Blood & Hematopoiesis Flashcards
1
Q
neutrophils undergo ________ at sites of acute bacterial infections
A
demargination
2
Q
what cell gives rise to macrophages?
A
monocytes
3
Q
granulopoiesis (granulocyte development) characteristics
A
acquisition of cytoplasmic granules
4
Q
endomitosis occurs in what cell lineage?
A
platelet
5
Q
A
neutrophils
Pus is the thick, opaque, usually yellow-white fluid matter formed in response to invasion of the body by infective microorganisms
PUS=neutropil=bacterial infection
6
Q
A
eosinophils
7
Q
what blood cell progenitors is no longer capable of division?
A
orthochromatophilic erythroblasts
8
Q
where do hematopoietic stem cells and blood cell production appear first during human development?
A
yolk sac
9
Q
A
histamine produced by basophils
10
Q
which of the following is true about neutrophils?
a. undergo demargination at sites of acute bacterial infections
b. give rise to plasma cells
c. release thromboplastin during the clotting process
d. give rise to macrophages
e. contain major basic protein
A
a. undergo demargination at sites of acute bacterial infections
11
Q
what cell gives rise to macrophages?
a. proerythroblasts
b. megakaryocytes
c. reticulocytes
d. monocytes
e. metamyelocyte
A
d. monocytes
12
Q
which of the following is a characteristic of granulopoiesis?
a. eventual pyknotic degradation of the nucleus
b. stimulated by thrombopoietin
c. will eventually give rise to plasma cells
d. maintenance of round nucleus
e. acquisition of cytoplasmic granules
A
e. acquisition of cytoplasmic granules
13
Q
endomitosis occurs in what cell lineage?
a. lymphocyte
b.platelet
c. monocyte
d. granulocyte
e. erythrocyte
A
b. platelet
14
Q
a. basophils
b. neutrophils
c. eosinophils
d. erythrocytes
e. lymphocytes
A
b. neutrophils
pus = bacterial infections = neutrophils (1st responders)
15
Q
a. basophils
b. lymphocytes
c. neutrophils
d. eosinophils
e. monocytes
A
d. eosinophils
parasite = eosinophils
16
Q
which of the following blood cell progenitors is NO longer capable of division?
a. basophilic erythroblast
b. myeloblast
c. orthochromatophilic erythroblast
d. polychromatophilic erythroblast
e. myelocyte
A
c. orthochromatophilic erythroblast
differentiated = non mitotic
17
Q
where do hematopoietic stem cells and blood cell production appear first during human development?
a. thymus
b. spleen
c. liver
d. bursa of fabrics
e. yolk sac
A
e. yolk sac
18
Q
a. NADPH oxidase produces by neutrophils
b. major basic protein produced by eosinophils
c. IgG antibody produced by plasma cells
d. histamine produced by basophils
e. thromboplastin produced by platelets
A
d. histamine produced by basophils
19
Q
hematopoiesis: there is continual ____ _____ and ____ ___
A
there is continual central production and peripheral destruction
20
Q
T/F: Marrow is considered peripheral and the rest of the body is central
A
false
marrow=central
rest of body=peripheral
21
Q
what are the two sources of adult bone marrow hematopoietic stem cells (found in the embryo)?
A
yolk sac
dorsal aorta
22
Q
label
A
23
Q
label arrows/sections
A
green arrow: differentiation
red arrow: potential
24
Q
what do myeloid stem cells give rise to?
A
Myeloid stem cells:
blood cells/erythroid CFUs
megakaryocyte
eosinophils
basophils
neutrophils
monocyte
monocyte
Lymphoid:
B cells
Tcells
25
what do lymphoid stem cells give rise to?
Lymphoid stem cells:
B cells (bone marrow)
T cells (thymus)
Myeloid stem cells:
blood cells/erythroid CFUs
megakaryocyte
eosinophils
basophils
neutrophils
monocyte
26
CSF (what does it stand for) contribute to what?
