Flashcard Davies Abdomen 5

1
Q

What is the most common cause of acute renal failure?

A

acute tubular necrosis

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2
Q

Causes of acute tubular necrosis

A

shock, trauma, sepsis, and drug toxicity

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3
Q

_____ and _____ may be seen associated with acute tubular necrosis

A

renal enlargement

increased resistive index

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4
Q

Sonographically, how is obstructive nephropathy differentiated from nonobstructive nephropathy?

A

Intrarenal resistivity index greater than 0.7 only relevant to acute obstruction

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5
Q

obstructive nephropathy is also known as

A

hydronephosis

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6
Q

Nonobstructive nephropathy will have resistivity index values of less than ____

A

0.7

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7
Q

Obstructive nephropathy will have resistivity index values of greater than ___

A

0.7

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8
Q

What genitourinary tract anomaly is commonly associated with a contralateral UPJ obstruction?

A

unilateral multicystic dysplastic kidney

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9
Q

Unilateral multicystic displastic kidney is commonly associated with a contralateral ______

A

ureteropelvic junction obstruction

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10
Q

most common cause of obstruction in patients with acute flank pain

A

renal calculi

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11
Q

Name three common locations within the urinary tract for obstruction from a renal calculi

A

ureterovesical junction

ureteropelvic junction

ureteric obstruction at level of pelvic inlet

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12
Q

What is the most common location for an obstruction from a renal calculi?

A

ureterovesical junction

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13
Q

a measurement used to evaluate renal transplants, assess suspected hydronephrosis, evaluate medical renal disease, and evaluate suspected renal neoplasms

A

resistive index

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14
Q

What is resistive index?

A

a measurement used to evaluate renal transplants, assess suspected hydronephrosis, evaluate medical renal disease, and evaluate suspected renal neoplasms

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15
Q

What is the formula for resistive index?

A

peak systolic frequency - end diastolic frequency / peak systolic frequency

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16
Q

peak systolic frequency - end diastolic frequency / peak systolic frequency

A

resistive index

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17
Q

Describe the waveform characteristics of the arterial side of an arteriovenous fistula

A

demonstrates an abnormally low resistive arterial flow pattern

a waveform with increased and sustained diastolic flow

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18
Q

Describe the waveform characteristics of the venous side of an arteriovenous fistula

A

a waveform with increased velocity, pulsatility and with spectral broadening due to turbulence

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19
Q

List four sonographic criteria for determining renal artery stenosis

A

kidney size less than 9 cm in length

peak main renal artery velocity > 180 cm/s

renal artery/aorta ratio >3.5

intrarenal parvus tardus waveform

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20
Q

Describe the sonographic appearance of a ureterocele

A

round, cystic structures that project into the bladder lumen at the ureterovesical junction

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21
Q

Ureteroceles appear as round, cystic structures that project into the bladder lumen at the ______

A

ureterovesical junction

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22
Q

Name the structure that connects the apex of the bladder to the umbilicus

A

median umbilical ligament (urachus)

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23
Q

The median umbilical ligament is also known as the:

A

urachus

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24
Q

The urachus is also known as the:

