Anatomy_ Tables Flashcards

1
Q

superior (cranial)

A

toward the head end or upper part of a structure or the body; above

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2
Q

inferior (caudal)

A

away from the head end or toward the lower part of a structure or the body; below

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3
Q

medial

A

toward or at the midline of the body; on the inner side of

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4
Q

lateral

A

away from the midline of the body; on the outer side of

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5
Q

proximal

A

closer to the origin of the body part or the point of attachment of a limb to the body trunk

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6
Q

distal

A

farther from the origin of a body part or the point of attachment of a limb to the body trunk

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7
Q

ipsilateral

A

on the same side

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8
Q

contralateral

A

on opposide sides

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9
Q

anterior

A

toward or at the front of the body; in front of

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10
Q

posterior

A

toward or at the back of the body; behind

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11
Q

superficial

A

toward or at the body surface

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12
Q

deep

A

away from the body surface; more internal

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13
Q

plasma membrane

A

serves as an external cell barrier; acts in transport of substances into or out of the cell; externally facing proteins act as receptors (for hormones, neurotransmitters, etc) and in cell-to-cell recognition

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14
Q

ribosomes

A

the sites of protein synthesis

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15
Q

rough endoplasmic reticulum

A

“makes proteins that are secreted from the cell; makes the cell’s membranes”

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16
Q

smooth endoplasmic reticulum

A

site of lipid and steroid hormone synthesis, lipid metabolism, and drug detoxification

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17
Q

golgi apparatus

A

packages, modifies, and segregates proteins for secretion from the cell, inclusion in lysosomes, and incorporation into the plasma membrane

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18
Q

lysosomes

A

sites of intracellular digestion

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19
Q

mitochondria

A

site of ATP synthesis; powerhouse of the cell

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20
Q

peroxisomes

A

the enzymes detoxify a number of toxic substances; the most important enzyme, catalase, breaks down hydrogen peroxide

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21
Q

microfilaments

A

“involved in muscle contraction and other types of intracellular movement; help form the cell’s cytoskeleton”

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22
Q

intermediate filaments

A

the stable cytoskeletal elements; resist tension forces acting on the cell

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23
Q

microtubles

A

support the cell and give it shape; involved in intracellular and cellular movements; form centrioles

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24
Q

centrioles

A

organize a microtubule network during mitosis to form the spindle and asters; form the bases of cilia and flagella

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25
Q

nucleus

A

control center of the cell; responsible for transmitting genetic information and providing the instructions for protein synthesis

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26
Q

nuclear envelope

A

separates the nucleoplasm from the cytoplasm and regulates passage of substances to and from the nucleus

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27
Q

nucleoli

A

site of ribosome subunit manufacture

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28
Q

chromatin

A

DNA constitutes the genes

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29
Q

ectoderm

A

”"”outside skin””, forms the outer layer of the skin (epidermis), the brain, and the spinal cord”

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30
Q

mesoderm

A

”"”middle skin””, forms muscle, bone, and connective tissues”

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31
Q

endoderm

A

”"”inner skin””, forms the innermost lining of the inner tube (epithelial lining)”

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32
Q

Epithelium: simple squamous (function)

A

Allows materials to pass by diffusion and filtration in sites where protection is not important; secretes lubricating substances in serosao (linings of ventral body cavity)

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33
Q

epithelium: simple cuboidal (function)

A

secretion and absorption

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34
Q

epithelium: simple columnar (function)

A

absorption; secretion of mucus, enzymes, and other substances; ciliated type propels mucus (or reproductive cells) by ciliary action

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35
Q

epithelium: pseudostratified columnar (function)

A

secrete substances, particularly mucus; propulsion of mucus by ciliary action

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36
Q

epithelium: stratified squamous (function)

A

protects underlying tissues in areas subjected to abrasion

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37
Q

epithelium: stratified cuboidal epithelium (function)

A

protection

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38
Q

epithelium: stratified columnar epithelium (function)

A

protection, secretion

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39
Q

epithelium: transitional (function)

A

stretches readily, permits stored urine to distend urinary organ

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40
Q

tight junctions

A

impermeable junctions<br></br>form contineous seals around the cell<br></br>prevent molecules from passing between cells

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41
Q

desmosomes

A

anchoring junctions<br></br>bind adjacent cells together like molecular velcro/zipper<br></br>help keep cells from tearing apart

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42
Q

gap junctions

A

communicating junctions<br></br>allow ions and small molecules to pass from cell to cell<br></br>particularly important in heart cells and embryonic cells

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43
Q

connective tissue proper (features)

A

six different types; vary in density and types of fibers<br></br>functions as a binding tissue<br></br>resists mechanical stress, particularly tension

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44
Q

cartilage (features)

A

resists compression because of the large amounts of water held in the matrix<br></br>functions to cusion and support body structures

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45
Q

bone tissue (features)

A

hard tissue that resists both compression and tension<br></br>functions in support

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46
Q

blood (features)

A

a fluid tissue<br></br>functions to carry O2, CO2, nutrients, wastes, and other substances (hormones, e.g.)

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47
Q

connective tissue, embryonic, mesenchyme (function)

A

gives rise to all other connective tissue types

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48
Q

connective tissue, proper, loose, areolar (function)

A

wraps and cusions organs; its macrophages phagocytize bacteria; plays important role in inflammation; holds and conveys tissue fluid

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49
Q

connective tissue, proper, loose, adipose (function)

A

provides reserve food fuel; insulates against heat loss; supports and protects organs

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50
Q

connective tissue, proper, loose, reticular (function)

A

fibers form a soft internal skeleton (stroma) that suports other cell types including white blood cells, mast cells, and macrophages

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51
Q

connective tissue, proper, dense, irregular (function)

A

withstands tensions exerted in many directions; provides structural strength

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52
Q

cennective tissue, proper, dense, regular (function)

A

attaches muscles to bones or to muscles; attaches ones to bones; withstands great tensile stress when pulling force is applied in one direction

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53
Q

connective tissue, proper, dense, elastic (function)

A

allows tissue to recoil after stretching; maintains pulsatile flow of blood through arteries; aids passive recoil of lungs following inspiration

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54
Q

connective tissue, cartilage, hyaline (function)

A

supports and reinforces; serves as resilient cushion; resists compressive stress

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55
Q

connective tissue, cartilage, elastic (function)

A

maintains the shape of a structure while allowing great flexibility

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56
Q

connective tissue, cartalage, fibrocartilage (function)

A

tensile strength allows it to absorb compressive shock

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57
Q

connective tissue, bone (function)

A

supports and protects (by enclosing); provides levers for the muscles to act on; stores calcium and other minerals and fat; marrow inside bones is the side for blood cell formation (hematopoiesis)

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58
Q

connective tissue, blood (function)

A

transports respiratory gases, nutrients, wastes, and other substances

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59
Q

skeletal muscle (function)

A

voluntary movement; locomotion; manipulation of the environment; facial expression; voluntary control

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60
Q

cardiac muscle (function)

A

as it contracts, it propels blood into the circulation; involuntary control

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61
Q

smooth muscle (function)

A

propels substances or objects (foodstuffs, urine, a baby) along internal passageways; involuntary control

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62
Q

nervous tissue (function)

A

neurons transmit electrical signals from sensory receptors and to effectors (muscles and glands); supporting cells support and protect neurons

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63
Q

comminuted fracture

A

bone fragments into three or more pieces; particularly common in the aged, whose bones are more brittle

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64
Q

compression fracture

A

bone is crushed; common in porous bones (i.e. osteoporotic bones) subjected to extreme trauma, as in a fall

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65
Q

spiral fracture

A

ragged break occurs when excessive twisting forces are applied to a bone; common sports fracture

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66
Q

epiphyseal fracture

A

epiphysis separates from the diasphysis along the epipyseal plate; tends to occure where cartilage cells are dying and calcification of the matrix is occuring

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67
Q

depressed fracture

A

broken bone portion is pressed inward; typical of skull fracture

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68
Q

greenstick

A

bone breaks incompletely, much in the way a green twig breaks. only one side ofthe shaft breaks and the other side bends; common in children, whose bones have relatively more organic matrix and are more flexible than those of adults

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69
Q

tuberosity

A

projections that are sites of muscle and ligament attachment: large rounded projection; may be roughened

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70
Q

crest

A

projections that are sites of muscle and ligament attachment: narrow ridge of bone; usually prominent

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71
Q

trochanter

A

projections that are sites of muscle and ligament attachment: very large, blunt, irregularly shaped process (the only examples are on the femur)

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72
Q

line

A

projections that are sites of muscle and ligament attachment: narrow ridge of bone; less prominent than a crest

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73
Q

tubercle

A

projections that are sites of muscle and ligament attachment: small rounded projection or process

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74
Q

epicondyle

A

projections that are sites of muscle and ligament attachment: raised area on or above a condyle

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75
Q

spine

A

projections that are sites of muscle and ligament attachment: sharp, slender, often pointed projection

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76
Q

process

A

projections that are sites of muscle and ligament attachment: any bony prominence

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77
Q

head

A

surfaces that form joints: bony expansion carried on a narrow neck

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78
Q

facet [glossary]

A

surfaces that form joints: smooth, nearly flat articular surface

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79
Q

condyle

A

surfaces that form joints: rounded articular projection, often acticulates with a corresponding fossa

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80
Q

foramen [glossary]

A

depressions and openings (for passage of vessels and nerves): round or oval opening through a bone

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81
Q

groove

A

depressions and openings (for passage of vessels and nerves): furrow

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82
Q

fissure

A

depressions and openings (for passage of vessels and nerves): narrow, slitlike opening

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83
Q

notch

A

depressions and openings (for passage of vessels and nerves): indentation at the edge of a structure

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84
Q

fossa

A

depressions and openings: shallow basinlike depression in a bone, often serving as an articular surface

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85
Q

meatus [glossary]

A

depressions and openings: canal-like passageway

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86
Q

sinus

A

depressions and openings: cavity within a bone, filled with air and lined with mucous membrane

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87
Q

cranial bones (important markings): frontal

A

supraorbital foramina (notches): passageway for the supraorbital arteries and nerves

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88
Q

cranial bones (important markings): occipital

A

foramen magnum: allows passage of the spinal cord from the brain stem to the vertebral canal<br></br>hypoglossal canals: passageway for the hypoglossal nerve (cranial nerve XII)<br></br>occipital condyles: articulate with the atlas (first vertebra)<br></br>external occipital protuberance and nuchal lines: sites of muscle attachment<br></br>external occipital crest: attachment site of ligamentum nuchae

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89
Q

cranial bones (important markings): temporal

A

zygomatic process: contributes to the zygomatic arch, which forms the prominence of the cheek<br></br>mandibular fossa: articular point for the head of the mandible<br></br>external acoustic meatus: canal leading from the exteral ear to the eardrum<br></br>styloid process: attachment site for several neck and tongue muscles and for a ligament to the hyoid bone<br></br>mastoid process: attachment side for several neck muscles<br></br>stylomastoid foramen: passageway for cranial nerve VII (facial nerve)<br></br>jugular foramen: passageway for the internal jugular vein and cranial nerves IX, X, and XI<br></br>internal acoustic meatus: passageway for cranial nerves VII and VIII<br></br>caratid canal: passageway for the internal carotid artery

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90
Q

cranial bones (important markings): sphenoid

A

sella turcica: hypophyseal fossa portion is the seat of the pituitary gland<br></br>optic canals: passageway for cranial nerve II and the opthalmic arteries<br></br>superior orbital fissures: passageway for cranial nerves III, IV, VI, part of V (opthalmic division), and opthalmic vein<br></br>foramen rotundum: passageway for the maxillary division of cranial nerve V<br></br>foramen ovale: passageway for the mindibular division of cranial nerve V<br></br>foramen spinosum: passageway for the middle meningeal artery

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91
Q

cranial bones (important markings): ethmoid

A

crista galli: attachment point for the falx cerebri, a dural membrane fold<br></br>cribriform plates: passageway for filaments of the oldfactory nerves (cranial nerve I)<br></br>superior and middle nasal conchae: form part of lateral walls of nasal cavity; increase turbulence of air flow

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92
Q

facial bones (important markings): lacrimal

A

lacrimal fossa: houses the lacrimal sac, which helps to drain tears into the nasal cavity

