All of it Flashcards

1
Q

What is the central nervous system made up of?

A

Brain and spinal cord

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2
Q

What is the peripheral nervous system made up of?

A

Cranial nerves and spinal nerves

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3
Q

Role of the peripheral nervous system

A

To act as a connection between the wider body parts and organs, and the CNS

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4
Q

What are the two main components that the peripheral nervous system is broken down into?

A

Autonomic nervous system and somatic nervous system

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5
Q

WHich out of the CNS or PNS only controls voluntary actions?

A

CNS

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6
Q

Examples of things controlled by the autonomic nervous system?

A

Heart muscle, smooth muscle, glands

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7
Q

Examples of things controlled by the somatic nervous system?

A

Voluntary skeletal muscle

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8
Q

Two divisions of the autonomic nervous system?

A

Sympathetic and parasympathetic

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9
Q

Role of parasympathetic nervous system?

A

Calming down

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10
Q

Role of sympathetic nervous system?

A

Alerting and increasing BP etc

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11
Q

Main functions of the nervous system?

A

Sensory processing, motor coordination, cognitive functions

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12
Q

What does the neural foundations refer to?

A

The neurons and networks that form the basis of how movement is initiated and coordinated

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13
Q

What does motor systems refer to?

A

Parts of the brain involved in planning, controlling and securing voluntary movements

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14
Q

What makes up the forebrain?

A

cerebral cortex, hippocampus, thalamus, hypothalamus, pituitary gland, amygdala and corpus callosum

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15
Q

What makes up the hindbrain

A

Pons, cerebellum, medulla oblongata

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16
Q

Role of cerebral cortex?

A

Higher cognitive function (thinking, decision making)

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17
Q

What makes up the subcortical structures?

A

Thalamus, hypothalamus and amygdala

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18
Q

Role of subcortical structures

A

Regulating essential functions like sleep, hormone balance and emotions

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19
Q

Four lobes of the brain

A

Frontal, parietal, temporal, occipital

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20
Q

Role of frontal lobe?

A

coordinates two halves, memory and movement

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21
Q

Role of parietal lobe?

A

Sensory functions, attention, mood and personality (somatosensory)

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22
Q

Role of temporal lobe?

A

Auditory and vision, emotional response, memory and information (speech and hearing)

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23
Q

Role of occipital lobe

A

Mainly vision processing

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24
Q

Role of the hindbrain?

A

Regulates vital autonomic functions like heart rate, respiration and blood pressure

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25
Q

Role of the cerebellum?

A

Motor control, coordination, balance and processing sensory info

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26
Q

Role of pons

A

Communication between different areas of the brain. Also regulates sleep and arousal

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27
Q

What is the brainstem made up of?

A

Midbrain, pons and medulla oblongata

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28
Q

Role of brainstem?

A

autonomic regulation

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29
Q

Types of motor function?

A

Gross and fine

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30
Q

Gross motor function?

A

Involve large muscle groups for activities like walking, running and jumping

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31
Q

Fine motor functions?

A

involve smaller muscles for precise tasks like writing and buttoning shirts

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32
Q

What are dendrites?

A

Short extensions that receive signals

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33
Q

What are axons?

A

Long extensions that transmit impulses

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34
Q

What makes up a neuron?

A

Dendrites, soma, axon hillock, axon terminals, synapses

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35
Q

Role of axon hillock?

A

initiates the AP

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36
Q

Role of axon?

A

Transmits AP

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37
Q

Role of dendrites?

A

Input

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38
Q

What is a polysynaptic reflex?

A

A reflex pathway that involves one or more interneurones between the sensory neuron and the motor neuron

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39
Q

What is a monosynaptic reflex?

A

A reflex pathway that has a direct connection between the sensory and motor neuron

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40
Q

How can neurons be classified?

A

Structurally, functionally and types of NT

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41
Q

What are the 4 structural groups of neurons?

A

Unipolar, bipolar, multipolar, and pseudounipolar

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42
Q

What are bipolar neurones?

A

Neurones with one axon and one dendrite extending from the soma

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43
Q

What is a pseudounipolar neuron?

A

A neuron that only has one thing extending from the soma, however this splits off into two distinct structures

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44
Q

What are the three functional classifications of neurons?

A

Sensory, motor, inter

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45
Q

What are glial cells?

A

Types of cell found in nervous tissue that arent neurons

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46
Q

Types of glial cells?

A

Astrocytes, satellite glia, microglia, oligodendrocytes, schwann cells, radial glia and ependymal cells

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47
Q

Role of astrocytes?

A

Make contact with capillaries and neurons in CNS, help form the blood-brain barrier

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48
Q

Role of satelite glia?

A

Provide structural support and nutrients for neurons in PNS

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49
Q

Role of microglia?

A

Scavenge and degrade dead cells

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50
Q

Role of oligodendrocytes?

A

Form myelin sheaths around the axons in the CNS

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51
Q

Role of schwann cells?

A

Myelinates a whole axon by surrounding it

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52
Q

Role of radial glia?

A

Serve as scaffolds for developing neurons, are also bipolar so can differentiate into neurons or other glial cells

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53
Q

Role of ependymal cells?

A

Line fluid filled ventricles of the brain, produce cerebrospinal fluid

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54
Q

For a molecule to be regarded as an NT, what must there be regarding it in the presynaptic neuron?

A

It itself must be present, as well as the mechanisms for its synthesis (enzymes etc)

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55
Q

For a molecule to be regarded as an NT, what must there be regarding it on the postsynaptic neuron?

A

Receptors to which the NT can bind

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56
Q

What are the three criteria for defining a NT?

A

Present in the presynaptic neuron
Capable of being released
Postsynaptic receptors to which it can bind

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57
Q

What kind of NT is glutamate?

A

An AA transmitter

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58
Q

What is the main excitatory NT in the CNS?

A

Glutamate

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59
Q

What is glutamate synthesised from?

A

Glutamine

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60
Q

What is glutamate reuptaken by?

A

Excitatory AA transporters

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61
Q

What other molecule can activate glutamate receptors?

A

Aspartate

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62
Q

What is excitotoxicity?

A

Too much signalling that leads to cell death

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63
Q

Where is glutamine first found in the glutamate synthesis pathway?

A

In glial cells

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64
Q

What first happens to glutamine in the glutamate synthesis pathway?

A

It is transported out of glial cells via glutamine transporters

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65
Q

Which enzyme converts glutamine to glutamate in the glutamate synthesis pathway?

A

Glutaminase

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66
Q

Where is glutaminase found?

A

In nerve cells

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67
Q

Which molecule helps glutamate be taken up into synaptic vesicles?

A

Vesicular glutamate transporters

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68
Q

In which cells are EAATs found?

A

Presynaptic neurons and glial cells

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69
Q

What are the two main classes of NT receptors?

A

Ionotropic and metabotropoic

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70
Q

What are ionitropic receptors?

A

Ligand gated ion channels

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71
Q

What type of receptor are metabotropic receptors?

A

G protein coupled receptors

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72
Q

What are the three classes of ionotropic receptor?

A

NMDA, AMPA, KAINATE

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73
Q

What are the three classes of metabotropic receptor?

A

Group I, Group II, Group III

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74
Q

What kind of ion channel does NMDA, AMPA, KAINATE all form?

A

tetrameric ligand gated ion channels

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75
Q

Which subunit must an NMDA receptor have?

A

GluN1

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76
Q

What separates the different groups of metabotropic receptors?

A

The second messengers they couple to

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77
Q

Which second messenger does Group 1 couple to?

A

G alpha Q

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78
Q

Which second messenger does Group 2 couple to?

A

G alpha i o

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79
Q

Which second messenger does group III couple to?

A

G alpha i o

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80
Q

How does glutamate bind so many receptors?

A

Not a rigid molecule, can adopt different conformations

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81
Q

What is present in the middle of the ionotropic subunits?

A

An ion channel pore

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82
Q

Which subunits of an ionotropic receptor are transmembrane?

A

1, 3, 4

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83
Q

Which subunits of an ionotropic receptor are not transmembrane?

A

2

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84
Q

Which subunit segment is facing inwards to the ion channel in a ionotropic glutamate receptor?

A

2

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85
Q

Which receptor can be homomeric?

A

AMPA

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86
Q

Which ions are an AMPA receptor permeable to?

A

K+ and Na+

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87
Q

What is the direction of K+ through an AMPA receptor?

A

Leaving the cell

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88
Q

What is the direction of Na+ through an AMPA receptor?

A

Entering the cell

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89
Q

Agonists of AMPA receptor?

A

glutamate, AMPA, KA

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90
Q

Antagonists of AMPA receptor?

A

NBQX (competitive), GYKI (non-competive)

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91
Q

What ions are NMDA receptors permeable to?

A

Ca2+, Na+, K+

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92
Q

What is the direction of K+ through an NMDA receptor?

A

leaving the cell

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93
Q

What is the direction of Ca2+ and Na+ through an NMDA receptor?

A

Entering the cell

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94
Q

What kind of gated is an NMDA receptor?

A

voltage and ligand

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95
Q

Which receptor requires a co-agonist?

A

NMDA

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96
Q

What co-agonists do an NMDA receptor require?

A

Glycine or serine

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97
Q

Why can a fast and slow time course be observed on the postsynaptic EPSP?

A

AMPA are fast, NMDA are slow and glutamate binds both

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98
Q

Meaning of a dual gating receptor?

A

both ligand and voltage sensitive

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99
Q

Which molecule blocks a NMDA receptor at resting potentian?

A

Mg2+

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100
Q

What does depolarisation do to the NMDA receptor?

A

Relieves the MG2+ block from the ion pore

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101
Q

Which ion are NMDA receptors highly permeable to?

A

Ca2+

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102
Q

WHat speed of excitation are metabotropic receptors involved in?

A

slow

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103
Q

Which molecules are NMDA receptor ion channel blockers?

A

Ketamine and memantine

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104
Q

What happens when glutamate binds to an mGluR presynaptically?

A

G beta gamma subunits dissociate and close a calcium ion channel (stops Ca2+ from entering), preventing release of an NT

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105
Q

What happens when glutamate binds to an mGluR postsynaptically?

A

G beta gamma subunits dissociate and close a potassium ion channel (stops K+ from leaving), leads to a slow depolarisation

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106
Q

What can mGluR affect in terms of calcium?

A

Its intracellular release

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107
Q

What do group 1 mGluRs do?

A

produce slow depolarisation and release Ca2+ from intracellular stores

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108
Q

What do group 2/3 mGluRs do?

A

Inhibit glutamate and other transmitters release

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109
Q

What is the major inhibitory NT in the brain?

A

GABA

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110
Q

What kind of receptors can GABA activate?

A

Ionotropic and Metabotropic

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111
Q

How is GABA synthesised?

A

Enzymatically via the krebs cycle

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112
Q

What molecule is used to synthesise GABA in the krebs cycle?

A

glucose

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113
Q

Where is GABA synthesised?

A

Nerve terminal

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114
Q

What is the direct precursor to GABA?

A

Glutamate

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115
Q

Which enzyme converts glutamate to GABA?

A

Glutamic acid decarboxylase

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116
Q

Where are GABA transporters found?

A

Astrocytes and presynaptic nerve terminals

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117
Q

If the GABA isn’t recycled, what is it converted to in the presynaptic terminal?

A

Succinic semialdehyde

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118
Q

Which enzyme converts GABA to succinic semialdehye?

A

GABA transaminase

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119
Q

What is succinic semialdehyde an intermediate of?

A

Krebs cycle

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120
Q

What happens to GABA once it is reuptaken by astrocytes?

A

Converted to succinic semialdehyde

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121
Q

In which brain areas is GABA found?

A

Cerebellum, basal ganglia, hippocampus, hypothalamus, cortex

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122
Q

In which type of neurons is GABA is principally found?

A

local interneurones

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123
Q

What could happen if the glutamate GABA balance gets out of control?

A

Seizures and epilepsy

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124
Q

How does a neuron having multiple synapses on its dendrites affect the APs it may/may not fire down its axon?

A

It sums all the potentials from them (e.g. +ve from glutamate, -ve from GABA) and then fires the AP depending on the overall potential

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125
Q

What kind of receptor is GABAa?

A

Ligand gated ion channel

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126
Q

What kind of receptor is GABAb?

