URR 1 Flashcards

1
Q

Universal precautions are also called:

A

standard precautions

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2
Q

Universal precautions were established by the ____ to prevent infection and confine germs

A

Center for Disease Control

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3
Q

Universal precautions protect:

A

patient and caregiver

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4
Q

An approach to infection control to treat all human blood and certain human body fluids as if they were known to be infectious for HIV, HBV, and other blood borne pathogens

A

universal precautions

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5
Q

_____ should be used if blood or body fluid exposure is anticipated

A

personal protective equipment

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6
Q

Probe ____ is required after each patient

A

sanitization

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7
Q

_____ can be used for most probes in standard exams

A

Sani-wipes

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8
Q

Endocavity probes require soaking in a:

A

high level disinfectant

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9
Q

If a standard probe comes in contact with blood or body fluids, _____ should be performed.

A

high level disinfection

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10
Q

Examples of high level disinfectant include ____, ____, ____, ____, _____

A

Metricide
Cidex
Glutarldehyde
Ortho-phathaldehyde
hydrogen peroxide

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11
Q

Handwashing procedure

A

use antibacterial soap, wash hands with extra care to nails, knuckles, and between fingers,

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12
Q

The proper time for washing hands

A

20+ seconds

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13
Q

Washing hands should be performed for 6 situations:

A

Contamination
before gloves are put on and after gloves are removed
before and after assisting with any type of interventional procedures
between patient contact
before exiting the patient’s room after touching the patient or something in their room
After changing exam table linens or paper

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14
Q

Wear gloves when there is a potential contact with ____, ____, ____, _____, or _____

A

blood
body fluids
mucous membranes
nonintact skin
contaminated equipment

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15
Q

____ wear the same pair of gloves for the care of more than one patient

A

NEVER

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16
Q

Discard used gloves and never wash gloves for the purpose of:

A

reuse

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17
Q

Perform _____ before putting on and immediately after removing gloves

A

hand hygiene

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18
Q

When wearing a protective gown and gloves, the open end of the gloves should:

A

be pulled over the wrist cuffs of the gown

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19
Q

How to remove gloves

A

the first glove, pull the wrist section of the glove towards the fingers, turning the glove inside out as it is removed; place the removed glove in the hand still wearing a glove; pull the second glove off like the first and you should have both gloves inside out and rolled together for disposal

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20
Q

Wear a ___ to protect skin and clothing during times where contact with blood or bodily fluids is possible

A

gown

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21
Q

Wear gowns that are:

A

long and large to cover clothing

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22
Q

Remove all ____ and ____ before putting on a gown

A

watches
jewelry

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23
Q

____ wear the same gown for the care of more than one patient

A

NEVER

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24
Q

How to remove a protective gown

A

remove gloves, untie strings, pull gown forward from the shoulders using neck strings, grab inside shoulder seams pull it off the arms and turn it inside out as it is removed