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93
Q

facial bones (important markings): mandible

A

coronoid processes: insertion points for the temporalis muscles<br></br>condylar processes: articulate with the temporal bones to form the jaw (temporomandibular) joints<br></br>mental protuberance: forms the chin<br></br>dental alveoli: sockets for the teeth<br></br>mandibular foramina: passageway for the inferior alveolar nerves<br></br>mental foramina: passageway for blood vessels and nerves to the chin and lower lip

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94
Q

facial bones (important markings): maxilla

A

dental alveoli: sockets for teeth<br></br>zygomatic process: helps form the zygomatic arches<br></br>palatine process: forms the anterior part of the hard palate<br></br>frontal process: forms part of lateral aspect of bridge of nose<br></br>incisive fossa: passageway for blood vessels and nerves through hard palate (fused palatine processes)<br></br>inferior orbital fissure: passageway for maxillary branch of cranial nerve V, the zygomatic nerve, and blood vessels<br></br>infraorbital foramen: passageway for infraorbital nerve to skin of face

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95
Q

skeletal muscle: body location

A

attached to bones or (some facial muscles) to skin

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96
Q

skeletal muscle: cell shape and appearance

A

single, very long cylindrical, multinucleate cells with obvious striations

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97
Q

skeletal muscle: connective tissue components

A

epimysium, perimysium, and endomysium

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98
Q

skeletal muscle: presence of myofibrils composed of sarcomeres

A

yes

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99
Q

skeletal muscle: presence of T tubules and site of invagination

A

yes; two in each sarcomere at A-I junctions

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100
Q

skeletal muscle: elaborate sarcoplasmic reticulum

A

yes

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101
Q

skeletal muscle: source of Ca2+ for calcium pulse

A

sarcoplasmic reticulum

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102
Q

skeletal muscle: presence of gap junctions

A

no

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103
Q

skeletal muscle: cells exhibit individual neuromuscular junctions

A

yes

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104
Q

skeletal muscle: regulation of contraction

A

voluntary via terminal boutons of the somatic nervous system

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105
Q

skeletal muscle: energetics

A

aerobic and anaerobic

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106
Q

cardiac muscle: body location

A

walls of the heart

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107
Q

cardiac muscle: cell shape and appearance

A

branching chains of cells; uni- or binucleate; striations

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108
Q

cardiac muscle: connective tissue components

A

endomysium attached to fibrous skeleton of heart

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109
Q

cardiac muscle: presence of myofibrils composed of sarcomeres

A

yes, but myofibrils are of irregular thickness

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110
Q

cardiac muscle: presence of T tubules and site of invagination

A

yes; one in each sarcomere at Z discs; larger diameter than those of skeletal muscle

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111
Q

cardiac muscle: elaborate sarcoplasmic reticulum

A

less that skeletal muscle; scant terminal cisterns

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112
Q

cardiac muscle: source of Ca2+ for calcium pulse

A

sarcoplasmic reticulum and from extracellular fluid

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113
Q

cardiac muscle: presence of gap junctions

A

yes; at intercalated discs

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114
Q

cardiac muscle: cells exhibit individual neuromuscular junctions

A

no

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115
Q

cardiac muscle: regulation of contraction

A

involuntary; intrinsic system regulation; also autonomic nervous system controls; stretch

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116
Q

cardiac muscle: energetics

A

aerobic

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117
Q

smooth muscle: body location

A

mostly in walls of hollow organs, such as the stomach, respiratory tubes, bladder, blood vessels, and uterus

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118
Q

smooth muscle: cell shape and appearance

A

single, fusiform, uninucleate; no striations

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119
Q

smooth muscle: connective tissue components

A

endomysium

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120
Q

smooth muscle: presence of myofibrils composed of sarcomeres

A

no, but actin and myosin filaments are present throughout

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121
Q

smooth muscle: presence of T tubules and site of invagination

A

no T tubules; has caveolae along the sarcolemma

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122
Q

smooth muscle: elaborate sarcoplasmic reticulum

A

equivalent to cardiac muscle; some SR contacts the sarcolemma

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123
Q

smooth muscle: source of Ca2+ for calcium pulse

A

sarcoplasmic reticulum and from extracellular fluid

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124
Q

smooth muscle: presence of gap junctions

A

yes; in single-unit muscle

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125
Q

smooth muscle: cells exhibit individual neuromuscular junctions

A

not in single-unit smooth muscle; yes in multi unit smooth muscle

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126
Q

smooth muscle: regulation of contraction

A

involuntary; autonomic nerves, hormones, local chemicals; stretch

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127
Q

smooth muscle: energetics

A

mainly aerobic

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128
Q

IN I Olfactory Nerves: Pathway

A

pass through the cribriform foramina of the ethmoid bone to spnapse in the oldfactory bulb. Fibers of olfactory bulb neurons extend posteriorly beneath the frontal lobe as the olfactory tract. Terminate in the primary olfactory cortex of the cerebrum.

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129
Q

free nerve endings, free nerve endings of sensory neurons: functional class according to location (L) and stimulus type (S)

A

L: exteroceptors, interoceptors, and proprioceptors<br></br>S: nociceptors (pain), thermoreceptors (heat and cold), mechanoreceptors (pressure), chemoreceptors

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130
Q

free nerve endings, modified free nerve endings (epithelial tactile complexes/Merkel discs): functional class according to location (L) and stimulus type (S)

A

L: exteroceptors<br></br>S: mechanoreceptors (light pressure), slowly adapting

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131
Q

free nerve endingsn, hair follicle receptors: functional class according to location (L) and stimulus type (S)

A

L: exteroceptors<br></br>S: mechanoreceptors (hair deflection), rapidly adapting

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132
Q

“encapsulated, tactile (Meissner’s) corpuscles: functional class according to location (L) and stimulus type (S)”

A

L: exteroceptors<br></br>S: mechanoreceptors (light pressure, discriminative touch, vibration of low frequency), rapidly adapting

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133
Q

encapsulated, lamellar (Cacinian) corpuscles: functional class according to location (L) and stimulus type (S)

A

L: exteroceptors, interoceptors, and some proprieceptors<br></br>S: mechanoreceptors (deep pressure, stretch, vibration of high frequency); rapidly adapting

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134
Q

encapsulated, bulbous corpuscle (Ruffini endings): functional class according to location (L) and stimulus type (S)

A

L: exteroceptors and proprioceptors<br></br>S: mechanoreceptors (deep pressure and stretch); slowly adapting or nonadapting

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135
Q

proprioceptors, muscle spindles: functional class according to location (L) and stimulus type (S)

A

L: proprioceptors<br></br>S: mechanoreceptors (muscle stretch)

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136
Q

proprioceptors, tendon organs: functional class according to location (L) and stimulus type (S)

A

L: proprioceptors<br></br>S: mechanoreceptors (tendon stretch)

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137
Q

proprioceptors, joint kinesthetic receptors: functional class according to location (L) and stimulus type (S)

A

L: proprioceptors<br></br>S: mechanoreceptors and nociceptors

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138
Q

free nerve endings, free nerve endings of sensory neurons: body location

A

most body tissues; most dense in connective tissues (ligaments, tendons, dermis, joint capsules, perosteum) and epithelia (epidermis, cornea, mucosae, and glands)

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139
Q

free nerve endings, modified free nerve endings (epithelial tactile complexes/Merkel discs): body location

A

basal layer of epidermis

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140
Q

free nerve endings, hair follicle receptors: body location

A

in and surrounding hair follicles

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141
Q

“encapsulated, tactile (Meissner’s) corpuscles: body location”

A

dermal papillae of hairless skin, particularly nipples, external genitalia, fingertips, eyelids

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142
Q

encapsulated, lamella (Pacinian) corpuscles: body location

A

dermis and hypodermis; periosteum, mesentery, tendons, ligaments, joint capsules, most abundant on fingers, soles of feet, external genitalia, nipples

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143
Q

encapsulated, bulbous corpuscle (Ruffini endings): body location

A

deep in dermis, hypodermis, and joint capsules

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144
Q

proprioceptors, muscle spindles: body location

A

skeletal muscles, particularly those of the extremities

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145
Q

proprioceptors, tendon organs: body location

A

tendons

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146
Q

proprioceptors, joint keneisthetic receptors: body location

A

joint capsules of synovial joints

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147
Q

location (funiculus): direct (pyramidal) pathways (descending): lateral corticospinal

A

lateral

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148
Q

location (funiculus): direct (pyramidal) pathways (descending): ventral corticospinal

A

ventral

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149
Q

location (funiculus): indirect pathways (descending): rubrospinal

A

lateral

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150
Q

location (funiculus): indirect pathways (descending): tectospinal

A

ventral

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151
Q

location (funiculus): indirect pathways (descending): vestibulospinal

A

ventral

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152
Q

location (funiculus): indirect pathways (descending): reticulospinal (ventral, medial, and lateral)

A

ventral and lateral

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153
Q

location (funiculus): spinocerebellar pathways (ascending): dorsal spinocerebellar

A

lateral (dorsal part)

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154
Q

location (funiculus): spinocerebellar pathways (ascending): ventral spinocerebellar

A

lateral (ventral part)

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155
Q

location (funiculus): dorsal column-medial lemniscus pathways (ascending): fasciculus cuneatus and fasciculus gracilis

A

dorsal

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156
Q

location (funiculus): spinothalamic pathways (ascending): lateral spinothalamic

A

lateral

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157
Q

location (funiculus): spinothalamic pathways (ascending): ventral spinothalamic

A

ventral

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158
Q

origin: spinothalamic pathways (ascending): ventral spinothalamic

A

interneurons (second-order neurons) in dorsal horns. fibers cross to contralateral side before ascending

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159
Q

termination: spinothalamic pathways (ascending): ventral spinothalamic

A

by synapse with third-order neurons in thalamus. thalamic neurons convey impulses to somatosensory cortex

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160
Q

function: spinothalamic pathways (ascending): ventral spinothalamic

A

transmits impulses concerned with crude touch and pressure to contralateral somatosensory cortex

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161
Q

origin: spinothalamic pathways (ascending): lateral spinothalamic

A

interneurons (second-order neurons) in dorsal horn. fibers cross to contralateral side before ascending

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162
Q

termination: spinothalamic pathways (ascending): lateral spinothalamic

A

by synapse with third-order neurons in thalamus. thalamic neurons then convey imprulses to somatosensory cortex.

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163
Q

function: spinothalamic pathways (ascending): lateral spinothalamic

A

transmits impulses concerned with crude touch and pressure to contralateral somatosensory cortex

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164
Q

origin: dorsal column-medial lemniscus pathways (ascending): fasciculus cuneatus and fasciculus gracilis

A

central processes of sensory (first-order) neurons enter dorsal root of the spinal cord and branch. branches enter dorsal white column on ipsilateral side without synapsing

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165
Q

termination: dorsal column-medial lemniscus pathways (ascending): fasciculus cuneatus and fasciculus gracilis

A

by synapse with second-order neurons in nucleus cuneatus and nucleus gracilis in medulla. fibers of medullary neurons cross over and ascend in medial lemnicus to thalamus where they synapse with third-order neurons. thalamic neurons then transmit impulses to somatosensory cortex.

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166
Q

function: dorsal column-medial lemniscus pathways (ascending): fasciculus cuneatus and fasciculus gracilis

A

“both tracts transmit general sensory impulses from receptors of skin and proprioceptors, which are interpreted as discriminative touch, pressure, and ““body sense”” (limb and joint position) in the contralateral somatosensory cortex. Cuneatus transmits afferent impulses from upper limbs, upper trunk, and neck; it is not present in spinal cord below level of T6. gracilis carries impulses from lower limbs and inferior body trunk.”