A

GPCR

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127
Q

Where are GABAa receptors generally found?

A

postsynaptically

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128
Q

Where are GABAb receptors generally found?

A

pre and postsynaptically

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129
Q

What speed of inhibition does GABAa receptors mediate?

A

fast

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130
Q

What speed of inhibition does GABAb receptors mediate?

A

slow

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131
Q

To which ion is the GABAa ion channel permeable to?

A

Cl-

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132
Q

Which ion channels can be regulated as a result of the GPCR receptor GABAb?

A

Ca2+ and K+

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133
Q

Which GABA receptor can inhibit transmitter release?

A

GABAb

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134
Q

Why do GABAb receptors exhibit a slow inhibition?

A

Second messenger systems take time

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135
Q

What does the K+ Cl- transporter do?

A

Transports K+ and CL- out of the postsynaptic neuron

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136
Q

What is the result of the K+ Cl- transporter?

A

A low conc of Cl- is maintained within the cell (maintains conc grad)

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137
Q

How many subunits make up the GABAa receptor?

A

5

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138
Q

How many transmembrane domains does each GABAa subunit have?

A

4

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139
Q

What is the role of the transmembrane 2 domain on the GABAa?

A

Pore forming segment

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140
Q

What is the subunit makeup of a GABAa receptor?

A

2 alpha, 2 beta, 1 gamma

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141
Q

Where does GABA bind on GABAa?

A

Interface between alpha and beta subunit

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142
Q

Why isnt there 3 GABAa binding sites?

A

The orientation of one of the alpha beta interfaces is incorrect so it cant be used as a binding site

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143
Q

Which subunit do the δ, ε, π, θ and ρ take the place of?

A

gamma

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144
Q

What is dependent on the subunit composition of GABAa receptors?

A

The inhibitory effect and the spatial distribution of the receptors

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145
Q

GABA agonists?

A

Muscimol, GABA

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146
Q

GABA antagonists

A

bicuculline, gabazine

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147
Q

What effect does the barbiturate/anesthetic binding site have on the GABAa receptor?

A

Prolong open time of channel

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148
Q

What effect does the neurosteroid binding site have on the GABAa receptor?

A

Increase or decrease endogenous GABA inhibition

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149
Q

Which molecules can bind to the GABAa channel blocking site?

A

Picrotoxin, pentylenetetrazole

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150
Q

What effect does the channel blocking binding site have on the GABAa receptor?

A

block cl- permeability

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151
Q

What effect does the benzodiazepine binding site have on the GABAa receptor?

A

increase frequency of channel opening

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152
Q

What are GABAb receptors coupled to?

A

G alpha i/o

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153
Q

What do GABAb receptors negatively regulate?

A

Adenyl cyclase and cyclic amp

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154
Q

GABAb receptor agonists?

A

GABA, baclofen

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155
Q

What do G beta gamma subunits regulate?

A

Ion channels

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156
Q

What does the g beta gamma subunit do presynaptically?

A

Closes calcium ion channels

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157
Q

What do GABAb receptors do postsynaptically?

A

Open K+ channels, allowing K+ to leave the cell thus hyperpolarising the postsynaptic neuron

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158
Q

How many subunits are required to make a GABAb receptor?

A

2

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159
Q

Where is GABAbR1?

A

In the ER

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160
Q

Where is GABAbR2?

A

In the cell membrane

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161
Q

What happens if there is a GABAbR2 that needs to be expressed in the cell surface?

A

GABAbR1 travels to the cell surface

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162
Q

When GABAbR1 and 2 are expressed at the CSM, what type of interaction do their cytoplasmic domains form?

A

A coil-coil interaction

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163
Q

Which subunit on GABAb does GABA bind to?

A

GABAbR1

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164
Q

What is baclofen used to treat?

A

muscle spasticity

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165
Q
A
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166
Q

What are the monoamines?

A

Dopamine and norepinepherine

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167
Q

Which AA is 5-hydroxytryptamine derived from?

A

tryptophan

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168
Q

What kind of amine is 5-hydroxytryptamine?

A

An indolamine

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169
Q

What AA are catecholamines derived from

A

tyrosine

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170
Q

Which AA is histamine derived from?

A

histidine

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171
Q

Where are the cell bodies of cells that synthesise amines?

A

brainstem

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172
Q

What is specific ab the amine neuron axons?

A

They project widely

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173
Q

What is the main role of amine NTS?

A

Modulating the action of GABA and glutamate at synapses

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174
Q

What do amines play a key role in?

A

Arousal, sleep, attention and survival

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175
Q

Where are amine NTs released from?

A

Boutons

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176
Q

What is the origin of noradrenaline in the brain?

A

Locus coeruleus

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177
Q

Where do axons of nerves in the locus coeruleus innervate?

A

forebrain, cortex, spinal cord

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178
Q

What does noradrenaline act at?

A

GPCRs

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179
Q

Which GPCRs does noradrenaline act at?

A

alpha 1, 2, and beta 1, 2

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180
Q

What do the noradrenaline GPCRs in the brain stem control?

A

Blood pressure

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181
Q

What do the noradrenaline GPCRs in the descending pathways in the spinal cord control?

A

Movement and pain

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182
Q

What do the noradrenaline GPCRs in the ascending pathways in the spinal cord control?

A

Arousal and mood

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183
Q

How is tyrosine taken up by neurons?

A

Via tyrosine transporters

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184
Q

What is tyrosine first converted into in nerve terminals?

A

L-dihydroxyphenylalanine

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185
Q

What enzyme catalyses the conversion of tyrosine to L-dihydroxyphenylalanine?

A

Tyrosine hydroxylase

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186
Q

What is L-dihydroxyphenylalanine converted into?

A

dopamine

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187
Q

What enzyme converts L-dihydroxyphenylalanine into dopamine?

A

DOPA d carboxylase

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188
Q

What takes up dopamine (in norepinepherine synthesis)?

A

Vesicular monoamine transporter

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189
Q

What is the final intermediate before noradrenaline is synthesised?

A

dopamine

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190
Q

What converts dopamine to noradrenaline

A

dopamine beta hydroxylase

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191
Q

Difference between dopaminergic neurons and noradrenaline neurons?

A

Noradrenaline neurons have dopamine beta hydroxylase

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192
Q

Eventual consequence of blocking tyrosine hydroxylase?

A

depleting noradrenaline

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193
Q

Phenotypic consequence of blocking tyrosine hyroxylase?

A

depression like state induced

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194
Q

How is noradrenaline inactivated?

A

Reuptake and degradation

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195
Q

Which compounds degrade noradrenaline?

A

monoamine oxidase and catechol-o-methyltransferase

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196
Q

Where are noradrenaline transporters expressed?

A

Presynaptic neurons and glial cells

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197
Q

What is the phenotypic result of monoamine oxidase inhibitors?

A

Antidepressant

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198
Q

Where is the origin of dopamine?

A

midbrain

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199
Q

Three dopamine pathways?

A

Nigro-striatal pathway, mesolimbic, tubero-infidibular system

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200
Q

Where does the mesolimbic pathway project from and to?

A

From the ventral tegmental area to the cortex and hippocampus

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201
Q

Where is the tubero-infundibular system located?

A

Hypothalamus to the pituitary gland

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202
Q

What type of receptors does dopamine act at?

A

GPCRs

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203
Q

What is the tubero-infundibular system involved in?

A

Endocrine function

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204
Q

What is the same between dopamine and noradrenaline?

A

Their inactivation (reuptake and degradation)

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205
Q

Which pathway degenerates in parkinsons?

A

Nigro-striatal pathway

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206
Q

Which NT does NMDA increase?

A

5HT

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207
Q

Where does 5HT arise from?

A

Raphe nuclei

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208
Q

Where does 5HT project?

A

Forebrain (cerebral cortex, cerebellum), spinal cord

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209
Q

what are the 5HT neurons in the spinal cord involved in?

A

pain perception and pain regulation

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210
Q

5HT dysfuncion is associated with?

A

depression, sleepy, abnormal feeding

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211
Q

Increased activity of 5HT systems in regard to food?

A

Loss of appetite

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212
Q

Decreased activity of 5HT systems in regard to food?

A

Gain of weight

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213
Q

How is tryptophan taken up by NTs?

A

transporters

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214
Q

First thing to happen to tryptophan in 5ht synthesis?

A

Conversion to 5-hydroxytryptophan

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215
Q

Which enzyme catalyses the conversion of tryptophan to 5-hydroxytryptophan?

A

Tryptophan hydroxylase

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216
Q

What is 5-hydroxytryptophan converted to?

A

5-hydroxytryptamine

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217
Q

What enzyme catalyses the formation of 5-hydroxytryptamine

A

5-hydroxytryptophan carboxylase

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218
Q

What happens to 5-hydroxytryptamine after synthesis?

A

taken up by vesicles

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219
Q

Inactivation of 5ht?

A

Reuptake and degradation

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220
Q

5ht degredation enzyme?

A

Monoamine oxidase

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221
Q

What is unique ab 5HTs reuptake transporters?

A

They are specific to 5HT

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222
Q

Where does ACh project to from the magnocellular neurons?

A

cortex/limbic system

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223
Q

Types of ACh receptor?

A

Ionotropic and GPCR

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224
Q

Ionotropic ACh receptor?

A

Nicotinic

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225
Q

GPCR ACh receptor?

A

Muscarinic

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226
Q

Role of ACh?

A

Arousal, sleep, waking

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227
Q

Main substrate for ACh?

A

Choline

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228
Q

How is ACh formed?

A

Choline combines with acetyl-CoA

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229
Q

enzyme catalysing ACh formation?

A

Choline acetyltransferae

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230
Q

Which enzyme breakd down ACh?

A

Acetylcholineesterase

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231
Q

WHat is produced as a result of ACh breakdown?

A

Free choline, acetic acid

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232
Q

what is taken up after ACh degredation?

A

Free choline

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233
Q

Treatment for alzheimers regarding ACh?

A

Targets acetylcholineesterase to prevent ACh degradation

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234
Q
A
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235
Q

What is sleep?

A

A readily reversible state of reduced responsiveness to, and interaction with, the environment

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236
Q

What is obtundation?

A

a state of consciousness from which only painful stimuli will return the patient to full consciousness

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237
Q

Functions of sleep?

A

Restorative, protective adaptation, metabolism/weight homeostasis, memory consolidation and integration

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238
Q

What is restored during sleep?

A

cortical recovery and tissue repair

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239
Q

Why is sleep a protective adaptaiton?

A

protection from nocturnal predators

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240
Q

What does an electroencephalogram (EEG) record?

A

The activity of populations of neurons in the brain

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241
Q

What does the frequency of an EEG show?

A

How fast the neurons are firing

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242
Q

What does the amplitude of an EEG show?

A

The amount of neurons firing in synchrony

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243
Q

What does an EEG sum show?

A

The summed activity from multiple electrodes

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244
Q

What does it mean for nerve cells to be synchronised?

A

They are all firing together

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245
Q

What are the amplitude and frequency characteristics of desynchronised neurons?

A

Fast wavelength, low amplitude

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246
Q

What are the amplitude and frequency characteristics of synchronised neurons?

A

Slow wavelength, large amplitude

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247
Q

Delta rhythms?

A

Slow (4Hz) and large amplitude, deep sleep

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248
Q

Theta rhythms?

A

SLow (4-7Hz), light sleep

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249
Q

Alpha rhythms?

A

Fast ish (8-13Hz), conscious relaxation

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250
Q

Beta rhythms?

A

fastest (>14Hz), awake and alert

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251
Q

Gamma oscillations?

A

Memory encoding, recall and attention

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252
Q

Two categories of sleep?

A

Rapid eye movement (REM) and non-rapid eye movement (NREM)

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253
Q

REM characteristics?

A

~20 mins, dreaming

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254
Q

NREM length

A

60-90 mins

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255
Q

What happens to the length of NREM stages as you progress through the night

A

gets shorter

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256
Q

What happens to the length of REM stages as you progress through the night

A

gets longer

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257
Q

Awake rhythms?

A

alpha and beta

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258
Q

How long does stage one NREM sleep last?

A

5 min

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259
Q

Type of rhythms in REM sleep?

A

beta

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260
Q

Stage 1 NREM characteristics?