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25
Perform ____ before leaving an exam room
hand hygiene
26
Wear a ____ to protect nose and mouth during times where contact with respiratory secretions and sprays of blood or bodily fluids are possible
facemask
27
Do not touch the part of the mask that:
will touch your face
28
How to put on facemask
tie upper strings over ears and towards top of back of head, then tie bottom strings at base of neck
29
How to remove facemask
remove gloves first, and then untie the bottom strings, followed by top strings, discard
30
wear ____ during times where contact with respiratory secretions and sprays of blood or body fluids is possible
eye protection
31
____ and ____ are NOT considered adequate eye protection
personal eyeglasses contact lenses
32
How to remove goggles
touch sides of goggles to remove and discard, do not touch front of goggles
33
4 types of isolation precautions
contact droplet airborne protective environment
34
used to protect others from germs in patients that have stool incontinence, draining wounds, and/or skin lesions that cannot be covered, or uncontrolled secretions
contact precautions
35
Enteric contact precautions include ____, ____, or ____
difficile rotavirus noravirus
36
Wound and skin contact precautions include ___, ___, ____, ___
MRSA VRE scabies impetigo
37
Wear ____ when touching the patient and items in the patient's immediate environment
gloves
38
Wear a ____ if substantial contact with the patient or their environment is expected.
gown
39
Perform ____ after removal of PPE
hand hygiene
40
used to protect others from germs in the patient's nose, mouth, throat, and lungs
droplet precautions
41
____ precautions should be used for patient's with suspected infection and that exhibit sneezing, coughing, or spitting.
Droplet
42
Droplet precautions include patients with ___, ___, ____, ____, ____, ____, ____
pneumonia influenza adenovirus mumps rubella meningitis bordetella pertussis
43
For droplet precautions, wear a ____ for close contact with the patient.
facemask
44
Wear ____ when touching the patient and items in the patient's immediate environment
gloves
45
Wear a ____ and/or ____ if excessive spraying of respiratory fluids is anticipated.
gown goggles
46
Perform ____ after removal of PPE
hand hygiene
47
For droplet precautions, a patient should wear a ____ when exiting the exam room
facemask
48
_____ precautions require strict isolation for patient
airborne
49
separation from others to prevent the spread, by contact or airborne transmission of highly contagious disease
airborne precautions
50
____ precautions should be used for patients suspected to be infected with a pathogen that can be transmitted by airborne route
Airborne
51
Airborne precautions should be used for patients with the following illnesses: ____, ____, ____, ____
tuberculosis measles chickenpox (varicella) shingles
52
Wear a fit tested ___ or higher level disposable respirator when in the patient's room
N-95
53
For airborne precautions, put a ____ on before entering the room and remove it after exiting the room
respirator
54
Wear a ___ and/or ___ if excessive spraying of respiratory fluids is anticipated.
gown goggles
55
Perform ___ after removal of PPE
hand hygiene
56
For airborne precautions, a patient should wear a____ when exiting the exam room
facemask
57
Reverse protective isolation
Protective environment precautions
58
protects patients from the germs of others
protective environment precautions
59
used with patients who have extremely impaired immune systems or recent organ transplant
protective environment precautions
60
Protective environment precautions require the use of ____ and ______
gloves mask
61
Equipment should be cleaned ___ and ___ leaving the patient room
before after
62
Perform ____ after removal of PPE
hand hygiene
63
HIPAA stands for:
Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act
64
provides the ability to transfer and continue health insurance coverage when you change or lose your job
HIPAA
65
HIPAA compliance reduces ____ and ____.
health care fraud and abuse
66
Mandates industry-wide standards for health care information on electronic billing and other processes
HIPAA compliance
67
HIPPA requires the protection and confidential handling of _____
protected health information
68
Health care providers and organizations must develop and follow procedures that ensure the confidentiality and security of PHI when it is ____, _____, _____, or ____/
transferred received handled shared
69
HIPAA compliance applies to all forms of PHI, including ____, ____, and ____
paper oral electronic
70
HIPAA allows the discussion of results with the patient and their physician, but NOT with anyone else unless the patient supplies:
written permission
71
Anonymous images are permitted for use in ____ and ____ setting.
research educational
72
image created by the varied amounts of radiation that pass through the tissues in the abdomen
CT scan
73
Different tissues, fluid, and air, have different ____ and are demonstrated as black, white, and shades of gray
densities
74
The color displayed on a CT image is determined by the:
radiopacity of the structure
75
Bone allows minimal radiation to pass through to reach the detector in a CT, making it a shade of:
white
76
Air allows all radiation to pass through to reach the detector in a CT scan, making it a shade of:
black
77
Shades of ___ in a CT image are related to the amount of radiation passing through the structure to reach the detector
gray
78
In a CT image, ____ tissues = darker gray
lower density
79
In a CT image, _____ tissue = light gray, white.
higher density
80
Air is ____ on a CT image
black
81
Air is very ____ density.
low
82
Radiation passes through ____ without attenuation
air
83
____ images share the same characteristics as CT images
X-ray
84
Images created by recording changes to the cells that occur with the introduction and cessation of magnetic waves
MRI
85
Because of the different ____ that can be performed in MRI, there is not a standard "color" for fluid and tissue
imaging sequences
86
MRI exams can be reviewed for other mass characteristics for comparison to ultrasound including:
mass location in relation to other structures mass contour mass composition
87
radioactive isotope is injected and the area of interest is evaluated for areas of increased uptake of the isotope
Nuclear medicine
88
Nuclear medicine can be used to evaluate ____, _____, _____, ____, _____, or ____
gallbladder function gastric emptying cardiac wall perfusion lung perfusion bone and brain tumors infection
89
Nuclear medicine is commonly used to evaluate the function of the ____ and suspected____ malignancy
thyroid thyroid
90
A hot thyroid nodule can be a ____ or ____
functional adenoma thyroiditis
91
A nodule that is overproducing thyroid hormone which attracts more of the isotope than the surrounding normal tissue
Hot thyroid nodule
92
A hot thyroid nodule is ____ malignant
rarely
93
nonfunctional nodule that does not demonstrate isotope uptake
cold thyroid nodule
94
A cold thyroid nodule looks like a:
hole in the gland
95
___% of cold thyroid nodules are malignant
20
96
iodinated contrast media injected into the vascular system
angiography
97
The contrast in an angiography causes ____ of the radiation and partial ____ of the lumen of the vessel
attenuation opacity
98
If a stenosis or thrombus is present in a vessel, the are of plaque/thrombus will demonstrate a _____ in the vessel in an angiography.
filling defect
99
In an angiography, contrast will be ____ in the area of the obstruction.
absent
100
Patient information required to enter into system
first and last name date of birth medical record number gender