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167
Q

origin: spinocerebellar pathways (ascending): ventral spinocerebellar

A

interneurons (second-order neurons) of dorsal horn. contains crossed fibers that cross back to the original ipsilateral side in the pons

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168
Q

termination: spinocerebellar pathways (ascending): ventral spinocerebellar

A

by synapse in cerebellum by way of the superior cerebellar peduncle

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169
Q

function: spinocerebellar pathways (ascending): ventral spinocerebellar

A

transmits impulses from the trunk and lower limb on one side of body to ipsilateral side of cerebellum for subconscious proprioception

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170
Q

origin: spinocerebellar pathways (ascending): dorsal spinocerebellar

A

interneurons (second-order neurons) in dorsal horn on same side of cord. fibers ascend without crossing

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171
Q

termination: spinocerebellar pathways (ascending): dorsal spinocerebellar

A

by synapse in cerebellum by way of the inferior cerebellar peduncle

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172
Q

function: spinocerebellar pathways (ascending): dorsal spinocerebellar

A

transmits impulses from trunk and lower limb propriceptors on one side of body to ipsilateral side of cerebellum for subconscious proprioception

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173
Q

origin: direct (pyramidal) pathways (decending): lateral corticospinal

A

pyramidal neurons of motor cortex of the cerebrum; decussate in pyramids of medulla

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174
Q

termination: direct (pyramidal) pathways (decending): lateral corticospinal

A

by synapse with ventral horn interneurons that influence motor neurons, and occasionally with neurons directly

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175
Q

function: direct (pyramidal) pathways (decending): lateral corticospinal

A

transmits motor impulses from cerebrum to contralateral spinal cord motor neuron (which activate skeletal muscles); voluntary motor tract to limb muscles

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176
Q

origin: direct (pyramidal) pathways (decending): ventral corticospinal

A

pyramidal neurons of motor cortex; fibers cross over at the spinal cord level

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177
Q

termination: direct (pyramidal) pathways (decending): ventral corticospinal

A

ventral horn (as above: by synapse with ventral horn interneurons that influence motor neurons, and occasionally with ventral horn motor neurons directly)

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178
Q

function: direct (pyramidal) pathways (decending): ventral corticospinal

A

same as lateral corticospinal tract but to axial muscles: transmits motor impulses from cerebrum to contralateral spinal cord motor neurons (which activate skeletal muscles); voluntary motor tract to axial muscles

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179
Q

origin: indirect pathways (decending): rubrospinal

A

red rucleus of midbrain of brain stem (fibers cross to contralateral side just inferior to the red nucleus)

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180
Q

termination: indirect pathways (decending): rubrospinal

A

ventral horn (as above: by synapse with ventral horn interneurons that influence motor neurons, and occasionally with ventral horn motor neurons directly)

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181
Q

function: indirect pathways (decending): rubrospinal

A

transmits motor impulses concerned with muscle tone of distal limb muscles (mostly flexors) on contralateral side of body

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182
Q

origin: indirect pathways (decending): tectospinal

A

superior colliculus of midbrain of brain stem (fibers cross to contralateral side of cord)

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183
Q

termination: indirect pathways (decending): tectospinal

A

ventral horn (as above: by synapse with ventral horn interneurons that influence motor neurons, and occasionally with ventral horn motor neurons directly)

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184
Q

function: indirect pathways (decending): tectospinal

A

turns neck so eyes can follow a moving object

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185
Q

origin: indirect pathways (decending): vestibulospinal

A

vestibular nuclei in medulla of brain stem (fibers descend without crossing)

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186
Q

termination: indirect pathways (decending): vestibulospinal

A

ventral horn (as above: by synapse with ventral horn interneurons that influence motor neurons, and occasionally with ventral horn motor neurons directly)

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187
Q

function: indirect pathways (decending): vestibulospinal

A

transmits motor impulses that maintain muscle tone and activate ipsilateral limb and trunk extensor muscles and muscles that move head; helps maintain balance during standing and moving

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188
Q

origin: indirect pathways (decending): reticulospinal (ventral, medial, and lateral)

A

reticular formation of brain stem (medial nuclear group of pons and medulla); both crossed and uncrossed fibers

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189
Q

termination: indirect pathways (decending): reticulospinal (ventral, medial, and lateral)

A

ventral horn (as above: by synapse with ventral horn interneurons that influence motor neurons, and occasionally with ventral horn motor neurons directly)

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190
Q

function: indirect pathways (decending): reticulospinal (ventral, medial, and lateral)

A

transmits impulses concerned with muscle tone and many visceral motor functions; may control most unskilled movements

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191
Q

sympathetic: origin

A

thoracolumbar outflow; lateral horn of gray matter of spinal cord segments T1-L2

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192
Q

sympathetic: location of ganglia

A

ganglia close to CNS: alongside vertebral column (sympathetic trunk ganglia) and anterior to vertebral column (collateral ganglia)

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193
Q

sympathetic: relative length of pre-and postganglionic axons

A

short preganglionic (splanchic nerves are exceptions); long postgonglionic

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194
Q

sympathetic: rami communicantes

A

gray and white rami communicantes; white contain myelinated preganglionic axons; gray contain unmyelinated postganglionic axons

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195
Q

sympathetic: degree of branching of preganglionic axons

A

extensive

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196
Q

sympathetic: functional role

A

prepares body to cope with emergencies and internse muscular activity; fight-or-flight response

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197
Q

sympathetic: neurotransmitters

A

all preganglionic axons release ACh; most postganglionic axons release norephinephrine (adrenergic axons); postganglionic axons to sweat glands and blood vessels of skeletal muscles release ACh; neurotransmitter activity augmented by release of adrenal medullary hormones (epinephrine and norepinephrine)

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198
Q

parasympathetic: origin

A

craniosacral outflow: brain stem nuclei of cranial nerves III, VII, IX, and X; spinal cord segments S2-S4

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199
Q

parasympathetic: location of ganglia

A

ganglia in or close to visceral organ served

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200
Q

parasympathetic: relative length of pre- and postganglionic axons

A

long preganglionic; short postganglionic

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201
Q

parasympathetic: rami communicantes

A

none

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202
Q

parasympathetic: degree of branching of preganglionic axons

A

minimal

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203
Q

parasympathetic: functional role

A

maintenance functions; conserves and stores energy; rest and digest response

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204
Q

parasympathetic: neurotransmitters

A

all axons, preganglionic and postganglionic, release ACH (cholinergic axons)

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205
Q

parasymathetic effects: eye (iris)

A

stimulates constrictor muscles; consricts eye pupils

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206
Q

parasymathetic effects: eye (ciliary muscle)

A

stimulates ciliar muscles, which results in bulging of the lengs for accommodation and close vision

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207
Q

parasymathetic effects: glands (nasal, lacrimal, salivary, gastric, pancreas)

A

stimulates secretory activity

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208
Q

parasymathetic effects: sweat glands

A

no innervation

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209
Q

parasymathetic effects: arrector pili muscles attached to hair follicles

A

no innervation

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210
Q

parasymathetic effects: heart muscle

A

decreases rate; slows and steadies heart

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211
Q

parasymathetic effects: heart: coronary blood vessels

A

causes vasoconstriction

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212
Q

parasymathetic effects: lungs

A

constricts brochoiles

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213
Q

parasymathetic effects: digestive tract organs

A

increases motility (peristalsis) and amount of secretion by digestive organs; relaxes sphincters to allow movement of foodstuffs along tract

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214
Q

parasymathetic effects: liver

A

no effect

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215
Q

parasymathetic effects: gallbladder

A

stimulates activity (gallbladder contracts to expel bile)

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216
Q

parasymathetic effects: adrenal medulla

A

no innervation

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217
Q

parasymathetic effects: kidney

A

no effect

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218
Q

parasymathetic effects: bladder, urethra

A

causes contraction of smooth muscle of bladder wall; relaxes urethral sphincter; promotes voiding

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219
Q

parasymathetic effects: penis

A

causes erection (vasodilation)

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220
Q

parasymathetic effects: uterus

A

inhibits contraction of smooth muscle of uterine wall; causes vasodilation of vessels

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221
Q

parasymathetic effects: vagina, clitoris

A

causes erection (vasodilation) of clitoris

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222
Q

parasymathetic effects: blood vessels

A

little or no effect

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223
Q

parasymathetic effects: blood coagulation

A

no innervation

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224
Q

parasymathetic effects: cellular metabolism

A

no innervation

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225
Q

parasymathetic effects: adipose tissue

A

no innervation

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226
Q

parasymathetic effects: mental activity

A

no innervation

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227
Q

sympathetic effects: eye (iris)

A

stimulates dilator muscles, dilates eye pupils

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228
Q

sympathetic effects: eye (ciliary muscle)

A

weakly inhibits ciliar muscles, which flatten the lens for distance vision

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229
Q

sympathetic effects: glands (nasal, lacrimal, salivary, gastric, pancreas)

A

inhibits secretory activity; causes vasoconstriction of blood vessels supplying the glands

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230
Q

sympathetic effects: sweat glands

A

stimulates copious sweating (cholingeric fibers)

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231
Q

sympathetic effects: arrector pili muscles attached to hair follicles

A

stimulates to contract (erects hairs and produces goose bumps)

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232
Q

sympathetic effects: heart muscle

A

increases rate and force of heartbeat

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233
Q

sympathetic effects: heart: coronary blood vessels

A

causes vasodilation

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234
Q

sympathetic effects: lungs

A

dilates bronchioles and mildly constricts blood vessels

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235
Q

sympathetic effects: digestive tract organs

A

decreases activity of gladns and muscles of digestive system and costricts sphircters (e.g., anal sphincter); causes vasoconstriction

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236
Q

sympathetic effects: liver

A

epinephrine stimulates liver to release glucose to blood

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237
Q

sympathetic effects: gallbladder

A

inhibits activity (gallbladder is relaxed)

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238
Q

sympathetic effects: adrenal medulla

A

stimulates medulla cells to secrete epinephrine and norepinephrine into bloodstream

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239
Q

sympathetic effects: kidney

A

causes vasoconstriction; decreases urine output

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240
Q

sympathetic effects: bladder, urethra

A

causes relaxation of smooth muscle of bladder wall; constricts urethral sphincter; inhibits voiding

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241
Q

sympathetic effects: penis

A

causes ejaculation

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242
Q

sympathetic effects: uterus

A

stimulates contraction of smooth muscle of uterine wall; causes vasoconstriction of vessels

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243
Q

sympathetic effects: vagina, clitoris

A

causes contraction of vagina

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244
Q

sympathetic effects: blood vessels

A

constricts most vessels and increases blood pressure; consticts vessels of abdominal viscera and skin to divert blood to muscles, brain, and heart when necessary; dilates vessels of the skeletal muscles (cholinergic fibers) during exercise

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245
Q

sympathetic effects: blood coagulation

A

increases coagulation

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246
Q

sympathetic effects: cellular metabolism

A

increases metabolic rate

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247
Q

sympathetic effects: adipose tissue

A

stimulates lipolysis (fat breakdown)

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248
Q

sympathetic effects: mental activity

A

increases alertness

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249
Q

lateral rectus: action and controlling cranial nerve

A

moves eye laterally<br></br>VI (abducens)

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250
Q

medial rectus: action and controlling cranial nerve

A

moves eye medially<br></br>III (oculomotor)

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251
Q

superior rectus: action and controlling cranial nerve

A

elevates eye and turns it medially<br></br>III (oculomotor)

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252
Q

inferior rectus: action and controlling cranial nerve

A

depresses eye and turns it medially<br></br>III (oculomotor)

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253
Q

inferior oblique: action and controlling cranial nerve

A

elevates eye and turns it laterally<br></br>III (oculomotor)

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254
Q

superior oblique: action and controlling cranial nerve

A

depresses eye and turns it laterally<br></br>IV (trochlear)

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255
Q

semicircular canals: Membranous labyrinth (within bony labyrinth)

A

semicircular ducts

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256
Q

vestibule: Membranous labyrinth (within bony labyrinth)

A

utricle and sacclue

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257
Q

cochlea: Membranous labyrinth (within bony labyrinth)

A

cochlear duct

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258
Q

semicircular canals: functions of the membranous labyrinth

A

equilibrium: rotational (angular) acceleration of the head)

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259
Q

vestibule: functions of the membranous labyrinth

A

equilibrium: static equilibrium and linear acceleration of the head

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260
Q

cochlea: functions of the membranous labyrinth

A

hearing

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261
Q

humoral stimulus: cause, stimulus, response (examples)

A

hormone release caused by altered levels of certain critical ions or nutrients<br></br>stimulus: low concentration of Ca2+ in capillary blood<br></br>response: parathyroid glands secrete parathyroid hormone (PTH), which increases blood Ca2+

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262
Q

neural stimulus: cause, stimulus, response (examples)

A

hormone release caused by neural input<br></br>stimulus: action potentials in preganglionic sympathetic fibers to adrenal medulla<br></br>response: adrenal medulla cells secrete epinephrine and norepinephrine

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263
Q

hormonal stimulas: cause, stimulus, response (examples)