A

5 mins, theta rhythms, starting to fall asleep, nerves begin to become synchronized

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261
Q

Stage 2 NREM characteristics?

A

1-15 mins, spindle and k complex rhythms

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262
Q

Stage 3 NREM characteristics?

A

5-25 mins, no eye/body movements, delta rhythms, restorative sleep

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263
Q

Stage 4 NREM characteristics?

A

Deep sleep, 20-40 mins, delta rhythms

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264
Q

What is the EEG of REM sleep similar to?

A

an active, waking brain

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265
Q

When does dreaming occur?

A

REM sleep

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266
Q

What is REM sleep referred to as?

A

An active, hallucinating brain in a paralysed body

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267
Q

What kind of nerve activity predominates in REM sleep?

A

sympathetic

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268
Q

What is increased in REM sleep as a result of sympathetic activity?

A

Heart rate, respiration rate and blood flow to the penis

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269
Q

Changes in NREM sleep?

A

muscle tension reduced, temp lowered, energy consumption lowered, more parasympathetic activity

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270
Q

What area of the brain is important for control of sleep?

A

Reticular activating system

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271
Q

What are thalamo-cortical inputs used for?

A

controlling sleep

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272
Q

What happens if you stimulate the reticular activating system in the brainstem?

A

wake up an animal

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273
Q

Which brain areas make up the reticular activating system?

A

Locus coeruleus, raphe nuclei, brainstem/forebrain, midbrain

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274
Q

What are all the areas that are part of the RAS involved in?

A

Amine NT secretion

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275
Q

Increased firing of the RAS neurons is associated with?

A

waking up

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276
Q

Decreased firing of the RAS neurons is associated with?

A

falling asleep

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277
Q

Amine NT associated with locus coeruleus?

A

noradrenaline

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278
Q

Amine NT associated with raphe nuclei?

A

serotonin

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279
Q

Amine NT associated with brianstem/forebrain?

A

ACh

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280
Q

Amine NT associated with midbrain?

A

histamine

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281
Q

What is the activity of the RAS regulated by?

A

Hypothalamus

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282
Q

Which neuropeptide is expressed in the hypothalamus that helps regulate the RAS?

A

orexin

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283
Q

What does orexin do?

A

Stimulates RAS activity

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284
Q

What causes decreased firing of RAS neurons

A

GABA

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285
Q

What are “REM on” neurons?

A

cholinergic neurons in the brainstem

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286
Q

What are “REM off” neurons?

A

Serotonergic and noradrenergic neurons in the brainstem

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287
Q

RAS thalamus cortical interactions of an awake brain?

A

Awake–> RAS activates thalamus–> thalamus generates non-rhythmic activity–> cortex entrained into fast waking activity

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288
Q

RAS thalamus cortical interactions of an asleep brain?

A

Asleep–> RAS activity switched off–> thalamus generates rhythmic activity–> coretex entrained into slow sleep rhythms

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289
Q

Possible effects of insomnia?

A

Difficulty getting to sleep, difficulty staying asleep or feeling sleepy when having had sleep

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290
Q

What do drugs that can help you sleep target?

A

GABA

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291
Q

Why is GABA targeted by sleepy drugs?

A

GABA can inhibit the RAS,

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292
Q

What is decreased activity of RAS associated with?

A

Falling asleep

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293
Q

What kind of modulators of GABAa are benzodiazepines?

A

allosteric

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294
Q

Nitrazepam and flurazepam are?

A

Long acting benzodiazepines

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295
Q

Loprazelam and temazepam are?

A

Short acting benzodiazepines

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296
Q

What differentiates the acting time of benzodiazepines used to treat sleep issues?

A

The metabolism time of them (short acting are metabolized quickly)

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297
Q

What are the Z drugs?

A

Zolpidem, zolpiclone, zalpeon

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298
Q

Action of z drugs?

A

bind at GABA and enhance endogenous activity of GABA

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299
Q

What are orexin antagonists used for?

A

hypnotics

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300
Q

Where is melatonin secreted from?

A

pineal gland

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301
Q

What does melatonin regulate?

A

circadian rhythms

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302
Q

Rising melatonin levels means?

A

Need to go to sleep

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303
Q

Narcolepsy?

A

Pathological increase in sleep, sudden onset of sleep and sudden loss of motor control

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304
Q

What may cause narcolepsy?

A

Reduced numbers of orexin neurons, loss of RAS activation

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305
Q

Objective of anaesthesia?

A

Inducing a lack of feeling (lack of sensation and pain)

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306
Q

Who was the father of surgical anaesthesia?

A

Hua Tuo

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307
Q

Who was the first surgeon who used N2O as a GA?

A

Crawford Long

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308
Q

Triad of general anaesthetics?

A

Unconsciousness, analgesia, muscle relaxation

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309
Q

How many stages of anaesthesia are there?

A

4

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310
Q

What is stage 1 of anaesthesia?

A

Analgesia

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311
Q

Conditions of stage 1 of anaesthesia?

A

conscious, drowsy, anticonception, amnesia

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312
Q

What is stage 2 of anaesthesia?

A

Excitement

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313
Q

Conditions of stage 2 of anaesthesia?

A

loss of consciousness, delirium, irregular cardiorespiration, apnea, spasticity, gagging, vomiting

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314
Q

What is stage 3 of anaesthesia?

A

Anaesthesia

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315
Q

Conditions of stage 3 of anaesthesia?

A

regular respiration, loss of reflex and muscle tone

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316
Q

What is stage 4 of anaesthesia?

A

medullary paralysis

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317
Q

Conditions of stage 4 of anaesthesia?

A

Depression of cardiorespiration, death

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318
Q

Why is stage 1 of GA used for childbirth?

A

Want some lack of sensation but still need to be awake

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319
Q

How do you go from one stage of GA to a higher stage?

A

Increase the dose or potency of the GA

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320
Q

Which compound is used to induce stage 1 GA?

A

N2O

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321
Q

Which stage of GA causes erratic breathing?

A

2

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322
Q

What is a warning sign to an anaesthetist that a patient is too deeply anaesthetised?

A

Action of intercostal muscles decreasing

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323
Q

What are the four stages of stage 3 of GA?

A

Planes 1,2,3, and 4

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324
Q

When is the pupilary light reflex visible?

A

S3, planes 2-end of 3

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325
Q

When during GA does the corneal reflex stop?

A

S3P2

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326
Q

Precise aim of GA?

A

S3, P1 OR 2

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327
Q

When in GA is the respiratory response to skin inscision lost?

A

Midway through S3P2

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328
Q

When during GA are the muscles tense and struggling?

A

S2

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329
Q

Super ideal GA?

A

Stable, potent, non toxic, controllable, rapid on off, adjustable, minimal cardio and respiratory depressant

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330
Q

Why does the ideal GA need to be rapid on?

A

Through S2 quickly

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331
Q

Why does the ideal GA need to be rapid off?

A

Able to titrate dose depending on their reaction, to keep them in S3

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332
Q

Why is xenon not used as a GA?

A

V expensive

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333
Q

2 main types of administering GAs?

A

Inhalation and intravenous

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334
Q

Best aspect of inhaled GAs?

A

V controllable as the dose in the air is v quickly transferred

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335
Q

Main inhaled GAs?

A

Halogenated ethers, halogenated hydrocarbons

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336
Q

Halogenated hydrocarbon example?

A

Halothane, isofluorane

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337
Q

Advantages of halothane and isoflurane?

A

V potent and stable

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338
Q

Main pro of intravenous GAs?

A

V rapid

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339
Q

Which type of general anaesthetic is used for induction of GA?

A

Intravenous

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340
Q

Which type of anaesthetic is used for maintenance of GA?

A

Inhaled

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341
Q

Major surgery general anaesthetic order?

A

Benzazepine, then intravenous (thiopental), then inhaled (halothane)

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342
Q

Rapid unconsciousness anaesthetic?

A

thiopental (short acting)

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343
Q

General anaesthetic to maintain GA?

A

N2O, halothane, sevofluorane

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344
Q

When are analgesic drugs used?

A

post operative care

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345
Q

What is fentanyl used for?

A

analgesic effect after surgery when the general anaesthetic has worn off

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346
Q

Which compounds are used for paralysis of skeletal muscle?

A

Suxamethonium

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347
Q

How does Suxamethonium work?

A

It is a nicotinic ACh receptor antagonist

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348
Q

What drugs are people given pre-op?

A

Benzodiazepines, midazolam

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349
Q

Examples of inhaled anaesthetics?

A

N2O, halothane, enflurane, isoflurane, desflurane, sevoflurane

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350
Q

Side effect of halothane?

A

Toxic to liver

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351
Q

Which inhaled GA is used more in veterinary than human surgery?

A

Halothane

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352
Q

Why is sevoflurane used the most?

A

Has the least side effects

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353
Q

Types of intravenous GAs?

A

Thiopental, etomidate, propofol, ketamine, benzodiazepines

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354
Q

Most widely used intravenous GA?

A

propofol

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355
Q

Mechanism of local anaesthetics?

A

Voltage-gated sodium channel block

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356
Q

Two main theories of how GAs work?

A

lipid theory, and protein theory

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357
Q

Lipid theory of GAs?

A

good GAs are more lipophilic (can soak into lipids) and so soak into the lipid bilayer and block membrane spanning proteins (Na+ channels in neurons etc)

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358
Q

Protein theory of GAs?

A

More potent a GA is, less of it is needed to inhibit luciferase proteina action, so GAs might generally inhibit protein action

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359
Q

What type of proteins do GAs target?

A

Transmitter receptors, ion channels, transporters and release

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360
Q

What do GAs do regarding inhibitory receptors?

A

Potentiate them, meaning they are stronger (more hyperpolarisation)

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361
Q

What do GAs to to excitatory receptors?

A

Block them

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362
Q

How do GAs affect ion channels?

A

They reduce the frequency of them opening

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363
Q

What is anxiety?

A

a normal, physiological response to threatening situations that serves as a protective function

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364
Q

What is pathological anxiety?

A

concern about stressor is out of proportion to the realistic threat and can occur without exposure to an external stressor

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365
Q

How many people in the UK are affected by anxiety disorders?

A

8 million

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366
Q

Examples of anxiety disorders?

A

Specific phobias, social anxiety, panic disorder, PTSD, OCD, Generalised anxiety disorder, premenstrual dysphoric disorder

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367
Q

length of generalised anxiety disorder?

A

6 months

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368
Q

What are the core symptoms of anxiety disorders?

A

Negative cognition, physiology (heart racing etc), avoidance behaviour

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369
Q

What is negative cognition?

A

A bias to interpret unthreatening situations as threatening

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370
Q

Physiological symptoms of anxiety disorders?

A

Racing heart, restlessness, sweating, increased blood pressure

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371
Q

Part of anxiety disorder that the cortex is involved in?

A

negative cognition

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372
Q

Part of anxiety disorder that hippocampus the is involved in?

A

Memory

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373
Q

Part of anxiety disorder that the amygdala is involved in?

A

fear perception

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374
Q

Part of anxiety disorder that the hypothalamus is involved in?

A

Stress responsiveness

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375
Q

Part of anxiety disorder that the basal ganglia/cerebellum are involved in?

A

movement control

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376
Q

What hormone is released upon the perception of stress?

A

Corticotropin releasing hormone

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377
Q

Which part of the brain releases Corticotropin releasing hormone?

A

Hypothalamus

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378
Q

Where is Corticotropin releasing hormone released onto?

A

Pituitary gland

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379
Q

Which stress related hormone is released by the pituitary gland?

A

Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)

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380
Q

Where is ACTH released onto?

A

The adrenal gland

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381
Q

What is produced by the adrenal glands in response to ACTH?

A

Glucocorticoids, particularly cortisol

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382
Q

Why is cortisol released in response to stress?

A

To give you the energy for the fight or flight response, as it is responsible for metabolism of glucose and lipids

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383
Q

Where is adrenaline released from in response to stress?

A

Adrenal glands

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384
Q

Which brain area is first used in the fear response and why?

A

Thalamus as it deals with sensory stuff

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385
Q

Which brain area is used after the thalamus in the fear response?

A

Amygdala

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386
Q

Role of amygdala in fear response?

A

Switching on amine NTs (noradrenaline etc)

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387
Q

Role of periaqueductal grey in fear response?