CSF: colony-stimulating factors
CSF and cytokines stimulate the proliferation of progenitor and precursor cells
promote cell differentiation/maturation
27
if bone marrow is damaged, ______ ______ can occur. Typically in the spleen and liver
extramedullary hematopoiesis
28
erythrocyte developmental series cells (5)
proerythroblasts
basophilic erythroblasts
polychromatophilic erythroblasts
orthochromatophilic erythroblasts
reticulocytes
RBC
29
name the mitotic cells and non-mitotic cells of erythrocyte development
mitotic:
proerythroblasts
basophilic erythroblasts
polychromatophilic erythroblasts
non-mitotic:
orthochromatophilic erythroblasts
reticulocytes
RBC
30
blood cell homeostasis: production rates are regulated by ____ and respond to stresses (like infection)
cytokines
31
embryonic hematopoietic stem cells migrate to the developing ____
liver
fetal liver becomes the major source of hematopoietic stem cells
32
What stem cells do all blood cells arise from?
multipotential hematopoietic stem cells
33
growth factors of hematopoiesis
erythropoietin
thrombopoietin
34
cytokines
diverse set of protein hormones
involved in immune system activities and hematopoiesis
35
cords (hematopoietic marrow)
hematopoietic tissue between sinuses
36
sinusoids (hematopoietic marrow)
blood cells and platelets enter circulation via sinusoids
37
adventitial reticular cells
form meshwork to support cords of hematopoietic marrow
38
cells undergo developmental changes: what happens to the nucleus?
nucleoli disappear
chromatin gets clumpy
heterochromatin increases
euchromatin decreases
39
cells undergo developmental changes: what happens to the cytoplasm?
hemoglobin or granules increase
basophilic staining decreases
RNA decreases
40
erythrocyte developmental series:
name the cell
mitotic or non-mitotic?
proerythroblast
mitotic
41
erythrocyte developmental series:
name the cell
mitotic or non-mitotic?
basophilic erythroblast
mitotic
42
erythrocyte developmental series:
name the cell
mitotic or non-mitotic?
polychromatophilic erythroblast
mitotic
43
erythrocyte developmental series:
name the cell
mitotic or non-mitotic?
orthochromatophilic erythroblast
non- mitotic
44
erythrocyte developmental series:
name the cell
mitotic or non-mitotic?
reticulocyte
non-mitotic
45
erythrocyte developmental series:
name the cell
mitotic or non-mitotic?
RBC
non-mitotic
46
granulocyte developmental series:
list the cells
mitotic vs. non-mitotic
mitotic:
myeloblast
promyelocyte
myelocyte
non-mitotic:
metamyelocyte
band form
mature form (neutrophil)
47
list the cells in the granulocyte developmental series
48
list cells in granulocyte maturation
49
what cell produces blood platelets (in bone marrow)?
is regulated by thrombopoietin?
megakaryocyte
50
platelet formation is produced by what?
megakaryocyte
51
margination vs. demargination
margination: neutrophils adhere to the walls of blood vessels
demargination: recruit marginated neutrophils to enter
bloodstream - caused by stress
(diapedesis): neutrophils enter connective tissue by marginating through intracellular junctions between endothelial cells in a selectin driven process
52
neutrophil/granulocyte developmental series:
what is the last cell to undergo mitosis?
myelocyte
mitotic: myeloblast, promyelocyte, myelocyte
non-mitotic: metamyelocyte, band form, mature neutrophil
53
functions of blood
gas exchange
immunity
tissue repair/regeneration
tissue homeostasis
54
what does it mean "blood cells are discontinuous"?
blood cells are born in bone marrow BUT function elsewhere
55
components of blood
plasma (water, protein, other solute)
buffy coat (platelets, leukocytes)
erythrocytes (RBCs)
56
RBC's lack a _____ and ____
lack nuclei and mitochondria
lack organelles (rely on anaerobic bc lack mitochondria)
57
RBCs are a container for ___
hemoglobin Hb
58
what catalyzes conversion of CO2 to carbonic acid which dissociates to H+ and HCO3-?
carbonic anhydrase
59
what catalyzes this reaction?