A

hormone release caused by another hormone (a tropic hormone)<br></br>stimulus: hormones from hypothalamus<br></br>response: anterior pituitary gland secretes hormones that stimulate other endocrine glands to secrete hormones

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264
Q

anterior lobe hormones, target organ and effects: thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) (thyrotropic cells)

A

thyroid gland: stimulates thyroid gland to release thyroid hormones

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265
Q

anterior lobe hormones, target organ and effects: adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) (corticotropic cells)

A

adrenal cortex: promotes release of glococorticoids and androgens (mineralocorticoids to a lesser extent)

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266
Q

anterior lobe hormones, target organ and effects: follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) (gonadotropic cells)

A

ovaries and testes: in females, stimulates ovarian follicle maturation and estrogen production; in males, stimulates sperm production

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267
Q

anterior lobe hormones, target organ and effects: luteinizing hormone (LH) (gonadotropic cells)

A

ovaries and testes: in females, triggers ovulation and stimulates ovarian production of estrogen and progesterone; in males, promotes testosterone production

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268
Q

anterior lobe hormones, target organ and effects: growth hormone (GH) (somatotropic cells)

A

liver, muscle, bone, cartilage, and other tissues: stimulates protein synthesis and somatic growth; mobilizes fats; increases blood glucose

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269
Q

anterior lobe hormones, target organ and effects: prolactin (PRL) (prolactin cells)

A

breast secretory tissue: promotes lactation

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270
Q

posterior lobe hormones, target organ and effects: antidiuretic hormon (ADH), or vasopressin (from neurons in supraoptic nucleus of hypothalamus)

A

kidneys: stimulates kdney tubule cells to resorb water

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271
Q

posterior lobe hormones, target organ and effects: oxytocin (from neurons in paraventricular nucleus hypothalamus)

A

uterus: stimulates uterine contractions; initiates labor; breast: initiates milk ejection

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272
Q

posterior lobe hormones, effects of hyposecretion (-) and hypersecretion (+): antidiuretic hormone (ADH) or vasopressin (from neurons in supraoptic nucleus of hypothalamus)

A

-diabetes insipidus<br></br>+syndrome of innapropriate ADH secretion (SIADH)

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273
Q

posterior lobe hormones, effects of hyposecretion (-) and hypersecretion (+): oxytocin (from neurons in paraventricular nucleus hypothalamus)

A

unknown

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274
Q

anterior lobe hormones, effects of hyposecretion (-) and hypersecretion (+): prolactin (PRL) (prolactin cells)

A

-poor milk production in nursing women<br></br>+inappropriate milk production (galactorrhea); cessation of menses in females; impotence in males

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275
Q

anterior lobe hormones, effects of hyposecretion (-) and hypersecretion (+): growth hormone (GH) (somatotropic cells)

A

-pituitary dwarfism in children<br></br>+gigantism in children; acromegaly in adults

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276
Q

anterior lobe hormones, effects of hyposecretion (-) and hypersecretion (+): luteinizing hormone (LH) (gonadotropic cells)

A

as for FSH:<br></br>-failure of sexual maturation<br></br>+no imortant effects

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277
Q

anterior lobe hormones, effects of hyposecretion (-) and hypersecretion (+): follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) (gonadotropic cells)

A

-failure of sexual maturation<br></br>+no important effects

278
Q

anterior lobe hormones, effects of hyposecretion (-) and hypersecretion (+): adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) (corticotropic cells)

A

“-rare<br></br>+Cushing’s disease”

279
Q

anterior lobe hormones, effects of hyposecretion (-) and hypersecretion (+): thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) (thyrotropic cells)

A

“-cretinism in children; myxedema in adults<br></br>+hyperthyroidism; effects similar to those of Graves’ disease, in which antibodies mimic TSH”

280
Q

“erythrocytes: description (Wright’s stain)”

A

biconcave, anuleate disc; salmon-colored; diametr 7-8 um

281
Q

“leukocytes: description (Wright’s stain)”

A

spherical, nucleated cells

282
Q

“neutrophils: description (Wright’s stain)”

A

nucleus multilobed; inconspicuous cytoplasmic granules; diameter 12-14 um

283
Q

“eosinophils: description (Wright’s stain)”

A

nucleus bilobed; red cytoplasmic granules, diameter 12-15 um

284
Q

“basophils: description (Wright’s stain)”

A

nucleus bilobed; large blue-purple cytoplasmic granules; diameter 10-14 um

285
Q

“lymphocytes: description (Wright’s stain)”

A

nucleus spherical or indeted; pale blue cytoplasm; diametr 5-17 um

286
Q

“monocytes: description (Wright’s stain)”

A

nucleus U- or kidney-shaped; gray-blue cytoplasm; diameter 14-24 um

287
Q

“platelets: description (Wright’s stain)”

A

discoid cytoplasmic fragments cointaing graundules; stain deep purple; diameter 2-4 um

288
Q

erythrocytes: number of cells per mm^3 (ul) of blood

A

4-6 million

289
Q

leukocytes: number of cells per mm^3 (ul) of blood

A

4800-11000

290
Q

neutrophils: number of cells per mm^3 (ul) of blood

A

3000-7000

291
Q

eosinophils: number of cells per mm^3 (ul) of blood

A

100-400

292
Q

basophils: number of cells per mm^3 (ul) of blood

A

20-50

293
Q

lymphocytes: number of cells per mm^3 (ul) of blood

A

1500-3000

294
Q

monocytes: number of cells per mm^3 (ul) of blood

A

100-700

295
Q

platelets: number of cells per mm^3 (ul) of blood

A

150,000-500,000

296
Q

erythrocytes: duration of development (D) and life span (LS)

A

D: 5-9 days<br></br>LS: 100-120 days

297
Q

neutrophils: duration of development (D) and life span (LS)

A

D: 7-11 days<br></br>LS: 6 hours to a few days

298
Q

eosinophils: duration of development (D) and life span (LS)

A

D: 7-11 days<br></br>LS: about 5 days

299
Q

basophils: duration of development (D) and life span (LS)

A

D: 3-7 days<br></br>LS: a few hours to a few days

300
Q

lymphocytes: duration of development (D) and life span (LS)

A

D: days to weeks<br></br>LS: hours to years

301
Q

monocytes: duration of development (D) and life span (LS)

A

D: 2-3 days<br></br>LS: months

302
Q

platelets: duration of development (D) and life span (LS)

A

D: 4-5 days<br></br>LS: 5-10 days

303
Q

erythrocytes: function

A

transport oxygen and carbon dioxide

304
Q

granulocytes: function

A

destroy bacteria by phagocytosis

305
Q

eosinophils: function

A

turn off allergic responses and kill parasites

306
Q

basophils: function

A

release histamine and other mediators of inflammation

307
Q

lymphocytes: function

A

mount immune response by direct cell attack (T cells) or via antibodies (B cells)

308
Q

monocytes: function

A

phagocytosis; develop into macrophages in tissues

309
Q

platelets: function

A

seal small tears in blood vessels; instrumental in bloodclotting

310
Q

foramen ovale: postnatal structure; function in fetus

A

fossa ovalis; diverts blood from the right atrium to the left atrium

311
Q

ductus arteriosus: postnatal structure; function in fetus

A

ligamentum arteriosum; diverts blood from the pulmonary trunk to the aorta

312
Q

ductus venosus: postnatal structure; function in fetus

A

ligamentum venosum; carries blood from the umbilical vein through the liver into the IVC

313
Q

umbilical arteries: postnatal structure; function in fetus

A

medial umbilical ligaments; paired vessels carry blood from the fetus to the placenta

314
Q

umbilical vein: postnatal structure; function in fetus

A

round ligament of the liver (ligamentum teres); single vessel carries oxygenated blood from the placenta to the fetus

315
Q

nose: function

A

produces mucus; filters, warms, and moistens incoming air; resonance chamber for speech<br></br>receptors for sense of smell

316
Q

paranasal sinuses: function

A

lighten the skull; help warm, filter, and moisten incoming air

317
Q

pharynx: function

A

passageway for air and food<br></br>tonsils are lymphoid tissue that responds to inhaled or ingested antigens

318
Q

larynx: function

A

air passageway; prevents food from entering lower respiratory tract<br></br>voice production

319
Q

trachea: function

A

air passageway; filters, warms, and moistens incoming air

320
Q

bronchial tree: function

A

air passageways connecting trachea with alveoli; warms and moistens incoming air

321
Q

alveoli: function

A

main sites of gas exchange<br></br>surfactant reduces surface tension; helps prevent alveolar collapse

322
Q

lungs: function

A

house passageways smaller than main bronchi

323
Q

pleurae: function

A

produce lubricating fluid and compartmentalize lungs

324
Q

nose: description, general and distinctive features

A

external portion supported by bone and cartilage; internal nasal cavity divided in half by midline nasal septum and lined with respiratory mucosa<br></br>roof of nasal cavity contains olfactory mucosa

325
Q

paranasal sinuses: description, general and distinctive features

A

mucosa-lined hollow cavities within the sphenoid, ethmoid, maxillary, and frontal bones

326
Q

pharynx: description, general and distinctive features

A

passageway connecting nasal cavity to larynx and oral covity to esophagus; three subdivisions: nasopharynx, oropharynx, and largypharynx<br></br>houses tonsils

327
Q

larynx: description, general and distinctive features

A

connects pharynx to trachea; framework of cartilage and dense connective tissue; opening (rima glottidis) can be closed by epiglottis or vocal folds<br></br>houses true vocal cords

328
Q

trachea: description, general and distinctive features

A

flexible tube running from larynx and dividing inferiorly into two main (primary) bronchi; walls contain C-shaped cartilages that are incomplete posteriorly where trachealis muscle occurs

329
Q

brochial tree: description, general and distinctive features

A

consists of right and left main bronchi, which subdivide within the lungs to form lobar (secondary) and segmental (tertiary) bronchi, smaller bronchi, and bronchioles; bronchiolar walls contain complete layer of smooth muscle; constriction of this muscle impedes expiration

330
Q

alveoli: description, general and distinctive features

A

microscopic chambers at end of bronchial tree; walls of simple squamous epithelium–type I alveolar cells–underlain by thin basement membrane; external surfaces intimately associated with pulmonary capillaries<br></br>simple cuboidal epithelium–type II alveolar cells–produce surfactant

331
Q

lungs: description, general and distinctive features

A

paired composite organs located within pleural cavities of thorax; composed primarily of alveoli and respiratory passageways; stroma is fibrous elastic connective tissue, allowing lungs to recoil passively during expiration

332
Q

pleurae: description, general and distinctive features

A

serous membranes; parietal pleura lines thoracic cavity; visceral pleura covers external lung surfaces

333
Q

cardia

A

”"”near the heart””, ring-shaped zone of the stomach encircling the cardial orifice at the junction with the esophagus”

334
Q

body (stomach)

A

large midportion of the stomach

335
Q

chief (zymogenic) cells

A

occur mainly in the basal parts of the glands; make and secrete the enzymatic protein pepsinogen, also secrete gastric lipase which functions in fat digestion

336
Q

circular folds

A

or plicae circulares, permanent, transverse ridges of the mucosa and submucosa, increase the absorptive surface area, force the chyme to spiral through the intestinal lumen slowing its movement and allowing time for complete absorption of nutrients

337
Q

absorptive enterocytes

A

these cells contain many mitochondria because the uptake of digested nutrients is an energy-demanding process. they also contain an abundant endoplasmic reticulum, which assembles the newly absorbed lipid molecules into lipid-protein complexes called cholymicrons. once made, the chylomicrons enter the lacteal capillaries, so it is in this form that absorbed fat enters the circulation.