A

Innate avoidance behaviour (e.g. stepping back)

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388
Q

Which brain area releases cortisol in response to stress?

A

Hypothalamus

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389
Q

Where are most anxiety disorders thought to originate?

A

Prefrontal cortex and hippocampus

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390
Q

Why is noradrenaline released in the fear response?

A

Need to be hyper aware of your surroundings

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391
Q

Which NTs are implicated in the fear response?

A

Serotonin and noradrenaline

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392
Q

Role of GABAa networks?

A

Fast inhibition

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393
Q

Treatments of anxiety disorders?

A

Beta blockers, benzodiasepines, antidepressants, buspirone

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394
Q

How do beta blockers work?

A

They block beta adrenergic receptors

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395
Q

What symptoms of anxiety do beta blockers target?

A

Autonomic systems

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396
Q

SSRI stands for?

A

Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors

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397
Q

What specific anxiety type could propranolol (beta blocker) treat?

A

Phobias

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398
Q

How does propranolol treat phobias?

A

Give patient drug then expose them to thing they’re scared of

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399
Q

What is propranolol thought to work on?

A

Hippocampus–> where -ve memories of the thing are removed (positive association forms instead of -ve association)

400
Q

How does buspirone work?

A

It is a partial agonist at 5-HT1a receptors (turning up inhibition in those neurons)

401
Q

How do SSRIs work?

A

Bind to reuptake transporters, thus boosting levels of serotonin in synapse

402
Q

What is the preferred treatment for generalized anxiety disorder, PD and PTSD?

A

Combined noradrenaline and 5HT uptake blockers

403
Q

WHat are some combined noradrenaline and 5HT uptake blockers?

A

venflaxine, duloxetine

404
Q

What do benzodiazepines bind to?

A

GABAa receptors

405
Q

Role of GABA?

A

Inhibitory NT

406
Q

What can the binding of drugs to allosteric site on GABAa receptors do?

A

Turn up or down gating of CL- ions in the presence of GABA

407
Q

What is an inverse agonist?

A

Something that binds and turns down the receptor

408
Q

What do benzodiazepine agonists do once bound to GABA?

A

Turn up the effects of endogenous GABA

409
Q

Where on the GABAa receptor do benzodiazepines bind?

A

Alpha gamma interface

410
Q

General structure of benzodiazapines?

A

Benzene ring joined to a 7 membered 1,4-diazepine ring (R 1 2 3 5 7 8 are side groups)

411
Q

What do the R side groups change ab benzodizepine?

A

Affinity, intrinsic efficacy, lipophilicity, water solubility

412
Q

Affinity meaning?

A

How likely something is to bind

413
Q

Intrinsic efficacy meaning?

A

The effect of smthn once bound

414
Q

What is the intrinsic efficacy of a BZ agonist?

A

+ve (100%)

415
Q

What is the intrinsic efficacy of BZ inverse agonists?

416
Q

What intrinsic efficacy to BZ antagonists have?

417
Q

What is the intrinsic efficacy of partial or full agonists?

418
Q

What are full BZ agonists called?

A

Positive allosteric modulators

419
Q

What are full BZ agonists used for?

A

Anxiolytic

420
Q

What are inverse agonists used for?

A

Investigating GABA

421
Q

Effect of inverse agonists on Cl- flow through GABAa?

A

Less chloride flux through the channel so less inhibition

422
Q

Effect of alcohol on the CNS?

A

Depressant

423
Q

Effect of alcohol on GABA receptors?

A

Causes increase inhibition

424
Q

What does stroke cause?

A

Neuronal cell death

425
Q

What is the root cause of a stroke?

A

Transient or permanent interruption in cerebral blood supply

426
Q

What is ischaemia?

A

A lack of blood supply to a part of the body

427
Q

Two main causes of stroke?

A

Ischaemic and haemorrhagic

428
Q

What causes an ischaemic stroke?

A

Blocked blood vessels

429
Q

What causes a hemorrhagic stroke?

A

Ruptured blood vessels

430
Q

What are the two types of ischaemic stroke?

A

Thrombotic or embolic

431
Q

What is a thrombotic blockage?

A

A blockage caused by the blood clotting

432
Q

What is an embolic blockage?

A

Things like air or fat blocking the blood vessels

433
Q

Which type of stroke is more fatal?

A

Haemorrhagic

434
Q

What are the two types of haemorrhagic stroke?

A

Intracerebral or subarachnoid

435
Q

Intracerebral hemorrhagic stroke?

A

Ruptured blood vessel is inside the brain/provides blood to the centre of the brain

436
Q

Subarachnoid hemorrhagic stroke?

A

Ruptured blood vessels are around the outside of the brain

437
Q

Symptoms of stroke?

A

Face falling on one side, difficulty raising arms, slurred speech

438
Q

Time issue with stroke?

A

Must be treated within 3 hrs

439
Q

What is necrosis?

A

cell/tissue death

440
Q

Two regions of damage post-stroke?

A

Core and penumbra

441
Q

What is the core of a stroke?

A

Where the ischaemia first happened

442
Q

What is the penumbra in a stroke?

A

The region around the core

443
Q

What happens to the core and penumbra regions of a stroke if treatment isnt applied?

A

The core will grow into the penumbra, damaging more regions of the brain

444
Q

What is the primary cause of cell death in stroke?

A

Excitotoxicity

445
Q

What causes excitotixicity?

A

Excessive release of glutamate

446
Q

What happens as a result of excessive glutamate release?

A

A Ca2+ overload

447
Q

What allows neurons to have a resting membrane potential of -70mV

A

The sodium potassium pump

448
Q

Concentration difference of Na+ in neuronal cells?

A

Higher outside than inside

449
Q

Conc grad of K+ in neuronal cells?

A

Higher inside than outside

450
Q

What is required for the Na K pump to work?

451
Q

Why does ischaemia cause neuronal cell death?

A

A lack of oxygen/glucose to the neurons

452
Q

Why does a lack of oxygen/glucose to neurons cause excitotoxicity?

A

Cant generate ATP to fund NaK pump

453
Q

What happens if the NaK pump stops working?

A

The resting potential goes from -70 to +40, all affected neurons will depolarise

454
Q

What happens if the presunaptic neuron depolarises?

A

Ca2+ flows in and causes the release of glutamate

455
Q

What happens if the postsynaptic neuron depolarises?

A

Positive ions flow in

456
Q

Consequences of an excessive release of glutamate?

A

Activate AMPA and KAINATE receptors (both lead to Na+ going into the postsynaptic neuron (more depolarisation))

457
Q

What happens to NMDA receptors at higher than -40mV?

A

The magnesium block is removed meaning Na+ can flow through

458
Q

What does the sodium calcium exchanger do?

A

Protects the neurons from having too much sodium in them by swapping intracellular Na+ for extracellular Ca2+

459
Q

Why does having excessive Ca2+ in a neuron cause issues?

A

It is a signalling molecule that can cause free radicals to form which damage the membrane and cytoskeleton

460
Q

Which enzymes does Ca2+ activate?

A

Proteases, lipases, caspaces

461
Q

What happens as a result of caspase activation?

A

Cell death

462
Q

What happens if Ca2+ activates too much of its enzymes?

A

The lipid bilayer is digested (lipases), as well as anything made of proteins (proteases)

463
Q

What happens to the neurons in the core of a stroke?

A

They never repoalrise

464
Q

What happens to the neurons in the penumbra of a stroke?

A

They can repolarise

465
Q

What is difficult about repolarising a penumbra neuron?

A

The ATPase NaK pump has to work very hard to restore the concentrations of the ions to the correct level for a -70mV membrane potential, and this uses a lot of energy

466
Q

Which treatment is only for thrombotic ischaemic strokes?

A

Tissue plasminogen activator (tPA)

467
Q

What does tPA do?

A

Breaks down blood clots

468
Q

Treatment for hemorrhagic stroke?

A

Surgery to fix the ruptured blood vessel

469
Q

What are targets for neuroprotective agents for stroke treatment?

A

AMPA/NMDA receptor blockers, Na+/Ca2+ blockers, enzyme inhibitors

470
Q

How could neuronal cells be recovered after a stroke?

A

Stem cells

471
Q

What are some things that prevent people from having a stroke again?

A

Antihypertensives

472
Q

Why are antihypertensives used to prevent stroke?

A

Reduce high blood pressure

473
Q

What lifestyle choices can increase risk of stroke?

A

Obesity, lack of exercise, smoking, alcohol

474
Q

For which type of stroke are blood thinners prescribed?

475
Q

What is a transient ischaemic attack?

A

Short lived neurological signs similar to those from a stroke

476
Q

What do the long term stroke symptoms depend on?

A

The brain region affected

477
Q

Symptoms if motor cortex is affected?

A

Skeletal muscle movement affected

478
Q

Symptoms if wernicke’s area of brain is affected?

A

Difficulty understanding language/listening

479
Q

Symptoms if Brocas area of brain is affected?

A

speech and writing

480
Q

Symptoms if right motor cortex is comprimised?

A

Left half of body is affected

481
Q

What random molecule can cause exitoxicity?

A

Domoic acid

482
Q

Why can domoic acid cause excitotoxicity?

A

It is a glutamate receptor agonist

483
Q

Where is domoic acid found?

A

Amnesic shellfish

484
Q

What produces domoic acid?

485
Q

Which glutamate agonists can cause excitotoxicity?

A

Domoic acid, oxalydiaminopropionic acid, beta-Methylamino-L-alanine

486
Q

Which foods can cause excitotoxicity?

A

Shellfish, grass pea, cycad seeds

487
Q

What is pain?

A

The subjective conscious appreciation of a stimulus that is causing, or threatening to cause, tissue damage

488
Q

What is nociception?

A

The physical process of detection and transmission of damaging or potentially damaging (noxious) stimuli

489
Q

What are nociceptors?

A

Structures that detect noxious stimulus

490
Q

What is algesia?

A

The induction of a condition leading to nociception and pain

491
Q

What is analgesia?

A

Reduction or prevention of either nociception or pain without loss of consciousness

492
Q

What is the detection of touch?

A

Mecanoception

493
Q

Which specific structures are involved in the perception of touch?

A

Merkel’s Disc, Pacinian Corpuscle, Meissners Corpuscle

494
Q

What are the two main types of nociceptor?

A

Polymodal, mechanical

495
Q

What type of mechanical stimuli do both types of nociceptor respond to?

A

High intensity

496
Q

What level of thermal input can stimulate polymodal nociceptors?

A

> 45 degrees, <10 degrees

497
Q

What level of thermal stimuli can stimulate mechanical nociceptors?

A

> 60 degrees

498
Q

What is the order of structures for detecting a noxious stimulus?

A

Skin/viscera–> Sensory receptor–> primary afferent axon–> spinal cord

499
Q

What are the types of receptor in nociceptors?

A

ASIC (acid sensing ion channel), Purinergic receptors (P2x3), Voltage gated Na+ channels, VR-1/TRPV-1

500
Q

What is the main agonist of ASICs?

501
Q

What is the main agonist of Purinergic receptors?

502
Q

What type of stimulation do purinergic receptors respond to?

A

High intensity mechanical stimulation

503
Q

What type of stimulation do voltage gated sodium channels respond to?

A

Mechanical stimulation

504
Q

What is the main agonist of VR-1/TRPV-1?

A

H+, high levels of heat and capsaicin

505
Q

Speed of nociceptive APs compared to touch APs?

506
Q

Why are nociceptive APs slower than touch ones?

A

The C fibres are very thin and unmyelinated

507
Q

Which type of fibre is used for nociception?

A

C and a delta

508
Q

Which type of nociceptor is linked to c fibres?

509
Q

Which type of nociceptor is linked to A delta fibres?

A

Mechanical

510
Q

Why do APs flow down Adelta fibres quicker than C fibres?

A

The Adelta fibres are myelinated

511
Q

Why is there an initial pain felt, then a throbbing?

A

Different fibres transmit at different speeds so one transmits slower after the other

512
Q

Which fibres are responsible for the initial pain?

513
Q

Which pain fibres are responsible for the second pain?

514
Q

Which receptors detect reasonable temperatures (10-40 degrees)?

A

Thermoreceptors

515
Q

Which receptors detect extreme temperatures?

A

Cold/heat pain receptors

516
Q

Why do thicker fibres transmit APs quicker?

