthopedic screw designed to enter and fix porous and spongy bone
cancellous screw
92
creation of an artificial joint to correct ankyloses
arthroplasty
93
electrohydraulic shock waves used to break apart calcifications in the urinary system
ESWL
94
what type of pathology is addressed through a vertebroplasty
compression fracture of vertebral body
95
what single term best describes the primary difference between trauma positions and standard positioning
adaptation
96
what should be done to achieve specific projections if the patient cannot move because of trauma
move CR and IR around the patient
97
what is the minimum number of projections generally required for any trauma study
2 - 90 degrees from eachother
98
how many joints must be included for an initial study of a long bone
2 - both
99
a follow-up post reduction radiograph of the middle portion of a long bone must include this
at least one joint space
100
is digital radiography well suited for ED and mobile procedures
yes
101
this is effective in diagnosing certain emergency conditions such as pulmonary emboli
nuclear medicine
102
what are the two terms describing displacement of bone
dislocation; luxation
103
4 regions of the body most commonly dislocated during trauma
- shoulder
- finger/thumb
- patella
- hip
104
term for partial dislocation
subluxation
105
a forced wrenching or twisting of a joint that results in a tearing of supporting ligaments
sprain
106
an injury in which there is no fracture or breaking of the skin
contusion
107
term that describes the associative relationship between the long axes of fracture fragments
alignment
108
term that describes a type of fracture in which the fracture fragment ends are overlapped and not in contact
bayonet apposition
109
what term describes the angulation of a distal fracture fragment toward the midline
varus deformity
110
where is the apex pointed if the fracture fragment is toward the midline
lateral apex
111
what are the 2 types of incomplete fractures
- torus (buckle) fracture
- greenstick (hickory or willow stick) fracture
112
which type of comminuted fracture produces several separate wedge-shaped fragments
butterfly fracture
113
what is the name of the fracture in which one fragment is driven into the other
impacted fracture
114
secondary name for hutchinson fracture
chauffeur
115
secondary name for baseball fracture
mallet fracture
116
secondary name for compound fracture
open fracture
117
secondary name for depressed fracture
ping-pong fracture
118
secondary name for simple fracture
closed fracture
119
what type of reduction fracture does not require surgery
closed reduction
120
fracture of proximal half of the ulna with dislocation of radial head
monteggia fracture
121
fracture of the base of the first metacarpal
bennett fracture
122
fracture of the pedicles of C2
hangman fracture
123
fracture of distal radius with anterior displacement
smith fracture
124
complete fracture of distal fibula, frequently with fracture of medial malleolus
pott's fracture
125
fracture of lateral malleolus, medial malleolus, and distal posterior tip of tibia
trimalleolar fracture
126
incomplete fracture with broken cortex on one side of bone only
greenstick fracture
127
fracture resulting in multiple
(two or more) fragments
comminuted fracture
128
fracture of distal fifth metacarpal
boxer fracture
129
intra-articular fracture of radial styloid process
hutchinson fracture
130
fracture of distal radius with posterior displacement
colles fracture
131
indented fracture of the skull
depressed fracture
132
fracture resulting from a severe stress to a tendon
avulsion fracture
133
fracture with fracture lines radiating from a center point
stellate fracture
134
fracture producing a reduced height of the anterior vertebral body
compression fracture