338
Q

cecum

A

”"”blind pouch”” saclike beginning of the large intestine, in the right iliac fossa”

339
Q

appendicitis

A

acute inflammation of the appendix, resulting from a blockage that traps infectious bacteria within its lumen

340
Q

appendectomy

A

immediate surgical removal of the appendix

341
Q

colon

A

several distinct segments

342
Q

ascending colon

A

ascends along the right side of the posterior abdominal wall in a secondarily retroperitoneal position and reaches the level of the right kidney where it makes a right-angle turn, the right colic flexure (or hepatic flexure)

343
Q

anal canal

A

begins where the rectum passes through the levator ani, lies entirely external to the abdominopelvic cavity in the perineum

344
Q

anal columns

A

longitudinal folds of mucosa contained in the superior half of the internal anal canal, contain the terminal portions of the superior rectal artery and vein (the hemorrhoidal vessels)

345
Q

anal valves

A

cresent-shaped transverse folds where neighboring anal columns join each other inferiorly

346
Q

anal sinuses

A

pockets just superior to the anal valves which release mucus when they are compressed by feces, providing lubrication that eases fecal passage during defecation

347
Q

toward the head end or upper part of a structure or the body; above

A

superior (cranial)

348
Q

away from the head end or toward the lower part of a structure or the body; below

A

inferior (caudal)

349
Q

toward or at the midline of the body; on the inner side of

A

medial

350
Q

away from the midline of the body; on the outer side of

A

lateral

351
Q

closer to the origin of the body part or the point of attachment of a limb to the body trunk

A

proximal

352
Q

farther from the origin of a body part or the point of attachment of a limb to the body trunk

A

distal

353
Q

on the same side

A

ipsilateral

354
Q

on opposide sides

A

contralateral

355
Q

toward or at the front of the body; in front of

A

anterior

356
Q

toward or at the back of the body; behind

A

posterior

357
Q

toward or at the body surface

A

superficial

358
Q

away from the body surface; more internal

A

deep

359
Q

serves as an external cell barrier; acts in transport of substances into or out of the cell; externally facing proteins act as receptors (for hormones, neurotransmitters, etc) and in cell-to-cell recognition

A

plasma membrane

360
Q

the sites of protein synthesis

A

ribosomes

361
Q

“makes proteins that are secreted from the cell; makes the cell’s membranes”

A

rough endoplasmic reticulum

362
Q

site of lipid and steroid hormone synthesis, lipid metabolism, and drug detoxification

A

smooth endoplasmic reticulum

363
Q

packages, modifies, and segregates proteins for secretion from the cell, inclusion in lysosomes, and incorporation into the plasma membrane

A

golgi apparatus

364
Q

sites of intracellular digestion

A

lysosomes

365
Q

site of ATP synthesis; powerhouse of the cell

A

mitochondria

366
Q

the enzymes detoxify a number of toxic substances; the most important enzyme, catalase, breaks down hydrogen peroxide

A

peroxisomes

367
Q

“involved in muscle contraction and other types of intracellular movement; help form the cell’s cytoskeleton”

A

microfilaments

368
Q

the stable cytoskeletal elements; resist tension forces acting on the cell

A

intermediate filaments

369
Q

support the cell and give it shape; involved in intracellular and cellular movements; form centrioles

A

microtubles

370
Q

organize a microtubule network during mitosis to form the spindle and asters; form the bases of cilia and flagella

A

centrioles

371
Q

control center of the cell; responsible for transmitting genetic information and providing the instructions for protein synthesis

A

nucleus

372
Q

separates the nucleoplasm from the cytoplasm and regulates passage of substances to and from the nucleus

A

nuclear envelope

373
Q

site of ribosome subunit manufacture

A

nucleoli

374
Q

DNA constitutes the genes

A

chromatin

375
Q

”"”outside skin””, forms the outer layer of the skin (epidermis), the brain, and the spinal cord”

A

ectoderm

376
Q

”"”middle skin””, forms muscle, bone, and connective tissues”

A

mesoderm

377
Q

”"”inner skin””, forms the innermost lining of the inner tube (epithelial lining)”

A

endoderm

378
Q

Allows materials to pass by diffusion and filtration in sites where protection is not important; secretes lubricating substances in serosao (linings of ventral body cavity)

A

Epithelium: simple squamous (function)

379
Q

secretion and absorption

A

epithelium: simple cuboidal (function)

380
Q

absorption; secretion of mucus, enzymes, and other substances; ciliated type propels mucus (or reproductive cells) by ciliary action

A

epithelium: simple columnar (function)

381
Q

secrete substances, particularly mucus; propulsion of mucus by ciliary action

A

epithelium: pseudostratified columnar (function)

382
Q

protects underlying tissues in areas subjected to abrasion

A

epithelium: stratified squamous (function)

383
Q

protection

A

epithelium: stratified cuboidal epithelium (function)

384
Q

protection, secretion

A

epithelium: stratified columnar epithelium (function)

385
Q

stretches readily, permits stored urine to distend urinary organ

A

epithelium: transitional (function)

386
Q

impermeable junctions<br></br>form contineous seals around the cell<br></br>prevent molecules from passing between cells

A

tight junctions

387
Q

anchoring junctions<br></br>bind adjacent cells together like molecular velcro/zipper<br></br>help keep cells from tearing apart

A

desmosomes

388
Q

communicating junctions<br></br>allow ions and small molecules to pass from cell to cell<br></br>particularly important in heart cells and embryonic cells

A

gap junctions

389
Q

six different types; vary in density and types of fibers<br></br>functions as a binding tissue<br></br>resists mechanical stress, particularly tension

A

connective tissue proper (features)

390
Q

resists compression because of the large amounts of water held in the matrix<br></br>functions to cusion and support body structures

A

cartilage (features)

391
Q

hard tissue that resists both compression and tension<br></br>functions in support

A

bone tissue (features)

392
Q

a fluid tissue<br></br>functions to carry O2, CO2, nutrients, wastes, and other substances (hormones, e.g.)

A

blood (features)

393
Q

gives rise to all other connective tissue types

A

connective tissue, embryonic, mesenchyme (function)

394
Q

wraps and cusions organs; its macrophages phagocytize bacteria; plays important role in inflammation; holds and conveys tissue fluid

A

connective tissue, proper, loose, areolar (function)

395
Q

provides reserve food fuel; insulates against heat loss; supports and protects organs

A

connective tissue, proper, loose, adipose (function)

396
Q

fibers form a soft internal skeleton (stroma) that suports other cell types including white blood cells, mast cells, and macrophages

A

connective tissue, proper, loose, reticular (function)

397
Q

withstands tensions exerted in many directions; provides structural strength

A

connective tissue, proper, dense, irregular (function)

398
Q

attaches muscles to bones or to muscles; attaches ones to bones; withstands great tensile stress when pulling force is applied in one direction

A

cennective tissue, proper, dense, regular (function)

399
Q

allows tissue to recoil after stretching; maintains pulsatile flow of blood through arteries; aids passive recoil of lungs following inspiration

A

connective tissue, proper, dense, elastic (function)

400
Q

supports and reinforces; serves as resilient cushion; resists compressive stress

A

connective tissue, cartilage, hyaline (function)

401
Q

maintains the shape of a structure while allowing great flexibility

A

connective tissue, cartilage, elastic (function)

402
Q

tensile strength allows it to absorb compressive shock

A

connective tissue, cartalage, fibrocartilage (function)

403
Q

supports and protects (by enclosing); provides levers for the muscles to act on; stores calcium and other minerals and fat; marrow inside bones is the side for blood cell formation (hematopoiesis)

A

connective tissue, bone (function)

404
Q

transports respiratory gases, nutrients, wastes, and other substances

A

connective tissue, blood (function)

405
Q

voluntary movement; locomotion; manipulation of the environment; facial expression; voluntary control

A

skeletal muscle (function)

406
Q

as it contracts, it propels blood into the circulation; involuntary control

A

cardiac muscle (function)

407
Q

propels substances or objects (foodstuffs, urine, a baby) along internal passageways; involuntary control

A

smooth muscle (function)

408
Q

neurons transmit electrical signals from sensory receptors and to effectors (muscles and glands); supporting cells support and protect neurons

A

nervous tissue (function)

409
Q

bone fragments into three or more pieces; particularly common in the aged, whose bones are more brittle

A

comminuted fracture

410
Q

bone is crushed; common in porous bones (i.e. osteoporotic bones) subjected to extreme trauma, as in a fall

A

compression fracture

411
Q

ragged break occurs when excessive twisting forces are applied to a bone; common sports fracture

A

spiral fracture

412
Q

epiphysis separates from the diasphysis along the epipyseal plate; tends to occure where cartilage cells are dying and calcification of the matrix is occuring

A

epiphyseal fracture

413
Q

broken bone portion is pressed inward; typical of skull fracture

A

depressed fracture

414
Q

bone breaks incompletely, much in the way a green twig breaks. only one side ofthe shaft breaks and the other side bends; common in children, whose bones have relatively more organic matrix and are more flexible than those of adults

A

greenstick

415
Q

projections that are sites of muscle and ligament attachment: large rounded projection; may be roughened

A

tuberosity

416
Q

projections that are sites of muscle and ligament attachment: narrow ridge of bone; usually prominent

A

crest

417
Q

projections that are sites of muscle and ligament attachment: very large, blunt, irregularly shaped process (the only examples are on the femur)

A

trochanter

418
Q

projections that are sites of muscle and ligament attachment: narrow ridge of bone; less prominent than a crest

A

line

419
Q

projections that are sites of muscle and ligament attachment: small rounded projection or process

A

tubercle

420
Q

projections that are sites of muscle and ligament attachment: raised area on or above a condyle

A

epicondyle

421
Q

projections that are sites of muscle and ligament attachment: sharp, slender, often pointed projection

A

spine

422
Q

projections that are sites of muscle and ligament attachment: any bony prominence

A

process

423
Q

surfaces that form joints: bony expansion carried on a narrow neck

A

head

424
Q

surfaces that form joints: smooth, nearly flat articular surface

A

facet [glossary]

425
Q

surfaces that form joints: rounded articular projection, often acticulates with a corresponding fossa

A

condyle

426
Q

depressions and openings (for passage of vessels and nerves): round or oval opening through a bone

A

foramen [glossary]

427
Q

depressions and openings (for passage of vessels and nerves): furrow

A

groove

428
Q

depressions and openings (for passage of vessels and nerves): narrow, slitlike opening

A

fissure

429
Q

depressions and openings (for passage of vessels and nerves): indentation at the edge of a structure

A

notch

430
Q

depressions and openings: shallow basinlike depression in a bone, often serving as an articular surface

A

fossa

431
Q

depressions and openings: canal-like passageway

A

meatus [glossary]

432
Q

depressions and openings: cavity within a bone, filled with air and lined with mucous membrane

A

sinus

433
Q

supraorbital foramina (notches): passageway for the supraorbital arteries and nerves

A

cranial bones (important markings): frontal

434
Q

foramen magnum: allows passage of the spinal cord from the brain stem to the vertebral canal<br></br>hypoglossal canals: passageway for the hypoglossal nerve (cranial nerve XII)<br></br>occipital condyles: articulate with the atlas (first vertebra)<br></br>external occipital protuberance and nuchal lines: sites of muscle attachment<br></br>external occipital crest: attachment site of ligamentum nuchae

A

cranial bones (important markings): occipital

435
Q

zygomatic process: contributes to the zygomatic arch, which forms the prominence of the cheek<br></br>mandibular fossa: articular point for the head of the mandible<br></br>external acoustic meatus: canal leading from the exteral ear to the eardrum<br></br>styloid process: attachment site for several neck and tongue muscles and for a ligament to the hyoid bone<br></br>mastoid process: attachment side for several neck muscles<br></br>stylomastoid foramen: passageway for cranial nerve VII (facial nerve)<br></br>jugular foramen: passageway for the internal jugular vein and cranial nerves IX, X, and XI<br></br>internal acoustic meatus: passageway for cranial nerves VII and VIII<br></br>caratid canal: passageway for the internal carotid artery

A

cranial bones (important markings): temporal

436
Q

sella turcica: hypophyseal fossa portion is the seat of the pituitary gland<br></br>optic canals: passageway for cranial nerve II and the opthalmic arteries<br></br>superior orbital fissures: passageway for cranial nerves III, IV, VI, part of V (opthalmic division), and opthalmic vein<br></br>foramen rotundum: passageway for the maxillary division of cranial nerve V<br></br>foramen ovale: passageway for the mindibular division of cranial nerve V<br></br>foramen spinosum: passageway for the middle meningeal artery

A

cranial bones (important markings): sphenoid

437
Q

crista galli: attachment point for the falx cerebri, a dural membrane fold<br></br>cribriform plates: passageway for filaments of the oldfactory nerves (cranial nerve I)<br></br>superior and middle nasal conchae: form part of lateral walls of nasal cavity; increase turbulence of air flow

A

cranial bones (important markings): ethmoid

438
Q

lacrimal fossa: houses the lacrimal sac, which helps to drain tears into the nasal cavity