A

There is less resistance

517
Q

Where does sensory input enter the spinal cord?

A

Through the dorsal root

518
Q

Where is the first synapse (in the spinal cord) that is responsible for nociceptive input into the brain?

A

The most dorsal part of the spinal cord

519
Q

Where does the AP go after it has gone through the first synapse in the spinal cord?

A

Crosses over to the other side of the body and goes up into the brain

520
Q

What can the somatosensory part of the cortex receive input from?

A

Touch and nociception

521
Q

What does the somatosensory cortex do with the touch and nociception?

A

Tells the brain where it has come from

522
Q

Role of insular and anterior cingulate cortex in nociception?

A

Tells the brain that it is pain that is being experienced, affect your mood

523
Q

How is the body mapped regarding pain perception and location?

A

As you go round the outside of the somatosensory cortex, different parts of it receive input form different body areas

524
Q

What is the pain pathway to the brain?

A

Spinothalamic pathway/tract

525
Q

Why is pain referred?

A

Not enough space in somatosensory cortex to have an acute sensation to map every part of the bodys pain

526
Q

Which body parts have a good pain mapping (know where the pain is coming from)?

527
Q

Which body parts have a poor pain mapping (don’t know where the pain is coming from)?

A

Internal organs

528
Q

Where does pain sourced in the oesophagus feel like its coming from?

529
Q

What can hurt when having a heart attack?

530
Q

Which neurons are shared in referred pain?

A

Second order

531
Q

What is the second order neuron?

A

The one after the first synapse in the spinal cord

532
Q

What is hyperalgesia?

A

Increased response to a noxious stimulus

533
Q

What is allodynia?

A

Painful responses to a non-noxious stimulus

534
Q

Why is hyperalgesia a thing?

A

To protect already injured/damaged areas of the body

535
Q

How does nociceptor sensitisation work?

A

Cut skin–> skin cells break–> intracellular components of skin cells is released into extracellular space–> some of these components are H+, ATP, K+ which are nociceptor agonists

536
Q

Why does an elevated conc of extracellular K+ increase the amount of APs fired from a neuron?

A

Conc grad is disrupted meaning it is harder for the neurons to repolarise, makes them more excitable

537
Q

What is unusual about nociceptive neurons?

A

They can release NTs from their dendritic end

538
Q

Which NT is released from the dendritic end of nociceptive neurons?

A

Substance P

539
Q

What does substance P do to blood vessels?

A

Activate receptors on blood vessels that makes them leaky

540
Q

Outcome of substance P’s action on blood vessels?

A

More nociceptor agonists are released, generating more nociceptive APs

541
Q

Which cells does substance P recruit?

A

Mast cells

542
Q

Action of mast cells?

A

Release histamine which makes blood vessels leaky

543
Q

Which three molecules are used for healing the part of the body that has been damaged?

A

Bradykinin, prostagladin, neural growth factor

544
Q

What does nerve growth factor do?

A

Sensitise the nociceptors by lowering their threshold for opening

545
Q

What is peripheral sensitization?

A

Increased sensitivity of peripheral nociceptors

546
Q

What is central sensitization?

A

Increased transmission in spinal cord

547
Q

Which fibres do itch sensations travel down?

A

Adelta and C

548
Q

Difference between pain and itch?

A

Analgesics don’t inhibit itch, can imagine an itchy sensation but not a painful one

549
Q

What kind of input cures an itch?

A

Nociceptive (scratching it hard)

551
Q

Where does peripheral sensitisaiton occur?

A

The primary nociceptive neurons (in the skin etc)

552
Q

Where in the spinal cord is the first synapse?

A

Most dorsal aspect (lamina 1 or lamina 2)

553
Q

Which NTs is released from the nociceptive neurons in the spinal cord?

A

Mostly glutamate, also some substance P and a little amount of GCRP

554
Q

What is CGRP?

A

Calcitonin gene related peptide

555
Q

Which receptors does glutamate activate?

A

AMPA and NMDA

556
Q

Which receptor does substance P activate?

A

NK-1 receptor

557
Q

What type of receptor is NK-1?

558
Q

Why is a fast slow time course observed in glutamate transmission?

A

AMPA are fast bc and NMDA are slow

559
Q

Which second messenger does NK-1 release?

560
Q

What does Gq second messenger do regarding PIP2?

A

Breaks down PIP2 into Diacylglycerol (DAG) and inisitol triphosphate (IP3)

561
Q

What does inositol triphosphate do?

A

Activates calcium stores which leads to an increase in intracellular Ca2+ concentrations

562
Q

What does DAG do?

A

Activates protein kinase C

563
Q

What does Gq second messenger do regarding ion channels?

A

Activate Na+, Ca2+ entry ion channels and inhibit K+ exit ion channels–> more depolarisation

564
Q

What happens if there is a burst of activity from the presynaptic neuron in the spinal synapse part of the pain pathway?

A

The synapse increases in strength over time (i.e. after 11th AP the postsynaptic response is bigger than previous)

565
Q

What is synaptic plasticity?

A

The strength of a synapse changes over time

566
Q

Why does the spinal synapse become more sensitive over time?

A

NMDA receptors and NK-1 receptors

567
Q

How is it known that NMDA receptors affect synaptic plasticity?

A

Synaptic plasticity does not occur with AP5 (NMDA agonist) present

568
Q

How is it known that NK-1 receptors affect synaptic plasticity?

A

Synaptic plasticity does not occur with SP agonist(NK-1 agonist) present

569
Q

Where in the nociceptive pathway do inhibitory interneurons attach?

A

The dorsal horn projection neuron

570
Q

How are inhibitory interneurons activated in the pain pathway?

A

Offshoots of mechanoreceptors that are in the spinal cord can activate inhibitory interneurons

571
Q

What type of neurons activate inhibitory interneurons in the pain pathway?

A

Glutamatergic

572
Q

What is nursing the injury?

A

Touching an injured part of the body

573
Q

Why do we “nurse an injury”?

A

Touching it activates mechanoreceptors which can cause inhibitory interneurons to be activated, thus inhibiting the pain

574
Q

What is TENS?

A

Transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulation–>An electrical pack that stimulates touch receptors on the skin

575
Q

Why does TENS work?

A

Activates mechanoreceptors which can cause inhibition of pain

576
Q

Which two types of pathway can inhibit nociception?

A

Descending inhibitory pathway and ascending inhibitory pathway

577
Q

What is the ascending inhibitory pathway?

A

Mechanoreceptors causing inhibition

578
Q

What is the descending inhibitory pathway?

A

Parts of the brainstem, when stimulated, can inhibit pain

579
Q

Which parts of the brain can cause descending inhibitory input?

A

Periaqueductal grey and raphe nuclei

580
Q

Where does the periaqueductal grey project to in inhibitory input?

581
Q

Where does the raphe project to in inhibitory input?

A

The first synapse in the spinal cord

582
Q

Where in the brain does the periaqueductal grey receive inputs from?

A

Hypothalamus, amygdala, cortex

583
Q

Where does the nucleus reticularis paragigantocellularis project to?

A

Raphe nuclei

584
Q

Where does the locus coeruleus project to?

A

Spinal cord

585
Q

Where does the hypothalamic paraventricular nuclei project to?

A

Periaqueductal grey

586
Q

Can the environment you are in affect the amount of pain you are in?

587
Q

Why may your environment having an effect on how much pain you are in be beneficial?

A

Get injured while running away from predator–> still need to run away so pain is reduced

588
Q

What effect does opioids have on nociceptive neurons?

A

Inhibit the free nerve endings, hyperpolarizing them and making them less likely to fire APs up pain pathway

589
Q

How does the PAG act as an inhibitor of pain?

A

Sends input to the raphe which causes the raphe to fire inhibitory APs down the spinal cord

590
Q

How does the raphe send inhibitory APs down the spinal cord?

A

Via release of 5HT

591
Q

How does the locus coeruleus inhibit pain pathways in the spinal cord?

A

Via the release of noradrenaline

592
Q

Effect of opioids on PAG?

A

Excitatory effect so more APs from PAG

593
Q

Effect of opioids on nucleus reticularis paragigantocellularis?

A

Excitatory so more APs from the NRP onto the raphe nuclei

594
Q

How do opioids inhibit pain?

A

Inhibit nociceptive neurons and the neurons in the spinal cord, and have an excitatory effect on PAG and NRP

595
Q

Three different types of opioid receptor?

A

Mew delta and kappa

596
Q

What are all of the endogenous agonists of opioid receptor?

597
Q

What is similar between the four endogenous agonists of opioid receptors?

A

Their first 4 AAs are the same

598
Q

What are the four peptide opioid endogenous agonists?

A

Beta-endorphin, met-enkephalin, leu-enkephalin, dynorphin

599
Q

Which endogenous opioid agonist binds well at all receptors?

A

beta-endorphin

600
Q

Which opioid receptors are found in the brain (PAG)?

601
Q

Which opioid receptors are found in the spine?

A

Mainly mew and delta, also kappa

602
Q

Which opioid receptors are found in the nociceptive neurons?

A

Mu and kappa

603
Q

What type of receptor are all of the opioid receptors?

605
Q

What are the opioid receptors second messengers?

606
Q

What does the Gi/o unit of the opioid receptor inhibit once an agonist had bound?

A

The conservation of adenyl cyclase to cyclic AMP

607
Q

What is the effect of inhibiting the formation of cyclic AMP?

A

Less protein kinase A is formed

608
Q

Other than AMP, what does Gi/o of opioid receptors inhibit?

A

Calcium channels, meaning less calcium can enter the neuron so less NTs will be released

609
Q

What can the Gi/o of opioid receptors open?

A

Potassium channels, so more K+ leaves so neuron is hyperpolarized

610
Q

How does opioid receptors cause more APs to be fired down the PAG to the raphe nucleus and thus to the spinal cord?

A

They inhibit the release of GABA meaning less inhibition from GABA goes to the synapse between the PAG and raphe nuclei

611
Q

What is disinhibition?

A

Inhibiting something that is inhibitory

612
Q

Net effect of disinhibition?

A

Excitation

613
Q

What do the two branches of input from the raphe to the dorsal horn carry?

A

5HT to directly inhibit the synapse. The second one activates opioid interneurons neurons with enkephalins which also inhibit the synapse in the dorsal root

614
Q

What is the effect of enkephalin on an action potential?

A

Shortens them and leads to a lower frequency due to opening K+ channels (neuron hyperpolarises more quickly

616
Q

What general process is boosted by analgesic drugs?

A

Descending inhibition of nociception

617
Q

Which processes are inhibited by analgesic drugs?

A

Central sensitisation and peripheral sensitisation

618
Q

How do nonsteroidal anti-inflammatories cause analgesia?

A

They inhibit the process of peripheral sensitisation

619
Q

How do opioid analgesics cause analgesia?

A

Boost the descending inhibition of nociception

620
Q

What do opioids mimic in order to have their analgesic effect?

A

Endogenous opioid agonists

621
Q

Where do opioids act?

A

On opioid receptors

622
Q

Examples of opioids?

A

Morphine, heroin, fentanyl, codeine

623
Q

What are some low potency opioids?

A

Codeine, pethidine, buprenorphine

624
Q

What is etorphine used for?

A

Veterinary medicine–> large animals

625
Q

What is naloxone?

A

An opioid receptor antagonist

626
Q

How does naloxone work?

A

It is a opioid mew delta and kappa antagonist

627
Q

Which drugs are used for mild pain?

A

NSAIDs (nonsteroidal anti inflammatories)

628
Q

Examples of NSAIDs?

A

Aspirin, ibuprofen

629
Q

What are opioids given to people in moderate pain?

A

Codeine, buprenorphine

630
Q

What are some opioids given to people in severe pain?

A

Morphine, fentanyl

631
Q

How do the opioid receptors on free nerve endings have an inhibitory effect?

A

When an agonist binds K+ channels open and allow K+ to leave the cell–> hyperpolarisation

632
Q

Where are supraspinal opioid receptors?

A

PAG and locus coeruleus

633
Q

Which type of opioid receptor do most analgesics target?

634
Q

Which opioid receptor do morphine, methadone and fentanyl target?

635
Q

Can morphine and fentanyl also target delta and kappa receptors?

636
Q

Main issue with mu opioid receptors?