CO2 + H2O = H2CO3 = HCO3- + H+
carbonic anhydrase
60
anemia
loss of O2 carrying capacity
low hemoglobin (Hb)
reduction in RBCs/ml
61
polycythemia
"thick blood"
elevated hematocrit
due to:
high elevation
CO poisoning
bone marrow disorders
tumors
62
what does biconcave disc shape give to RBCs?
central pallor
provides a good surface/volume ratio (gas exchange)
allows cells to bend
63
what are three proteins that assist the RBC cytoskeleton?
spectrin: lines the intracellular part of membrane (scaffold, maintains membrane integrity)
ankrin: linkage between spectin and band3
band 3: anion antiporter that facilitates gas exchange. connects cytoskeleton to membrane
64
lack central pallor (no longer have biconcave shape)
loss of function of ankyrin or spectrin
65
sickle cell anemia
mutations in genes coding for Hb, HbS forms polymers that DISTORT CELL SHAPE
may block vessels (leading to tissue damage and infracts)
66
RBC shape variations
67
what RBC variation is this?
acanthocytes
68
what RBC variation is this?
spherocyte
69
leukocytes two main categories
granulocytes:
polymorphonuclear neutrophils
eosinophils
basophils
---lysosomes
---specific granules
---polymorphic nuclei
agranulocytes:
monocytes
lymphocytes
---lysosomes but NO granules
---spherical or indented nucleus
70
what layer of blood are the leukocytes found?
buffy coat
71
what layer of blood are the platelets located?
buffy coat
72
what layer of blood are albumins and fibrinogen located?
plasma
73
PMNs are the most numerous ____ ____ ____
white blood cell (leukocyte)
74
what do PMNs provide defense against?
bacteria
75
neutrophils use the enzyme ______ to generate reactive oxygen species to kill microbes and regulate inflammation
NADPH oxidase
76
Pus means _____ (cell)
neutrophils, PMNs
77
eosinophils are attracted by ___ cells
mast
78
eosinophils kill _____ and ______ granules
kill parasites and toxic granules
79
what cell is associated with asthma/allergies?
eosinophils
80
eosinophilic granules contain ____ which can form crystalline band in granules (toxic for larval forms of parasites)
major basic protein (MBP)
81
eosinophils uses _____ which is toxic to larval forms of parasites
major basic protein
82
major basic protein is toxic to larval forms of _____, which is used in eosinophils
parasites
83
basophil granules contain _____ and _____
histamine and heparin
84
basophils are similar in function to what other cell?
mast cells (found in tissue but not the blood)
85
agranulocytes: monocytes assist in the "_______ _____"
respiratory burst
86
agranulocytes are precursors of _____
macrophages
also osteoclasts, microglia, kupffer cells, and histiocytes
87
what are small lymphocytes?
agranulocytes: T and B cells
88
what are large lymphocytes?
agranulocytes: Natural killer cells
89
platelets lack a ____ and contain _____
lack a nucleus and contain organelles
90
what is the function of platelets?
hemostasis: stopping flow of blood
maintaining integrity of CV system
91
hemostasis
stopping the flow of blood
92
NSAIDS block _____ ______
block platelet aggregation
93
injury to blood vessels triggers the release of ___ ____
clotting factor
94
vascular constriction causes ______ muscle to _____ which _____ blood flow
vascular constriction causes SMOOTH muscle to CONTRACT which PREVENTS blood flow
95
platelet plug
platelets agglutinate and form a sticky plug
96
coagulation
fibrin strands adhere to plug and form a matrix
insoluble duct
fibroblast recruitment
wound healing and clot removal
97
what is the rate-limiting step in coagulation?
prothrombin activator
98
key feature of PMNs (neutrophils)
99
key features of lymphocytes
100
key features of eosinophils
101
key features of basophils
102
key features of platelets
103
key features of monocytes
104
just study
105
Which of the following terms refers to the movement of a leukocyte from
inside a blood vessel into a tissue?
A. Demargination
B. Diapedesis
C. Endomitosis
D. Karyokinesis
E. Migration
B. diapedesis
106
A 31-year-old female was undergoing routine prenatal care. As part of her
workup, she had a routine complete blood count which revealed highly
elevated levels of eosinophils. All other blood cell levels were normal. The
patient was healthy, currently asymptomatic and denied any fever, rash,
abdominal pain and myalgia, as well as any animal exposures, drug use,
travel history, or family history of inflammatory diseases. But she used to eat
scalded or grilled pork which might be undercooked. The patient most likely
has which of the following types of infection?