A

facial bones (important markings): lacrimal

439
Q

coronoid processes: insertion points for the temporalis muscles<br></br>condylar processes: articulate with the temporal bones to form the jaw (temporomandibular) joints<br></br>mental protuberance: forms the chin<br></br>dental alveoli: sockets for the teeth<br></br>mandibular foramina: passageway for the inferior alveolar nerves<br></br>mental foramina: passageway for blood vessels and nerves to the chin and lower lip

A

facial bones (important markings): mandible

440
Q

dental alveoli: sockets for teeth<br></br>zygomatic process: helps form the zygomatic arches<br></br>palatine process: forms the anterior part of the hard palate<br></br>frontal process: forms part of lateral aspect of bridge of nose<br></br>incisive fossa: passageway for blood vessels and nerves through hard palate (fused palatine processes)<br></br>inferior orbital fissure: passageway for maxillary branch of cranial nerve V, the zygomatic nerve, and blood vessels<br></br>infraorbital foramen: passageway for infraorbital nerve to skin of face

A

facial bones (important markings): maxilla

441
Q

attached to bones or (some facial muscles) to skin

A

skeletal muscle: body location

442
Q

single, very long cylindrical, multinucleate cells with obvious striations

A

skeletal muscle: cell shape and appearance

443
Q

epimysium, perimysium, and endomysium

A

skeletal muscle: connective tissue components

444
Q

yes

A

skeletal muscle: presence of myofibrils composed of sarcomeres

445
Q

yes; two in each sarcomere at A-I junctions

A

skeletal muscle: presence of T tubules and site of invagination

446
Q

yes

A

skeletal muscle: elaborate sarcoplasmic reticulum

447
Q

sarcoplasmic reticulum

A

skeletal muscle: source of Ca2+ for calcium pulse

448
Q

no

A

skeletal muscle: presence of gap junctions

449
Q

yes

A

skeletal muscle: cells exhibit individual neuromuscular junctions

450
Q

voluntary via terminal boutons of the somatic nervous system

A

skeletal muscle: regulation of contraction

451
Q

aerobic and anaerobic

A

skeletal muscle: energetics

452
Q

walls of the heart

A

cardiac muscle: body location

453
Q

branching chains of cells; uni- or binucleate; striations

A

cardiac muscle: cell shape and appearance

454
Q

endomysium attached to fibrous skeleton of heart

A

cardiac muscle: connective tissue components

455
Q

yes, but myofibrils are of irregular thickness

A

cardiac muscle: presence of myofibrils composed of sarcomeres

456
Q

yes; one in each sarcomere at Z discs; larger diameter than those of skeletal muscle

A

cardiac muscle: presence of T tubules and site of invagination

457
Q

less that skeletal muscle; scant terminal cisterns

A

cardiac muscle: elaborate sarcoplasmic reticulum

458
Q

sarcoplasmic reticulum and from extracellular fluid

A

cardiac muscle: source of Ca2+ for calcium pulse

459
Q

yes; at intercalated discs

A

cardiac muscle: presence of gap junctions

460
Q

no

A

cardiac muscle: cells exhibit individual neuromuscular junctions

461
Q

involuntary; intrinsic system regulation; also autonomic nervous system controls; stretch

A

cardiac muscle: regulation of contraction

462
Q

aerobic

A

cardiac muscle: energetics

463
Q

mostly in walls of hollow organs, such as the stomach, respiratory tubes, bladder, blood vessels, and uterus

A

smooth muscle: body location

464
Q

single, fusiform, uninucleate; no striations

A

smooth muscle: cell shape and appearance

465
Q

endomysium

A

smooth muscle: connective tissue components

466
Q

no, but actin and myosin filaments are present throughout

A

smooth muscle: presence of myofibrils composed of sarcomeres

467
Q

no T tubules; has caveolae along the sarcolemma

A

smooth muscle: presence of T tubules and site of invagination

468
Q

equivalent to cardiac muscle; some SR contacts the sarcolemma

A

smooth muscle: elaborate sarcoplasmic reticulum

469
Q

sarcoplasmic reticulum and from extracellular fluid

A

smooth muscle: source of Ca2+ for calcium pulse

470
Q

yes; in single-unit muscle

A

smooth muscle: presence of gap junctions

471
Q

not in single-unit smooth muscle; yes in multi unit smooth muscle

A

smooth muscle: cells exhibit individual neuromuscular junctions

472
Q

involuntary; autonomic nerves, hormones, local chemicals; stretch

A

smooth muscle: regulation of contraction

473
Q

mainly aerobic

A

smooth muscle: energetics

474
Q

pass through the cribriform foramina of the ethmoid bone to spnapse in the oldfactory bulb. Fibers of olfactory bulb neurons extend posteriorly beneath the frontal lobe as the olfactory tract. Terminate in the primary olfactory cortex of the cerebrum.

A

IN I Olfactory Nerves: Pathway

475
Q

L: exteroceptors, interoceptors, and proprioceptors<br></br>S: nociceptors (pain), thermoreceptors (heat and cold), mechanoreceptors (pressure), chemoreceptors

A

free nerve endings, free nerve endings of sensory neurons: functional class according to location (L) and stimulus type (S)

476
Q

L: exteroceptors<br></br>S: mechanoreceptors (light pressure), slowly adapting

A

free nerve endings, modified free nerve endings (epithelial tactile complexes/Merkel discs): functional class according to location (L) and stimulus type (S)

477
Q

L: exteroceptors<br></br>S: mechanoreceptors (hair deflection), rapidly adapting

A

free nerve endingsn, hair follicle receptors: functional class according to location (L) and stimulus type (S)

478
Q

L: exteroceptors<br></br>S: mechanoreceptors (light pressure, discriminative touch, vibration of low frequency), rapidly adapting

A

“encapsulated, tactile (Meissner’s) corpuscles: functional class according to location (L) and stimulus type (S)”

479
Q

L: exteroceptors, interoceptors, and some proprieceptors<br></br>S: mechanoreceptors (deep pressure, stretch, vibration of high frequency); rapidly adapting

A

encapsulated, lamellar (Cacinian) corpuscles: functional class according to location (L) and stimulus type (S)

480
Q

L: exteroceptors and proprioceptors<br></br>S: mechanoreceptors (deep pressure and stretch); slowly adapting or nonadapting

A

encapsulated, bulbous corpuscle (Ruffini endings): functional class according to location (L) and stimulus type (S)

481
Q

L: proprioceptors<br></br>S: mechanoreceptors (muscle stretch)

A

proprioceptors, muscle spindles: functional class according to location (L) and stimulus type (S)

482
Q

L: proprioceptors<br></br>S: mechanoreceptors (tendon stretch)

A

proprioceptors, tendon organs: functional class according to location (L) and stimulus type (S)

483
Q

L: proprioceptors<br></br>S: mechanoreceptors and nociceptors

A

proprioceptors, joint kinesthetic receptors: functional class according to location (L) and stimulus type (S)

484
Q

most body tissues; most dense in connective tissues (ligaments, tendons, dermis, joint capsules, perosteum) and epithelia (epidermis, cornea, mucosae, and glands)

A

free nerve endings, free nerve endings of sensory neurons: body location

485
Q

basal layer of epidermis

A

free nerve endings, modified free nerve endings (epithelial tactile complexes/Merkel discs): body location

486
Q

in and surrounding hair follicles

A

free nerve endings, hair follicle receptors: body location

487
Q

dermal papillae of hairless skin, particularly nipples, external genitalia, fingertips, eyelids

A

“encapsulated, tactile (Meissner’s) corpuscles: body location”

488
Q

dermis and hypodermis; periosteum, mesentery, tendons, ligaments, joint capsules, most abundant on fingers, soles of feet, external genitalia, nipples

A

encapsulated, lamella (Pacinian) corpuscles: body location

489
Q

deep in dermis, hypodermis, and joint capsules

A

encapsulated, bulbous corpuscle (Ruffini endings): body location

490
Q

skeletal muscles, particularly those of the extremities

A

proprioceptors, muscle spindles: body location

491
Q

tendons

A

proprioceptors, tendon organs: body location

492
Q

joint capsules of synovial joints

A

proprioceptors, joint keneisthetic receptors: body location

493
Q

lateral

A

location (funiculus): direct (pyramidal) pathways (descending): lateral corticospinal

494
Q

ventral

A

location (funiculus): direct (pyramidal) pathways (descending): ventral corticospinal

495
Q

lateral

A

location (funiculus): indirect pathways (descending): rubrospinal

496
Q

ventral

A

location (funiculus): indirect pathways (descending): tectospinal

497
Q

ventral

A

location (funiculus): indirect pathways (descending): vestibulospinal

498
Q

ventral and lateral

A

location (funiculus): indirect pathways (descending): reticulospinal (ventral, medial, and lateral)

499
Q

lateral (dorsal part)

A

location (funiculus): spinocerebellar pathways (ascending): dorsal spinocerebellar

500
Q

lateral (ventral part)

A

location (funiculus): spinocerebellar pathways (ascending): ventral spinocerebellar

501
Q

dorsal

A

location (funiculus): dorsal column-medial lemniscus pathways (ascending): fasciculus cuneatus and fasciculus gracilis

502
Q

lateral

A

location (funiculus): spinothalamic pathways (ascending): lateral spinothalamic

503
Q

ventral

A

location (funiculus): spinothalamic pathways (ascending): ventral spinothalamic

504
Q

interneurons (second-order neurons) in dorsal horns. fibers cross to contralateral side before ascending

A

origin: spinothalamic pathways (ascending): ventral spinothalamic

505
Q

by synapse with third-order neurons in thalamus. thalamic neurons convey impulses to somatosensory cortex

A

termination: spinothalamic pathways (ascending): ventral spinothalamic

506
Q

transmits impulses concerned with crude touch and pressure to contralateral somatosensory cortex

A

function: spinothalamic pathways (ascending): ventral spinothalamic

507
Q

interneurons (second-order neurons) in dorsal horn. fibers cross to contralateral side before ascending

A

origin: spinothalamic pathways (ascending): lateral spinothalamic

508
Q

by synapse with third-order neurons in thalamus. thalamic neurons then convey imprulses to somatosensory cortex.

A

termination: spinothalamic pathways (ascending): lateral spinothalamic

509
Q

transmits impulses concerned with crude touch and pressure to contralateral somatosensory cortex

A

function: spinothalamic pathways (ascending): lateral spinothalamic

510
Q

central processes of sensory (first-order) neurons enter dorsal root of the spinal cord and branch. branches enter dorsal white column on ipsilateral side without synapsing

A

origin: dorsal column-medial lemniscus pathways (ascending): fasciculus cuneatus and fasciculus gracilis

511
Q

by synapse with second-order neurons in nucleus cuneatus and nucleus gracilis in medulla. fibers of medullary neurons cross over and ascend in medial lemnicus to thalamus where they synapse with third-order neurons. thalamic neurons then transmit impulses to somatosensory cortex.

A

termination: dorsal column-medial lemniscus pathways (ascending): fasciculus cuneatus and fasciculus gracilis

512
Q

“both tracts transmit general sensory impulses from receptors of skin and proprioceptors, which are interpreted as discriminative touch, pressure, and ““body sense”” (limb and joint position) in the contralateral somatosensory cortex. Cuneatus transmits afferent impulses from upper limbs, upper trunk, and neck; it is not present in spinal cord below level of T6. gracilis carries impulses from lower limbs and inferior body trunk.”