A

When agonised they can cause respiratory depression

637
Q

Benefit of targeting delta and kappa receptors over mu?

A

They do not cause respiratory depression when agonsied

638
Q

Mood effect of mu receptor being agonised?

639
Q

Mood effect of kappa receptor being agonised?

640
Q

Effect of kappa receptors being agonised on bodily waste?

641
Q

Mood effect of delta receptor being agonised?

642
Q

Main issue with agonising delta opioid receptors?

A

Proconvulsant

643
Q

Undesirable effects of mu opioid receptor?

A

Constipation, sedation, nausea and vomiting, itching

644
Q

Why does mu opioid receptor agonists being activated cause constipation?

A

They activate mu opioid receptors in the gut

645
Q

Why can methylnaltrexone be taken to prevent constipation but not the analgesic effect of opioids targeting mu receptors?

A

It cant cross the blood brain barrier meaning it can block the opioid receptors in the gut (so no constipation) but cant access the locus coeruleus or PAG

646
Q

What is psychological dependance?

647
Q

What is physical dependance?

A

When someone stops taking a drug and they have physical withdrawal symptoms

648
Q

Result of increasing potency of mu receptor agonist on side effects?

A

They increase

649
Q

What changes need to be made to the dose of a drug if continued use occurs?

A

The dosage will need to increase

650
Q

What is the main active ingredient in an opium poppy?

651
Q

Main structural difference between morphine and heroin?

A

Heroin has two acetyl groups where morphine has two OH groups

652
Q

What benefit does having two acetyl groups instead of two OH groups give heroin over morphine?

A

It crosses the blood brain barrier more easily

653
Q

What drawback is there of having two acetyl groups instead of two OH in heroin compared to morphine?

A

Makes heroin completely ineffective against the mu opioid receptor (heroin itself is not an opioid receptor agonist)

654
Q

Why does heroin not having the correct structure to be a mu opioid receptor agonist not really matter?

A

There are many enzymes in the brain which can cleave the acetyl groups off

655
Q

What is a pro-drug?

A

A drug that has to be metabolised in order to be its active ingredient

656
Q

Which analgesics are taken in pill form?

A

Morphine, codeine

657
Q

Which analgesics are taken via intravenous injections?

A

morphine, diamorphine, fentalyl

659
Q

Which method of administering analgesics can be patient controlled?

A

Intravenous injection

660
Q

What is an epidural?

A

Delivering a drug directly into the spinal cord

661
Q

When is epidural administration used?

A

Childbirth

662
Q

Why is epidural administration used in childbirth?

A

Know where pain will come from so know where it will enter the spinal cord so can administer drug directly into that bit of the spinal cord

663
Q

What are the benefits of epidural administration of drugs in childbirth?

A

Minimises opioids going into the mothers bloodstream

664
Q

Why is fentanyl used often in surgery?

A

Short half life

665
Q

Which drugs are administered via a transdermal patch?

A

fentanyl and buprenorphine

666
Q

Big advantage of transdermal patches?

A

Good way to steadily administer drug, keep dose at a consistent level

667
Q

Which level of administration is used for treating chronic pain?

A

Transdermal patch

668
Q

What is buccal aborption?

A

Through the mouth

669
Q

Why is fentanyl absorbed orally?

A

It is lipophilic

670
Q

Benefit of a fentanyl lolipop?

A

Quick way of getting drug into bloodstream

671
Q

Examples of nonsteroidal anti inflammatory drugs?

A

Aspirin, ibuprofen, diclofenac, paracetamol

672
Q

What effects do NSAIDs have?

A

Anti inflammatory, antipyretic, analgesic

673
Q

Antipyretic meaning?

A

Decreases fever

674
Q

What normal effect of NSAIDs can paracetamol not do?

A

Be anti-inflammatory

675
Q

How do the additive properties of paracetamol and ibuprofen work?

A

The positive effects are additive but the toxic effects are not

676
Q

Who cannot take paracetamol and ibuprofen?

677
Q

What do all NSAIDs inhibit?

A

Prostaglandins

678
Q

What do prostaglandins activate?

A

Prostanoid receptors

679
Q

What happens when prostanoid receptors are activated?

A

Sensitisation of nociceptors

680
Q

What is the first molecule in prostaglandin synthesis?

A

Phospholipids

681
Q

What are phospholipids converted to in prostaglandin synthesis?

A

Arachidonic acid

682
Q

What catalyses the formation of arachidonic acid from phospholipids?

A

Phospholipase a2

683
Q

What is arachidonic acid converted to in prostaglandin synthesis?

A

Prostaglandin H2

684
Q

What catalyses the formation of prostaglandin H2 in prostaglandin synthesis?

A

Cyclo-oxygenase-1 or -2 (COX-1 or COX-2)

685
Q

What is prostaglandin H2 converted to in prostaglandin synthesis?

A

Prostaglandin E2 (PGE2)

686
Q

What catalyses the formation of prostaglandin E2 in prostaglandin synthesis?

A

PGE synthase

687
Q

Which step of prostaglandin synthesis do NSAIDs target?

A

The conversion of arachidonic acid to prostaglandin H2

688
Q

How do NSAIDs inhibit prostaglandin synthesis?

A

They block COX-1 or COX-2

689
Q

Disadvantages of NSAIDs?

A

Severe gastric irritation, kidney disorders

690
Q

Where is COX-1 found?

A

Widespread throughout the body

691
Q

What is COX 2 exclusively involved in?

A

Inflammatory response

692
Q

Inhibition of which specific enzyme causes the desired effects of NSAIDs?

693
Q

Inhibition of which specific enzyme in the prostaglandin synthesis pathway causes causes gastric irritation?

694
Q

Which drugs are COX-2 inhibitors?

A

Rofecoxib (vioxx), Celecoxib (celebrex)

695
Q

Main issue with Rofecoxib (vioxx)?

A

Cardiac side effects

696
Q

Side effect occurrence in Rofecoxib (vioxx) patients?

697
Q

What is an example of a disease that taking Rofecoxib (vioxx) or celecoxib (celebrex) helps?

A

Rheumatoid arthritis

698
Q

What is neuropathic pain?

A

Pain unrelated to peripheral nociception

699
Q

What can cause neuropathic pain?

A

Peripheral nerve damage, peripheral nerve terminal damage or infection, spinal damage, thalamic stroke

700
Q

Issue with neuropathic pain?

A

Does not respond to opioids or NSAIDs

701
Q

Which drugs work for shingles pain?

A

Tricyclic antidepressants

702
Q

Example of a tricyclic antidepressant?

A

Imipramine

703
Q

Why, is it thought, that tricyclic antidepressants help with shingles pain?

A

They boost noradrenaline

704
Q

Which drugs can be useful in neuropathic main?

A

Antiepileptics (gabapentin), cannabinoid receptor agonists

705
Q

Which condition can cannabinoid receptor agonists be used to treat in the uk?

A

Multiple sclerosis

706
Q

Issues with glutamate receptor blockers (e.g. MK801)?

A

Side effects–> psychotic episode

707
Q

How do neurokinin receptors work?

A

Blocking central sensitisation

708
Q

Issue with analgesics that block centran sensitisation?

A

Would need to take them before any pain is going to occur, as central sensitisation has already occured after pain has been felt

709
Q

Difference between rewarding and reinforcing?

A

Reward is a subjective term, reinforcing is objective

710
Q

Which word is used in place of reward in animals?

A

Reinforcing

711
Q

What are symptoms of psychological dependence?

A

Craving, compul drug use, loss of control

712
Q

Symptoms of physical dependence?

A

When stopping a drug causes a withdrawal syndrome

713
Q

What is tolerance?

A

When continued use of a drug results in the need for increasing doses for equivalent effect

714
Q

Who first discovered brain sites where direct electrical stimulation is reinforcing?

A

Olds and Milner

715
Q

How did Olds and Milner discover reinforcing brian sites?

A

Implanted electrodes into different parts of rat brains, Rat was in charge of which parts were stimulated–> idea was that theyd stimulate the reinforcing parts

716
Q

What is the mesolimbic pathway?

A

The reward pathway

717
Q

How were the NTs involved in the mesolimbic pathway determined?

A

Microdialysis

718
Q

How does microdialysis work?

A

Probe is inserted into brain region (tip of probe has dialysis tubing)–> NT that is released from nerve terminals that are where the probe is will enter the tip–> contents are pumped out

719
Q

Why is dialysis tubing used in NT determination?

A

It has a semi-permeable membrane

720
Q

What machine is the solution acquired as a result of microdialysis pumped into?

721
Q

Which NT is involved in reward?

722
Q

Where are the dopaminergic neurones projecting from and to in the mesolimbic pathway?

A

From the ventral tegmental area to the nucleus accumbens

723
Q

How does self administration work?

A

Cannula is implanted into the brain–> anything that is put into the cannula will go straight into the brain, animal can control this

724
Q

What is the effect of 6-hydroxydopamine?

A

It is toxic but only to dopaminergic neurons

725
Q

What happens to animals self-administration of drugs if dopaminergic pathways in the brain are lesioned?

A

They don’t self administer anymore

726
Q

What is lesioning a brain pathway?

A

Using a chemical to turn that pathway off

727
Q

What happens to animals self-administration of drugs if dopamine D1 or D2 antagonists are used?

A

They wont self administer anymore

728
Q

What does an increase of dopamine in the nucleus accumbens feel like?

729
Q

What does an decrease of dopamine in the nucleus accumbens feel like?

730
Q

What was the effect of most drugs of abuse on the amount of dopamine in the nucleus accumbens?

A

They increased it

731
Q

Why is it thought that rodents take diazepam?

A

Reduces their anxiety

732
Q

How do cocaine and amphetamine increase dopamine levels in the nucleus accumbens?

A

They are both dopamine reuptake inhibitors

733
Q

What can amphetamine do that dopamine cant?

A

Directly cause dopamine release

734
Q

How is it thought that amphetamine causes dopamine release?

A

It allows reverse transport through the transporters that usually allow dopamine back into the presynaptic neuron

735
Q

How do opioids increase the levels of dopamine in the nucleus accumbens?

A

Inhibit the GABA neurons that would otherwise inhibit the dopaminergic neurons in the ventral tegmental area

736
Q

How does ethanol increase the amount of dopamine in the nucleus accumbens?

A

Close K+ channels on the postsynaptic neurons in NA, decreasing hyperpolarisation post one AP meaning APs will fire more frequently

737
Q

Which class of drugs does ethanol have a similar effect to regarding GABAa receptors?

A

Benzodiazepines–> it is an allosteric modulator (anxiolytic)

738
Q

How does nicotine increase dopamine levels in nucleus accumbens?

A

Nicotine acts on nicotinic ACh receptors on dopaminergic neurons in the VTA, increasing the firing rate so more dopamine is released

739
Q

How does THC increase dopamine levels in nucleus accumbens?

A

Acts on cannabinoid receptors which are on GABAergic interneurons–> GI/GO coupled GPCRs–> causes inhibition of the GABAergic neuron so less inhibitory GABA is sent to the dopaminergic neurons in the VTA

741
Q

What is neurodegeneration?

A

The destruction of neurons in any disease, i.e. it has to be beyond that or normal aging

742
Q

Where is neurodegeneration found?

A

Neurodegenerative diseases, cancer, trauma, viral diseases, vascular/circulatory disorders

743
Q

Main causes of stroke?

A

Atherosclerosis, thrombosis, embolism, vasospasm, hyper vasculopathy

744
Q

What is atherosclerosis?

A

Narrowing of blood vessels

745
Q

What is an embolism?

A

Damage to heart valves

746
Q

What is vasospasm?

A

Vasculature begins to spasm

747
Q

What can cause vasospasm?

A

Subarachnoid hemorhage?

748
Q

Ischaemic stroke?

A

Blockage in brain area which causes loss of blood and O2 to that area–> cell death

749
Q

Haemorrhagic stroke?

A

Blood vessel becomes broken–> blood enters the brain

750
Q

What is a venous infarction?

A

Where a brain has been hemorrhaged or broken in the brain

751
Q

What causes venous infarctions?

A

Venous sinus thrombosis

752
Q

What is the pattern of damage after ischaemic damage?

A

Initial area where there is reduction of blood flow–> main area of concern–> definite neuronal loss
Damage can spread to areas outside of this

753
Q

Ischaemic penumbra?