A. Bacterial
B. Fungal
C. Parasitic
D. Viral
parasitic
107
An 8-month-old was referred to the pediatric hematology clinic for evaluation of anemia. His hemoglobin levels were very low, his reticulocyte
count was high and his iron levels were normal. His blood smear is shown below. (ignore WBC) His symptoms are most likely due to a mutation in which of the following?
A. B-Spectrin
B. Erythropoietin
C. Histamine
D. NADPH oxidase
E. Thrombopoietin
B-spectrin
108
A researcher generates a mouse line in which all the genes coding for selectin proteins have been ablated. These mice can reproduce normally but, are highly susceptible to a variety of infections. What is most likely to be the primary defect in the response of circulating
neutrophils to a bacterial infection in connective tissue in these mice?
A. Binding to endothelial cells
B. Migrating towards the site of infection
C. Moving between endothelial cells into connective tissue
D. Phagocytosing bacteria
E. Releasing cytotoxic factors into phagosomes
A. Binding to endothelial cells
109
A 33-year-old patient participating in a triathlon in St. George, Utah was airlifted to the University Hospital and admitted into the emergency room with adverse cardiovascular complications. His hematocrit was reported at nearly 80% (normal value 40 to 54%) . The physician on call suspected that the patient was illegally taking which of the following?
A. Cortisol
B. Erythropoietin
C. Hemoglobin
D. Interleukin 3
E. Thrombopoietin
B. Erythropoietin
110
A 5-year-old child presents to a remote rural clinic with parents for evaluation of abnormal bleeding. The parents report that the child seems to “bruise all
the time” and has frequent nosebleeds. Vital signs are in normal limit for age. Physical examination reveals multiple bruises and bleeding gums. The
clinician carefully questions the parents and child and does not suspect abuse. Laboratory studies including a complete blood cell count (CBC) and bone marrow aspirate are obtained. Which of the following findings in the bone marrow is most consistent with this child’s presentation?
A. Decrease in eosinophilic metamyelocytes
B. Increase in eosinophilic metamyelocytes
C. Decrease in megakaryocytes
D. Increase in megakaryocytes
E. Decrease in monocytes
F. Increase in monocytes
G. Decrease in neutrophilic myelocytes
C. Decrease in megakaryocytes
111
C. increased numbers of reticulocytes
112
pallor, fatigue think ____
anemia
113
decreased oxygen to tissues
EPO release from ______
EPO to bone marrow
_____ erythopoiesis
_____ RBCs
_____ oxygen to tissues
decreased oxygen to tissues
EPO release from KIDNEY
EPO to bone marrow
Increase erythopoiesis
Increase RBCs
Increase oxygen to tissues
114
B. eosinophils
115
Band3
band 3 binds too tightly to ankyrin
change of cell chae
increased fragility of RBC
116
order response to injury
injury
release of clotting factor
smooth muscle contraction
vascular constriction
-----NSAIDs
platelet agglutination
platelet plug
fibrinogen to fibrin (thrombin)
fibrin strand adhere
----Ca++
cross-linked fibrin fibers
wound healing
rate-limiting step: prothrombin activator
117
E. margination
neutrophils that are marginated would not be counted in the blood
118
D. thrombocytopenia
clues: nosebleeds +easy bruising = clotting issue
decrease in megakaryocytes = loss of platelet progenitors
119
B. bacterial infection
120
pus =
protein-rich fluid, dead neutrophils, macrophages, dead tissue, bacteria, etc
121
A. basophilic erythroblasts
122
D. mast cells and basophils
*eosinophils don't produce histamines!
123
albumins
most abundant plasma protein
made in the liver
maintain osmotic pressure of blood
124
fibrinogen
plasma protein (blood)
coagulation (blood clotting)
125
what is the def. of hematopoiesis?
the formation and development of blood cells
"blood making"
126
cytokines regulate ____ ____ of blood and respond to ____
cytokines regulate production rates of blood and respond to stress (infection)
127
multipotent hematopoietic stem cells are ____, proliferate ______, and give rise to ____ major lineages of progenitor cells
multipotent hematopoietic stem cells are RARE, proliferate SLOWLY, and give rise to 2 major lineages of progenitor cells (myeloid, lymphoid)