A

function: dorsal column-medial lemniscus pathways (ascending): fasciculus cuneatus and fasciculus gracilis

513
Q

interneurons (second-order neurons) of dorsal horn. contains crossed fibers that cross back to the original ipsilateral side in the pons

A

origin: spinocerebellar pathways (ascending): ventral spinocerebellar

514
Q

by synapse in cerebellum by way of the superior cerebellar peduncle

A

termination: spinocerebellar pathways (ascending): ventral spinocerebellar

515
Q

transmits impulses from the trunk and lower limb on one side of body to ipsilateral side of cerebellum for subconscious proprioception

A

function: spinocerebellar pathways (ascending): ventral spinocerebellar

516
Q

interneurons (second-order neurons) in dorsal horn on same side of cord. fibers ascend without crossing

A

origin: spinocerebellar pathways (ascending): dorsal spinocerebellar

517
Q

by synapse in cerebellum by way of the inferior cerebellar peduncle

A

termination: spinocerebellar pathways (ascending): dorsal spinocerebellar

518
Q

transmits impulses from trunk and lower limb propriceptors on one side of body to ipsilateral side of cerebellum for subconscious proprioception

A

function: spinocerebellar pathways (ascending): dorsal spinocerebellar

519
Q

pyramidal neurons of motor cortex of the cerebrum; decussate in pyramids of medulla

A

origin: direct (pyramidal) pathways (decending): lateral corticospinal

520
Q

by synapse with ventral horn interneurons that influence motor neurons, and occasionally with neurons directly

A

termination: direct (pyramidal) pathways (decending): lateral corticospinal

521
Q

transmits motor impulses from cerebrum to contralateral spinal cord motor neuron (which activate skeletal muscles); voluntary motor tract to limb muscles

A

function: direct (pyramidal) pathways (decending): lateral corticospinal

522
Q

pyramidal neurons of motor cortex; fibers cross over at the spinal cord level

A

origin: direct (pyramidal) pathways (decending): ventral corticospinal

523
Q

ventral horn (as above: by synapse with ventral horn interneurons that influence motor neurons, and occasionally with ventral horn motor neurons directly)

A

termination: direct (pyramidal) pathways (decending): ventral corticospinal

524
Q

same as lateral corticospinal tract but to axial muscles: transmits motor impulses from cerebrum to contralateral spinal cord motor neurons (which activate skeletal muscles); voluntary motor tract to axial muscles

A

function: direct (pyramidal) pathways (decending): ventral corticospinal

525
Q

red rucleus of midbrain of brain stem (fibers cross to contralateral side just inferior to the red nucleus)

A

origin: indirect pathways (decending): rubrospinal

526
Q

ventral horn (as above: by synapse with ventral horn interneurons that influence motor neurons, and occasionally with ventral horn motor neurons directly)

A

termination: indirect pathways (decending): rubrospinal

527
Q

transmits motor impulses concerned with muscle tone of distal limb muscles (mostly flexors) on contralateral side of body

A

function: indirect pathways (decending): rubrospinal

528
Q

superior colliculus of midbrain of brain stem (fibers cross to contralateral side of cord)

A

origin: indirect pathways (decending): tectospinal

529
Q

ventral horn (as above: by synapse with ventral horn interneurons that influence motor neurons, and occasionally with ventral horn motor neurons directly)

A

termination: indirect pathways (decending): tectospinal

530
Q

turns neck so eyes can follow a moving object

A

function: indirect pathways (decending): tectospinal

531
Q

vestibular nuclei in medulla of brain stem (fibers descend without crossing)

A

origin: indirect pathways (decending): vestibulospinal

532
Q

ventral horn (as above: by synapse with ventral horn interneurons that influence motor neurons, and occasionally with ventral horn motor neurons directly)

A

termination: indirect pathways (decending): vestibulospinal

533
Q

transmits motor impulses that maintain muscle tone and activate ipsilateral limb and trunk extensor muscles and muscles that move head; helps maintain balance during standing and moving

A

function: indirect pathways (decending): vestibulospinal

534
Q

reticular formation of brain stem (medial nuclear group of pons and medulla); both crossed and uncrossed fibers

A

origin: indirect pathways (decending): reticulospinal (ventral, medial, and lateral)

535
Q

ventral horn (as above: by synapse with ventral horn interneurons that influence motor neurons, and occasionally with ventral horn motor neurons directly)

A

termination: indirect pathways (decending): reticulospinal (ventral, medial, and lateral)

536
Q

transmits impulses concerned with muscle tone and many visceral motor functions; may control most unskilled movements

A

function: indirect pathways (decending): reticulospinal (ventral, medial, and lateral)

537
Q

thoracolumbar outflow; lateral horn of gray matter of spinal cord segments T1-L2

A

sympathetic: origin

538
Q

ganglia close to CNS: alongside vertebral column (sympathetic trunk ganglia) and anterior to vertebral column (collateral ganglia)

A

sympathetic: location of ganglia

539
Q

short preganglionic (splanchic nerves are exceptions); long postgonglionic

A

sympathetic: relative length of pre-and postganglionic axons

540
Q

gray and white rami communicantes; white contain myelinated preganglionic axons; gray contain unmyelinated postganglionic axons

A

sympathetic: rami communicantes

541
Q

extensive

A

sympathetic: degree of branching of preganglionic axons

542
Q

prepares body to cope with emergencies and internse muscular activity; fight-or-flight response

A

sympathetic: functional role

543
Q

all preganglionic axons release ACh; most postganglionic axons release norephinephrine (adrenergic axons); postganglionic axons to sweat glands and blood vessels of skeletal muscles release ACh; neurotransmitter activity augmented by release of adrenal medullary hormones (epinephrine and norepinephrine)

A

sympathetic: neurotransmitters

544
Q

craniosacral outflow: brain stem nuclei of cranial nerves III, VII, IX, and X; spinal cord segments S2-S4

A

parasympathetic: origin

545
Q

ganglia in or close to visceral organ served

A

parasympathetic: location of ganglia

546
Q

long preganglionic; short postganglionic

A

parasympathetic: relative length of pre- and postganglionic axons

547
Q

none

A

parasympathetic: rami communicantes

548
Q

minimal

A

parasympathetic: degree of branching of preganglionic axons

549
Q

maintenance functions; conserves and stores energy; rest and digest response

A

parasympathetic: functional role

550
Q

all axons, preganglionic and postganglionic, release ACH (cholinergic axons)

A

parasympathetic: neurotransmitters

551
Q

stimulates constrictor muscles; consricts eye pupils

A

parasymathetic effects: eye (iris)

552
Q

stimulates ciliar muscles, which results in bulging of the lengs for accommodation and close vision

A

parasymathetic effects: eye (ciliary muscle)

553
Q

stimulates secretory activity

A

parasymathetic effects: glands (nasal, lacrimal, salivary, gastric, pancreas)

554
Q

no innervation

A

parasymathetic effects: sweat glands

555
Q

no innervation

A

parasymathetic effects: arrector pili muscles attached to hair follicles

556
Q

decreases rate; slows and steadies heart

A

parasymathetic effects: heart muscle

557
Q

causes vasoconstriction

A

parasymathetic effects: heart: coronary blood vessels

558
Q

constricts brochoiles

A

parasymathetic effects: lungs

559
Q

increases motility (peristalsis) and amount of secretion by digestive organs; relaxes sphincters to allow movement of foodstuffs along tract

A

parasymathetic effects: digestive tract organs

560
Q

no effect

A

parasymathetic effects: liver

561
Q

stimulates activity (gallbladder contracts to expel bile)

A

parasymathetic effects: gallbladder

562
Q

no innervation

A

parasymathetic effects: adrenal medulla

563
Q

no effect

A

parasymathetic effects: kidney

564
Q

causes contraction of smooth muscle of bladder wall; relaxes urethral sphincter; promotes voiding

A

parasymathetic effects: bladder, urethra

565
Q

causes erection (vasodilation)

A

parasymathetic effects: penis

566
Q

inhibits contraction of smooth muscle of uterine wall; causes vasodilation of vessels

A

parasymathetic effects: uterus

567
Q

causes erection (vasodilation) of clitoris

A

parasymathetic effects: vagina, clitoris

568
Q

little or no effect

A

parasymathetic effects: blood vessels

569
Q

no innervation

A

parasymathetic effects: blood coagulation

570
Q

no innervation

A

parasymathetic effects: cellular metabolism

571
Q

no innervation

A

parasymathetic effects: adipose tissue

572
Q

no innervation

A

parasymathetic effects: mental activity

573
Q

stimulates dilator muscles, dilates eye pupils

A

sympathetic effects: eye (iris)

574
Q

weakly inhibits ciliar muscles, which flatten the lens for distance vision

A

sympathetic effects: eye (ciliary muscle)

575
Q

inhibits secretory activity; causes vasoconstriction of blood vessels supplying the glands

A

sympathetic effects: glands (nasal, lacrimal, salivary, gastric, pancreas)

576
Q

stimulates copious sweating (cholingeric fibers)

A

sympathetic effects: sweat glands

577
Q

stimulates to contract (erects hairs and produces goose bumps)

A

sympathetic effects: arrector pili muscles attached to hair follicles

578
Q

increases rate and force of heartbeat

A

sympathetic effects: heart muscle

579
Q

causes vasodilation

A

sympathetic effects: heart: coronary blood vessels

580
Q

dilates bronchioles and mildly constricts blood vessels

A

sympathetic effects: lungs

581
Q

decreases activity of gladns and muscles of digestive system and costricts sphircters (e.g., anal sphincter); causes vasoconstriction

A

sympathetic effects: digestive tract organs

582
Q

epinephrine stimulates liver to release glucose to blood

A

sympathetic effects: liver

583
Q

inhibits activity (gallbladder is relaxed)

A

sympathetic effects: gallbladder

584
Q

stimulates medulla cells to secrete epinephrine and norepinephrine into bloodstream

A

sympathetic effects: adrenal medulla

585
Q

causes vasoconstriction; decreases urine output

A

sympathetic effects: kidney

586
Q

causes relaxation of smooth muscle of bladder wall; constricts urethral sphincter; inhibits voiding

A

sympathetic effects: bladder, urethra

587
Q

causes ejaculation

A

sympathetic effects: penis

588
Q

stimulates contraction of smooth muscle of uterine wall; causes vasoconstriction of vessels

A

sympathetic effects: uterus

589
Q

causes contraction of vagina

A

sympathetic effects: vagina, clitoris

590
Q

constricts most vessels and increases blood pressure; consticts vessels of abdominal viscera and skin to divert blood to muscles, brain, and heart when necessary; dilates vessels of the skeletal muscles (cholinergic fibers) during exercise

A

sympathetic effects: blood vessels

591
Q

increases coagulation

A

sympathetic effects: blood coagulation

592
Q

increases metabolic rate

A

sympathetic effects: cellular metabolism

593
Q

stimulates lipolysis (fat breakdown)

A

sympathetic effects: adipose tissue

594
Q

increases alertness

A

sympathetic effects: mental activity

595
Q

moves eye laterally<br></br>VI (abducens)

A

lateral rectus: action and controlling cranial nerve

596
Q

moves eye medially<br></br>III (oculomotor)

A

medial rectus: action and controlling cranial nerve

597
Q

elevates eye and turns it medially<br></br>III (oculomotor)

A

superior rectus: action and controlling cranial nerve

598
Q

depresses eye and turns it medially<br></br>III (oculomotor)

A

inferior rectus: action and controlling cranial nerve

599
Q

elevates eye and turns it laterally<br></br>III (oculomotor)

A

inferior oblique: action and controlling cranial nerve

600
Q

depresses eye and turns it laterally<br></br>IV (trochlear)

A

superior oblique: action and controlling cranial nerve

601
Q

semicircular ducts

A

semicircular canals: Membranous labyrinth (within bony labyrinth)

602
Q

utricle and sacclue

A

vestibule: Membranous labyrinth (within bony labyrinth)

603
Q

cochlear duct

A

cochlea: Membranous labyrinth (within bony labyrinth)

604
Q

equilibrium: rotational (angular) acceleration of the head)

A

semicircular canals: functions of the membranous labyrinth

605
Q

equilibrium: static equilibrium and linear acceleration of the head

A

vestibule: functions of the membranous labyrinth

606
Q

hearing

A

cochlea: functions of the membranous labyrinth

607
Q

hormone release caused by altered levels of certain critical ions or nutrients<br></br>stimulus: low concentration of Ca2+ in capillary blood<br></br>response: parathyroid glands secrete parathyroid hormone (PTH), which increases blood Ca2+

A

humoral stimulus: cause, stimulus, response (examples)

608
Q

hormone release caused by neural input<br></br>stimulus: action potentials in preganglionic sympathetic fibers to adrenal medulla<br></br>response: adrenal medulla cells secrete epinephrine and norepinephrine

A

neural stimulus: cause, stimulus, response (examples)

609
Q

hormone release caused by another hormone (a tropic hormone)<br></br>stimulus: hormones from hypothalamus<br></br>response: anterior pituitary gland secretes hormones that stimulate other endocrine glands to secrete hormones

A

hormonal stimulas: cause, stimulus, response (examples)

610
Q

thyroid gland: stimulates thyroid gland to release thyroid hormones

A

anterior lobe hormones, target organ and effects: thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) (thyrotropic cells)