A

An area which is less affected by the ischaemic damage but still affected

754
Q

What can cause ischaemic penumbra?

A

Loss of blood supply, and release of substances by already dead neurons

755
Q

Size of the infarction over time compared to penumbra?

A

Infarction increases to where the penumbra is, so penumbra decreases

756
Q

What are stroke treatments aimed at?

A

Reducing area of penumbra, as it is reversible damage

757
Q

What are the main types of glial cells in the nervous system?

A

Oligodendrocytes

758
Q

What are oligodendrocytes involved with?

A

Myelination of axons in the CNS

759
Q

What are the meninges?

A

Blood vessel containing membrane over the surface of the brain

760
Q

Different types of menginital infection?

A

Bacterial, fungal, viral

761
Q

What is polio caused by?

A

An RNA virus

762
Q

Effect of polio on CNS?

A

Destruction of neurons in the spinal cord

763
Q

How were scientists able to map spinal cord areas to control of certain muscles?

A

Observed loss of muscle control depending on different areas of the spinal cord that was affected by polio

764
Q

Main issues with neurodegenerative diseases?

A

Unknown cause, no cure, progressive, both sporadic and inherited forms and they are often age dependent

765
Q

Which neurodegenerative disease is transmissable?

A

Prion diseases

766
Q

What is alzheimers associated with?

A

Gross brain atrophy

767
Q

What is gross brain atrophy?

A

The loss of neurons in the brain

768
Q

Which proteins is alzheimers associated with?

A

Beta amyloid tangles and plaques

769
Q

Which two diseases are forms of dementia?

A

Alzheimers and Prions disease

770
Q

Which form of dementia is transmissable?

A

Prion disease

771
Q

Which neurodegenerative diseases are movement disorders?

A

Parkinsons and Huntingtons

772
Q

What kind of atrophy is parkinsons associated with?

A

Loss of dopaminergic neurons in the substantia nigra

773
Q

Which protein and mutation is Huntingtons disease associated with?

A

Increased amount of Huntingten protein with CAG repeats in the sequence

774
Q

Which diseases are amyloidogenic?

A

Alzheimers, parkinsons, prion

775
Q

What are amyloidogenic diseases?

A

Diseases where aggregates of a protein form a deposit

776
Q

Which disease is characterised by the formation of intracellular protein deposits?

A

Parkinsons

777
Q

Which disease is characterised by the formation of extracellular protein deposits?

A

Alzheimers

778
Q

What is the most common neurodegenerative disease?

A

Alzheimers

779
Q

Most common cause of dementia?

A

Alzheimers

781
Q

Two main theories of the cause of alzheimers?

A

Deposition of beta-amyloid protein (amyloid cascade hypothesis) or deposition of phosphorylated tau in the form of helical filaments or tangles

782
Q

Third theory of cause of alzheimers?

A

Metal hypothesis

783
Q

Function of amyloid precursor protein?

A

Unknown, possibly ion transport and memory

784
Q

What happens to beta amyloid protein when it is broken down by the cell?

A

It is acted on by secretases

785
Q

Which secretases can act on amyloid precursor protein?

A

alpha or beta

786
Q

Which secretase acts most commonly on APP?

787
Q

Which products are formed if alpha secretase acts on APP?

A

Aicd, p3 (both are harmless)

788
Q

Difference between alpha and beta secretase pathway?

A

APP is cut at a different location

789
Q

How can gamma secretase influence the formation of plaques?

A

Where the gamma secretase cleaves at the C-terminal end

790
Q

At which AA position in the C terminal does gamma secretase cleave for beta amyloid aggregates to form?

791
Q

At which AA position in the C terminal does gamma secretase cleave for beta amyloid aggregates to not form?

792
Q

What causes parkinsons?

A

The loss of dopaminergic neurons in the substantia nigra

793
Q

Where does the substantia nigra usually innervate to?

794
Q

What happens to striatum innervation from the substantia nigra in parkinsons?

A

It is lost–> cant control movement in the normal way

795
Q

Which proteins are involved in parkinsons?

A

Alpha synuclein (PARK1), Parkin (PARK2), DJ-1 (PARK7), PINK01 (PARK6), LRRK2 (PARK8), UCHL1 (PARK5)

796
Q

What are aggregates of alpha synuclein called?

A

Lewy bodies

797
Q

Are lewy bodies intra or extra cellular?

A

Intracellular

798
Q

Where are the cells containing lewy bodies found?

A

Substantia nigra

799
Q

WHat is Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease(CJD)?

A

Main form of human prion disease

800
Q

WHich disease results in animal models that replicate symptoms observed in humans?

A

Prion disease

801
Q

Characteristics of prion diseases?

A

long incubation period (10-40yrs), large deposits of prion protein, rapid neuronal loss, gliosis, vacuoles

802
Q

How does the prion protein misfold?

A

As a result of interaction with other misfolded prion proteins–> could by why it is transmissible

803
Q

Why is there a metal hypothesis regarding neurodegenerative diseases?

A

The proteins associated with NDs (APP, alpha synuclein, prion protein) are all metal binding proteins

804
Q

What are the two main families of demyelinating diseases?

A

Demyelinating diseases and dismyelinating diseases

805
Q

What is a demyelinating disease?

A

Myelin on axons is destroyed

806
Q

Most common demyelinating disease?

A

Multiple sclerosis

807
Q

What is a dismyelinating disease?

A

A disease where myelination doesnt occur normally

808
Q

Cause of multiple sclerosis?

A

CNS myelin is selectively destroyed–> axon is still there

809
Q

Onset of MS?

810
Q

Observable symptoms of MS?

A

Muscle weakness, difficulty moving (ataxia), difficulty speaking or swallowing

812
Q

Main issue with current ND treatment?

A

Most ND have on cure, treatment only alleviates/delays symptoms

813
Q

Main target of ND treatment?

A

Aggregates

814
Q

Time course for an ND patient?

A

Usually over 50 with no evidence–> develop minor psychological/behaviour/motor issues–> develop memory loss, or issues with navigation–> begin differential diagnosis–> begin QOL treatments–>delay symptoms treatment–> alleviate symptoms–> palliative care–> death from another casue

815
Q

Do ND kill people?

A

No, usually smthn like pneumonia

816
Q

What is special about Wilsons Disease?

A

It can be treated

817
Q

How does someone get Wilsons Disease?

A

Inherited–> genetic mutation

818
Q

Main cause of Wilsons Disease?

A

Copper metabolism disease

819
Q

Which protein is mutated in Wilsons disease?

A

Copper ion transporting P type ATPase (ATP7B)

820
Q

Role of Copper ion transporting P type ATPase (ATP7B)?

A

Movement of copper scross the membrane

821
Q

Symptoms of Wilsons disease?

A

Abdominal pain, dark urine, jaundice, mood changes, rings around edge of cornea, tremor and stiff muscles

822
Q

How is wilsons disease treated?

A

A copper chelator–> helps remove copper from the body

823
Q

What are two copper chelators used to treat wilsons disease?

A

Penicillamine and trientine

824
Q

What are the two ways that aggregates are targeted in ND?

A

Preventing their formation or causing their breakdown

825
Q

What are causes other than aggregates that can cause ND?

A

Oxidative stress (toxic radicals–> e.g. superoxide)
Mitochondrial damage–> could produce cytochrome C

826
Q

How is aggregate formation prevented?

A

Target parent protein, stimulate breakdown enzymes, prevent misfolding

827
Q

How are aggregate parent proteins targeted?

A

Antisense RNA, genetic knockout (CRISPR-Cas9)

828
Q

How is breakdown of aggregates increased?

A

Increases the action of the proteasome on that specific protein, use antibody treatments

829
Q

Which disease could be treated with antisense RNA?

A

Huntingtons

830
Q

Which protein is targeted by antisense RNA in huntingtons?

A

Huntingtin (HTT)

831
Q

Which (failed) treatment of Alzheimers involved gamma secretase inhibitors?

A

Brought in a gamma secretase to reduce the amount of beta amyloid being produced

832
Q

How effective have antibodies against aBeta been in alzheimers?

A

Reduced cognitive decline by 20-40%

833
Q

How are the antibodies for Azheimers treatment delivered?

A

Cannula infusion

834
Q

How are alzheimers antibodies believed to work?

A

Recruitment of microglia

835
Q

Main cause of PD?

A

Loss of dopaminergic neurons in substantia nigra in pathway to striatum

836
Q

What are parkinsons treatments aimed at?

A

Restoring dopamine for the normal function of the striatum

837
Q

What are the two kinds of receptor in the striatum?

838
Q

What are the two pathways running between the striatum and the motor cortex?

A

Facilitatory, direct pathway, and the inhibitory, indirect pathway

839
Q

Effect of dopamine on the facilitatory pathway between the striatum and the motor cortex?

A

It enhances it

840
Q

Effect of dopamine on inhibitory pathway between the striatum and the motor cortex?

A

It inhibits it

841
Q

Which dopamine receptor is targeted by dopamine for the facilitatory pathway?

842
Q

Which dopamine receptor is targeted by dopamine for the inhibitory pathway?

843
Q

Effect of dopamine loss in PD?

A

Reduced motor cortex activity

844
Q

How can dopamine be increased?

A

Provide more dopamine or more dopamine precursor, decrease its reuptake, inhibit its breakdown, provide a dopamine agonist

845
Q

Most common parkinsons treatment?

A

Provide L-Dopa

846
Q

Why is L-Dopa provided instead of dopamine?

A

L-Dopa can cross the blood brain barrier

847
Q

Main issues with L-Dopa?

A

It can be converted to dopamine (which cant cross BBB) in the blood

848
Q

Which drug is given alongside L-Dopa to prevent dopamine formation in the blood?

A

Cabidopa (dopa decarbodylase inhibitor)

849
Q

Side effect of L-Dopa?

A

Dyskinesia–> severe involuntary movement

850
Q

How is the dyskinesia of L-Dopa treatment managed?

A

Patients have an “off” time where they dont take any L-Dopa in order to reduce the prevalence of side effects

851
Q

Second treatment aim at PD after L-Dopa?

A

Inhibit breakdown of dopamine

852
Q

How is dopamine breakdown inhibited?

A

Monoamime oxidase B (MAOB) inhibitors

853
Q

What is the main MAOB inhibitor?

A

Selegeline

854
Q

PD treatment after L-Dopa and MAOB inhibitor?

A

Catechol O-Methyl Transferase (COMT) inhibitor

855
Q

Side effects of L-Dopa?

A

Nausea and dizziness

856
Q

Side effects of COMT?

A

Toxicity to liver cells, diarrhoea and sleep disturbances

857
Q

Main COMT used for PD?

858
Q

How do dopamine agonists work?

A

Acts directly on dopamine receptors

859
Q

Side effects of dopamine agonists?

A

Nausea, dizziness, hallucinations, sleep attacks, hypotension

860
Q

Examples of dopamine agonists?

A

Pramipexole, Ropinirole, Bromocriptine

861
Q

What is deep brain stimulation?

A

Implanting an electrode into the striatum–> can stimulate it directly and thus stimulate the activity

862
Q

Benefits of deep brain stimulation?

A

Doesnt have the same side effects of L-Dopa

863
Q

Complications of deep brain stimulation?

A

Brain hemorrhage, seizures, death

864
Q

Issues with stem cell treatment for ND?

A

Cost and time

866
Q

What is learning?

A

acquisition of new information or knowledge

867
Q

What is memory?

A

storage or retention of acquired knowledge

868
Q

What is an engram?

A

physical representation or location of memory, a collection of neurones

869
Q

What are the three classificaitons of memory?

A

Declarative, emotional, procedural

870
Q

Examples of declarative memory?

A

Daily episodes (remembering address), words and meanings, history

871
Q

Example of emotional memory?

A

Preferences/aversions–> things we do/dont like depending on past expiriences

872
Q

Examples of procedural memory?

A

Motor skills, solving puzzles, priming cues, association and linking

873
Q

Which areas of the brain are involved in memory?

874
Q

Which brain regions involve emotional memories?

A

Amygdala, hypothalamus

875
Q

Which part of the brain is responsible for motor memory?

A

Cerebellum (used for playing instrument riding bike etc)

876
Q

Which type of the brain is involved in declarative memories?

A

Hippocampus, entorhinal and parahippocampal cortex

877
Q

Which areas of the brain are involved in procedural memories?

A

Cerebellum, striatum, brainstem and spinal motor output

878
Q

Which brain area is seen as a hub of learning and memory?

A

Hippocampus

879
Q

What is anterograde amnesia?

A

inability to form new memories/learn new things

880
Q

What is retrograde amnesia?

A

Can’t recall things

881
Q

What is working memory?

A

Short term memory

882
Q

Order of solidifying a memory?

A

Input–> short term (working) memory–> long term memory

883
Q

What is Hebbs law?

A

If there are two connected neurons in the brain, and one repetitively fires APs onto the other (and vice versa), the synapse that connects them becomes permanently stronger

884
Q

What kinds of memories does the engram theory work with?

A

All of them

885
Q

In terms of an engram, what is short term memory?

A

Reverberating activity between synapses

886
Q

What does reverberating activity between synapses do to them?

A

Strengthens them

887
Q

What happens once synapses between neurons reverberate enough?

A

The synapses become permanently strengthened, thus creating a long term memory

888
Q

Why does only part of a stimulus need to be viewed for an engram to be activated?

A

Part of the stimulus only triggers a few neurons, but bc they have strengthened synapses they will all end up firing APs

889
Q

What are all memories down to?

A

Strengthening synapses

890
Q

Which brain area has been the focus of most of research in synaptic strengthening?

A

Hippocampus/entorhinal cortex

891
Q

Which type of NT neurons are involved in memories?

A

Glutamatergic

892
Q

How is synapse strengthening studied?

A

Stimulate axons in the entorhinal cortex that innervate the hippocampus, causing them to fire APs. Can record membrane potential of postsynaptic neuron

893
Q

How does a synapse get stronger?

A

If a burst of activity happens in the presynaptic neuron (100APs in 100miliseconds) the strength of the synapse is increased–> there is a potentiated AMPAr EPSP which lasts forever–> a larger EPSP as a result of more APs being fired down

894
Q

What is long term potentiation?

A

Increase in the strength of a synapse after repeated stimulation–> lasts long term

895
Q

What is a tetanus?

A

A high frequency burst of APs

896
Q

What is the memory response caused by?

A

Opening of AMPA receptors

897
Q

What happens if NMDA receptors are blocked during memory formation/synapse strengthening?

A

The potentiated EPSP doesnt occur (LTP doesnt form)

898
Q

What happens if Ca2+ entry via NMDA receptors is limited during synapse strengthening?

A

The LTP doesnt occur

899
Q

Where is the change that allows a LTP to form?

A

AMPA receptor

900
Q

Where is the change to AMPA receptors caused by?

A

NMDA receptors

901
Q

State of NMDA receptor pore at normal membrane potential?

A

Blocked by Mg2+

902
Q

What are NMDA receptors permeable to?

A

Ca2+ and Na+ both going in

903
Q

How is an LTP manifested postsynaptically?

A

Intracellular AMPA receptors get trafficked to CSM, the AMPA receptors are more sensitive and there is more synapses

904
Q

How is an LTP manifested presynaptically?

A

Increased release of NT, more release sites and more vesicles

906
Q

Other than EPSP what can calcium be used for in the postsynaptic neuron?

A

Signalling

907
Q

What can calcium do as a signalling molecule in the postsynaptic neuron?

A

Activate kinases, e.g. Protein Kinase C, calcium calmodulin kinase II

908
Q

What can protein kinase C phosphorylate?

A

AMPA receptor

909
Q

What does phosphorylating AMPA receptors do?

A

Make it more sensitive–> it opens wider per glutamate molecule that binds to it

910
Q

What does calcium comodulase kinase II do?

A

Acts as the trigger for causing intracellular AMPA receptors to traffic to the cell membrane.

911
Q

How does calcium cause nitric oxide?

A

Via activity of guanylyl cyclase

912
Q

What is NO used as in LTP?

913
Q

Good things ab using NO as an NT?

A

It is a gas so it can freely diffuse from postsynaptic to presynaptic

914
Q

Role of NO presynaptically?

A

Increased amounts of vesicles, increase probability that a vesicle is released per AP

915
Q

What is a retrograde transmitter?

A

Goes from postsynaptic to presynaptic

916
Q

Morris water maze?

A

Opaque body of water with a platform that lets them stand

917
Q

Morris water maze use?

A

Studying memory

918
Q

How was a morris water maze used to study memory?

A

Trained them to find the platform (same place) then did that with a NMDA agonist–> when agonist was present they didnt learn where the platform was

919
Q

What is a priming cue?

A

A stimulus that can trigger memories

920
Q

What kinds of memories can a priming cue trigger?

A

Conscious–> remember event, subconscious–> feeling ill, anxious

921
Q

What is pavlovian/classical conditioning?

A

To do with memory linkage: Dog will salivate in response to food, if you combine food and bell then the dog will salivate, if you do it enough the dog will end up salivating if you only ring the bell and don’t present food

922
Q

Why is pavlovian conditioning linked to drug abuse?

A

People associate the place they are, people they are around, music that is playing with taking drugs–> people would crave a drug if they go into the room where they used to take them

923
Q

Outcome of a cocaine user watching a video of nature, then someone doing coke?

A

Brain activity when nature video was normal but different when they watched someone take coke

925
Q

What can cause a short term memory loss?

A

Alcohol, head trauma etc

926
Q

Two different types of amnesia?

A

Retrograde or anterograde

927
Q

Retrograde amnesia?

A

Lose ability to recall memories that have already been learned

928
Q

Anterograde amnesia?

A

Cant create new memories

929
Q

What are demetias?

A

A family of symptoms characterized by a decline in cognitive functions sufficient to cause impairment in social and occupational performance

930
Q

What is the first presenting feature of demetia?

A

Decline in memory

931
Q

Most common form of dementia?

A

Alzheimers

932
Q

What are initiation deficits/apathy?

A

Lacking the will to do something

933
Q

What are visuo-spatial deficits?

A

Forgetting visual things/locations e.g. forgetting the way home/where they are etc

934
Q

Most common alzheimer’s symptoms?

A

Memory, initiation, visuo-spatial and language deficits

935
Q

Paraphasia?

A

Struggling to identify the right words

936
Q

What drives executive function?

A

Frontal cortex

937
Q

What is executive funciton?

A

Risk assessment–> motivated to do x thing but there may be a risk, weighing up pros and cons

938
Q

Symptoms of having executive function issues?

A

V risk averse/v risky

939
Q

What is psychosis?

A

A psychotic epidose–> is a symptom not a disease itself

940
Q

Does psychosis occur in AZ?

941
Q

How is psychosis treated in AZ?

A

Antipsychotics that are used to control schizophrenia

942
Q

Incidence of AZ with age?

A

Strongly correlated with age

943
Q

Cause of AZ?

A

Neurons in the brain dying

944
Q

Where is the first locus of AZ damage?

A

Temporal lobes

945
Q

What is found in the temporal lobes?

A

Hippocampus and entorhinal corex

946
Q

Why are memory deficits seen as the first symptoms of AZ?

A

FIrst affected parts are hippocampus and entorhinal cortex which are involved in memory

947
Q

What happens to the rest of the brian as AZ spreads?

A

AZ spreads around the brain

948
Q

Which parts of the brain are not affected by AZ?

A

Midbrain/brainstem

949
Q

Cause of AZ?

A

Extracellular plaques that form as a result of abnormal beta amyloid, and intracellular tangles made up of abnormal Tau protein

950
Q

Where is APP found?

A

Membrane spanning

951
Q

First action on APP?

A

Cleaved by alpha secretase

952
Q

What forms as a result of alpha secretase cleaving APP?

A

APP alpha (soluble)

953
Q

What effects does APP alpha have?

A

Trophic–> positive (“nourishes the neurons”)

954
Q

What happens to the rest of APP that isn’t cleaved into APP alpha?

A

Cleaved by gamma secretase into two smaller peptides that can be metabolised

955
Q

What happens to APP in AZ?

A

It gets cleaved by beta secretase

956
Q

Difference between alpha and beta secretase?

A

Cleavage position on APP

957
Q

What forms as a result of beta secretase cleavage of APP?

A

APP beta, and a larger peptide remnant

958
Q

What cleaves the larger protein remnant formed by beta secretase cleavage?

A

Gamma secratase

959
Q

What forms as a result of gamma secretase cleaving the larger peptide remnant from beta secretase?

A

Beta amyloid 40 or beta amyloid 42

960
Q

How is ApoE4 involved in AZ?

A

It can help beta amyloid 40/42 form plaques

961
Q

General role of ApoE4?

A

Helps cholesterol and fat soluble vitamins enter neurons

962
Q

What can beta amyloid plaques do?

A

Drive production of phosphorylated Tau

963
Q

What % of AZ cases are sporadic?

964
Q

What may cause the formation of amyloid beta 40/42?

A

Enhancement of beta secretase as a result of environmental/disease/inflammation

966
Q

Which beta amyloid protein has a more severe effect?

A

Beta amyloid 42

967
Q

What does intracellular Tau do?

A

Causes neuronal cell death

968
Q

What can beta amyloid plaques form complexes with?

A

Metal ions–> Cu, Fe etc

969
Q

What forms as a result of beta amyloid plaques forming complexes with metal ions?

A

Peroxide is produced

970
Q

What can peroxide do in neurons?

A

Peroxidate membrane lipids

971
Q

Effect of peroxidation on membrane lipids?

A

Can comprimise their functions–> functions of membrane spanning proteins

972
Q

Examples of membrane spanning proteins on neurons

A

All ion channels, all NT receptors etc

973
Q

What can happen if Ca2+ levels are too high in neurons?

A

Calcium sets off toxic events

974
Q

What can calcium cause in neurons that is toxic?

A

Excitotoxicity, tau phosphorylation

975
Q

What, other than peroxidation, can beta amyloid plaques cause?

A

Tau phosphorylation

976
Q

What can tau phosphorylation (and thus neurofibrillary tangle formation) form?

A

Disruption of microtubular transport

977
Q

Main drugs used to treat AZ? symptoms?

A

Cholinesterase inhibitors, memantine, nootropics,

978
Q

Examples of cholinesterase inhibitors?

A

Donepezil, rivastigmine, galangamine

979
Q

Which type of NT neurons are first affected in AZ?

A

CHolinergic neurons

980
Q

Role of Ach in entorhinal cortex and hippocampus?

A

LTP and normal function

981
Q

Effect of cholinesterase inhibitors?

A

ACh stays in synapse for longer so more signalling to postsynaptic neuron

982
Q

Which drug is given to people in later stage AZ?

983
Q

What is memantine?

A

Non-competitive NMDA receptor blocker

984
Q

Why does memantine work as an AZ treatment?

A

Not known, may be neuroprotective

985
Q

What a nootropics?

A

Drugs that are cognitive enhancers

986
Q

What are AMPAkines?

A

Positive allosteric modulators at ampa receptor

987
Q

What is used to treat ADHD?

A

Methylphenidate (ritalin)

988
Q

Four drugs used to treat AZ?

A

Donepezil, rivastigmine, galantamine, memantine

989
Q

What is most of the research about treating AZ progression aimed at?

A

The Beta Amyloid hypothesis

990
Q

Which drugs targeting the beta amyloid hypothesis are in trials?

A

Beta secretase inhibitors, anti-amyloid beta vaccine/monoclonal antibodies, anti tau vaccine/monoclonal antibodies

991
Q

How are copper and zinc targeted in possible AZ progression treatment?

A

With chelators as the metal ions can promote plaque formation

992
Q

Issues with nerve growth factors for treating AZ?

A

Would have to be directly infused into brain so cant be used for routine therapy

993
Q

Effect of statins on AZ?

A

Cholesterol promotes amyloid deposition

994
Q

What are donanemab and lecanemab?

A

Monoclonal antibodies against beta amyloid peptide–> prevent plaque formation by sticking too it

995
Q

How effective are donanemab and lecanemab?

A

Delay progression by ~ 4 months

996
Q

What can be used for early diagnosis?

A

Beta amyloid plaque formation–> can start to form 5-10 years before symptoms

997
Q

What could be used to look for AZ biomarkers?

A

Blood samples, brain scans, spinal fluid draw (last two are difficult)