611
Q

adrenal cortex: promotes release of glococorticoids and androgens (mineralocorticoids to a lesser extent)

A

anterior lobe hormones, target organ and effects: adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) (corticotropic cells)

612
Q

ovaries and testes: in females, stimulates ovarian follicle maturation and estrogen production; in males, stimulates sperm production

A

anterior lobe hormones, target organ and effects: follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) (gonadotropic cells)

613
Q

ovaries and testes: in females, triggers ovulation and stimulates ovarian production of estrogen and progesterone; in males, promotes testosterone production

A

anterior lobe hormones, target organ and effects: luteinizing hormone (LH) (gonadotropic cells)

614
Q

liver, muscle, bone, cartilage, and other tissues: stimulates protein synthesis and somatic growth; mobilizes fats; increases blood glucose

A

anterior lobe hormones, target organ and effects: growth hormone (GH) (somatotropic cells)

615
Q

breast secretory tissue: promotes lactation

A

anterior lobe hormones, target organ and effects: prolactin (PRL) (prolactin cells)

616
Q

kidneys: stimulates kdney tubule cells to resorb water

A

posterior lobe hormones, target organ and effects: antidiuretic hormon (ADH), or vasopressin (from neurons in supraoptic nucleus of hypothalamus)

617
Q

uterus: stimulates uterine contractions; initiates labor; breast: initiates milk ejection

A

posterior lobe hormones, target organ and effects: oxytocin (from neurons in paraventricular nucleus hypothalamus)

618
Q

-diabetes insipidus<br></br>+syndrome of innapropriate ADH secretion (SIADH)

A

posterior lobe hormones, effects of hyposecretion (-) and hypersecretion (+): antidiuretic hormone (ADH) or vasopressin (from neurons in supraoptic nucleus of hypothalamus)

619
Q

unknown

A

posterior lobe hormones, effects of hyposecretion (-) and hypersecretion (+): oxytocin (from neurons in paraventricular nucleus hypothalamus)

620
Q

-poor milk production in nursing women<br></br>+inappropriate milk production (galactorrhea); cessation of menses in females; impotence in males

A

anterior lobe hormones, effects of hyposecretion (-) and hypersecretion (+): prolactin (PRL) (prolactin cells)

621
Q

-pituitary dwarfism in children<br></br>+gigantism in children; acromegaly in adults

A

anterior lobe hormones, effects of hyposecretion (-) and hypersecretion (+): growth hormone (GH) (somatotropic cells)

622
Q

as for FSH:<br></br>-failure of sexual maturation<br></br>+no imortant effects

A

anterior lobe hormones, effects of hyposecretion (-) and hypersecretion (+): luteinizing hormone (LH) (gonadotropic cells)

623
Q

-failure of sexual maturation<br></br>+no important effects

A

anterior lobe hormones, effects of hyposecretion (-) and hypersecretion (+): follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) (gonadotropic cells)

624
Q

“-rare<br></br>+Cushing’s disease”

A

anterior lobe hormones, effects of hyposecretion (-) and hypersecretion (+): adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) (corticotropic cells)

625
Q

“-cretinism in children; myxedema in adults<br></br>+hyperthyroidism; effects similar to those of Graves’ disease, in which antibodies mimic TSH”

A

anterior lobe hormones, effects of hyposecretion (-) and hypersecretion (+): thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) (thyrotropic cells)

626
Q

biconcave, anuleate disc; salmon-colored; diametr 7-8 um

A

“erythrocytes: description (Wright’s stain)”

627
Q

spherical, nucleated cells

A

“leukocytes: description (Wright’s stain)”

628
Q

nucleus multilobed; inconspicuous cytoplasmic granules; diameter 12-14 um

A

“neutrophils: description (Wright’s stain)”

629
Q

nucleus bilobed; red cytoplasmic granules, diameter 12-15 um

A

“eosinophils: description (Wright’s stain)”

630
Q

nucleus bilobed; large blue-purple cytoplasmic granules; diameter 10-14 um

A

“basophils: description (Wright’s stain)”

631
Q

nucleus spherical or indeted; pale blue cytoplasm; diametr 5-17 um

A

“lymphocytes: description (Wright’s stain)”

632
Q

nucleus U- or kidney-shaped; gray-blue cytoplasm; diameter 14-24 um

A

“monocytes: description (Wright’s stain)”

633
Q

discoid cytoplasmic fragments cointaing graundules; stain deep purple; diameter 2-4 um

A

“platelets: description (Wright’s stain)”

634
Q

4-6 million

A

erythrocytes: number of cells per mm^3 (ul) of blood

635
Q

4800-11000

A

leukocytes: number of cells per mm^3 (ul) of blood

636
Q

3000-7000

A

neutrophils: number of cells per mm^3 (ul) of blood

637
Q

100-400

A

eosinophils: number of cells per mm^3 (ul) of blood

638
Q

20-50

A

basophils: number of cells per mm^3 (ul) of blood

639
Q

1500-3000

A

lymphocytes: number of cells per mm^3 (ul) of blood

640
Q

100-700

A

monocytes: number of cells per mm^3 (ul) of blood

641
Q

150,000-500,000

A

platelets: number of cells per mm^3 (ul) of blood

642
Q

D: 5-9 days<br></br>LS: 100-120 days

A

erythrocytes: duration of development (D) and life span (LS)

643
Q

D: 7-11 days<br></br>LS: 6 hours to a few days

A

neutrophils: duration of development (D) and life span (LS)

644
Q

D: 7-11 days<br></br>LS: about 5 days

A

eosinophils: duration of development (D) and life span (LS)

645
Q

D: 3-7 days<br></br>LS: a few hours to a few days

A

basophils: duration of development (D) and life span (LS)

646
Q

D: days to weeks<br></br>LS: hours to years

A

lymphocytes: duration of development (D) and life span (LS)

647
Q

D: 2-3 days<br></br>LS: months

A

monocytes: duration of development (D) and life span (LS)

648
Q

D: 4-5 days<br></br>LS: 5-10 days

A

platelets: duration of development (D) and life span (LS)

649
Q

transport oxygen and carbon dioxide

A

erythrocytes: function

650
Q

destroy bacteria by phagocytosis

A

granulocytes: function

651
Q

turn off allergic responses and kill parasites

A

eosinophils: function

652
Q

release histamine and other mediators of inflammation

A

basophils: function

653
Q

mount immune response by direct cell attack (T cells) or via antibodies (B cells)

A

lymphocytes: function

654
Q

phagocytosis; develop into macrophages in tissues

A

monocytes: function

655
Q

seal small tears in blood vessels; instrumental in bloodclotting

A

platelets: function

656
Q

fossa ovalis; diverts blood from the right atrium to the left atrium

A

foramen ovale: postnatal structure; function in fetus

657
Q

ligamentum arteriosum; diverts blood from the pulmonary trunk to the aorta

A

ductus arteriosus: postnatal structure; function in fetus

658
Q

ligamentum venosum; carries blood from the umbilical vein through the liver into the IVC

A

ductus venosus: postnatal structure; function in fetus

659
Q

medial umbilical ligaments; paired vessels carry blood from the fetus to the placenta

A

umbilical arteries: postnatal structure; function in fetus

660
Q

round ligament of the liver (ligamentum teres); single vessel carries oxygenated blood from the placenta to the fetus

A

umbilical vein: postnatal structure; function in fetus

661
Q

produces mucus; filters, warms, and moistens incoming air; resonance chamber for speech<br></br>receptors for sense of smell

A

nose: function

662
Q

lighten the skull; help warm, filter, and moisten incoming air

A

paranasal sinuses: function

663
Q

passageway for air and food<br></br>tonsils are lymphoid tissue that responds to inhaled or ingested antigens

A

pharynx: function

664
Q

air passageway; prevents food from entering lower respiratory tract<br></br>voice production

A

larynx: function

665
Q

air passageway; filters, warms, and moistens incoming air

A

trachea: function

666
Q

air passageways connecting trachea with alveoli; warms and moistens incoming air

A

bronchial tree: function

667
Q

main sites of gas exchange<br></br>surfactant reduces surface tension; helps prevent alveolar collapse

A

alveoli: function

668
Q

house passageways smaller than main bronchi

A

lungs: function

669
Q

produce lubricating fluid and compartmentalize lungs

A

pleurae: function

670
Q

external portion supported by bone and cartilage; internal nasal cavity divided in half by midline nasal septum and lined with respiratory mucosa<br></br>roof of nasal cavity contains olfactory mucosa

A

nose: description, general and distinctive features

671
Q

mucosa-lined hollow cavities within the sphenoid, ethmoid, maxillary, and frontal bones

A

paranasal sinuses: description, general and distinctive features

672
Q

passageway connecting nasal cavity to larynx and oral covity to esophagus; three subdivisions: nasopharynx, oropharynx, and largypharynx<br></br>houses tonsils

A

pharynx: description, general and distinctive features

673
Q

connects pharynx to trachea; framework of cartilage and dense connective tissue; opening (rima glottidis) can be closed by epiglottis or vocal folds<br></br>houses true vocal cords

A

larynx: description, general and distinctive features

674
Q

flexible tube running from larynx and dividing inferiorly into two main (primary) bronchi; walls contain C-shaped cartilages that are incomplete posteriorly where trachealis muscle occurs

A

trachea: description, general and distinctive features

675
Q

consists of right and left main bronchi, which subdivide within the lungs to form lobar (secondary) and segmental (tertiary) bronchi, smaller bronchi, and bronchioles; bronchiolar walls contain complete layer of smooth muscle; constriction of this muscle impedes expiration

A

brochial tree: description, general and distinctive features

676
Q

microscopic chambers at end of bronchial tree; walls of simple squamous epithelium–type I alveolar cells–underlain by thin basement membrane; external surfaces intimately associated with pulmonary capillaries<br></br>simple cuboidal epithelium–type II alveolar cells–produce surfactant

A

alveoli: description, general and distinctive features

677
Q

paired composite organs located within pleural cavities of thorax; composed primarily of alveoli and respiratory passageways; stroma is fibrous elastic connective tissue, allowing lungs to recoil passively during expiration

A

lungs: description, general and distinctive features

678
Q

serous membranes; parietal pleura lines thoracic cavity; visceral pleura covers external lung surfaces

A

pleurae: description, general and distinctive features

679
Q

”"”near the heart””, ring-shaped zone of the stomach encircling the cardial orifice at the junction with the esophagus”

A

cardia

680
Q

large midportion of the stomach

A

body (stomach)

681
Q

occur mainly in the basal parts of the glands; make and secrete the enzymatic protein pepsinogen, also secrete gastric lipase which functions in fat digestion

A

chief (zymogenic) cells

682
Q

or plicae circulares, permanent, transverse ridges of the mucosa and submucosa, increase the absorptive surface area, force the chyme to spiral through the intestinal lumen slowing its movement and allowing time for complete absorption of nutrients

A

circular folds

683
Q

these cells contain many mitochondria because the uptake of digested nutrients is an energy-demanding process. they also contain an abundant endoplasmic reticulum, which assembles the newly absorbed lipid molecules into lipid-protein complexes called cholymicrons. once made, the chylomicrons enter the lacteal capillaries, so it is in this form that absorbed fat enters the circulation.

A

absorptive enterocytes

684
Q

”"”blind pouch”” saclike beginning of the large intestine, in the right iliac fossa”

A

cecum

685
Q

acute inflammation of the appendix, resulting from a blockage that traps infectious bacteria within its lumen

A

appendicitis

686
Q

immediate surgical removal of the appendix

A

appendectomy

687
Q

several distinct segments

A

colon

688
Q

ascends along the right side of the posterior abdominal wall in a secondarily retroperitoneal position and reaches the level of the right kidney where it makes a right-angle turn, the right colic flexure (or hepatic flexure)

A

ascending colon

689
Q

begins where the rectum passes through the levator ani, lies entirely external to the abdominopelvic cavity in the perineum

A

anal canal

690
Q

longitudinal folds of mucosa contained in the superior half of the internal anal canal, contain the terminal portions of the superior rectal artery and vein (the hemorrhoidal vessels)

A

anal columns

691
Q

cresent-shaped transverse folds where neighboring anal columns join each other inferiorly

A

anal valves

692
Q

pockets just superior to the anal valves which release mucus when they are compressed by feces, providing lubrication that eases fecal passage during defecation

A

anal sinuses