A

medial umbilical ligament

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25
The median umbilical ligament suspends the bladder by connecting the bladder's ___ to the ____
apex umbilicus
26
The urachus lies in the:
space of Retzius
27
What is the term that describes cystic dilatation of the urachus?
urachal cyst
28
Cystic dilatation of the median umbilical ligament is termed:
urachal cyst
29
A _____ is seen as an echo-free tubular structure in the lower abdomen that extends from the umbilicus to the dome of the bladder
urachal cyst
30
A urachal cyst is seen as an echo-free tubular structure in the lower abdomen that extends from the _____ to the ____
umbilicus dome of the bladder
31
What object is placed in the inferior vena cava to prevent the ascension of lower extremity thrombus into the lungs?
Inferior vena cava filters (Greenfield filter)
32
Inferior vena cava filters are also known as
Greenfield filter
33
Greenfield filters are also known as
Inferior vena cava filters
34
What is the purpose of an inferior vena cava filter?
prevent the ascension of thrombus into the lungs
35
What role can ultrasound play in the evaluation of IVC filters?
can determine the location of the inferior vena cava filter allows detection of complications
36
The proper placement of a Greenfield filter should be in a location:
inferior to the renal veins
37
Complications of Greenfield filters
thrombosis around the filter or perforation through the IVC wall, which may be associated with a retroperitonal hematoma
38
What is the sequence of branching renal arteries from the aorta to the renal capsule
main renal artery segmental arteries interlobar arteries arcuate arteries interlobar arteries
39
Which arteries of the kidneys are positioned between the medullary pyramids
interlobar arteries
40
Interlobar arteries are positioned:
between the medullary pyramids
41
Which arteries of the kidney are parallel to the base of the medullary pyramids
arcuate arteries
42
Arcuate arteries are located:
parallel to the base of the medullary pyramids
43
_____ is the most common organism causing an infection in AIDS patients.
Pneumocystic carinii
44
Pneumocystic carinii is the most common organism causing an infection in ____ patients.
AIDS
45
Name eight other disorders associated with AIDS patients
fatty liver infiltration hepatomegaly hepatitis non-Hodgkin's lymphoma candidiasis cholangitis cholecystitis Kaposi's sarcoma
46
What finding is a common complication of renal transplantation and gynecologic, vascular, or urological surgery?
lymphoceles
47
_____ are common complication of pelvic surgery
lymphoceles
48
Lymphoceles are common complications of ____ surgery
pelvis
49
Lymphoceles are caused by:
leakage of lymph from a renal allograft, or by surgical disruption of the lymphatic channels
50
leakage of lymph from a renal allograft, or by surgical disruption of the lymphatic channels
lymphoceles
51
What are the sonographic findings associated with acute rejection of a renal transplant?
enlarged transplant decreased cortical echogenicity indistinct corticomedullary boundary prominent hypoechoic medullary pyramids peritransplant fluid collections
52
Which laboratory value is most specific for hepatocellular damage?
Alanine aminotransferase (ALT)
53
Alanine aminotransferase was formerly known as
serum glutamic pyruvic transaminase (SGPT)
54
Alanine Aminotransferase (ALT) is present in high concentration within the ____.
hepatocytes
55
____ should be elevated in the presence of liver damage.
ALT
56
alanine aminotransferase should be elevated in the presence of
liver damage
57
Why is aspartate aminotransferase (AST) not specific for liver damage?
has a wide tissue distribution.
58
Aspartate aminotransferase is formerly known as:
serum glutamic oxaloacetic transiminase (SGOT)
59
AST has a wide tissue distribution. It is present in the tissues of the ___, ___, ____, _____, and _____
liver heart skeletal muscle kidney brain
60
With decreasing renal function, what two waste products increase in serum concentration?
Creatinine blood urea nitrogen
61
____ and _____ are waste products that are primarily removed from the blood by kidney filtration
creatinine blood urea nitrogen
62
Creatinine and blood urea nitrogen are waste products that are primarily removed from the blood by ______
kidney filtration
63
When renal function _____, creatinine and blood urea nitrogen serum concentrations increase.
decrease
64
Name three abdominal masses associated with the elevation of alpha-fetoprotein
hepatocellular carcinoma metastatic liver disease hepatoblastoma
65
Hepatocellular carcinoma, metastatic liver disease, and hepatoblastomas are three abdominal masses associated with elevation of what?
alpha-fetoprotein
66
What four factors are associated with the increase of prostate specific antigen (PSA) in the blood?
patient age prostate volume benign prostatic hypoplasia prostate cancer
67
Patient age, prostate volume, benign prostatic hyperplasia, and prostate cancer are four factors associated with increases in ______ in the blood.
prostate specific antigen (PSA)
68
The crus of the diaphram lies ____ to the aorta
anterior
69
The crus of the diaphragm lies ____ to the celiac axis.
superior
70
The crus of the diaphragm lies _____ to the inferior vena cava
posterior
71
The crus of the diaphragm lies ____ and ____ to the adrenal glands.
medial posterior
72
What three arteries supply the adrenal glands bilaterally?
suprarenal branch of the inferior phrenic artery suprarenal branch of the aorta suprarenal branch of the renal artery
73
The suprarenal branch of the inferior phrenic artery, suprarenal branch of the aorta, and the suprarenal branch of the renal artery supply the _____ bilaterally with arterial blood.
adrenal glands
74
Into which vessel does the right suprarenal (adrenal) vein drain?
directly into the inferior vena cava
75
The ___ suprarenal vein drains directly into the inferior vena cava
right
76
Into which vessel does the left suprarenal (adrenal) vein drain?
left renal vein
77
The ____ suprarenal vein drains into the left renal vein.
left
78
In what locations can pheochromocytomas be found?
adrenal medulla organ of Zuckerkandl near the aortic bifurcation paravertebral sympathetic ganglia
79
Pheochromocytomas cause hypersecretion of what substances?
catecholamines (dopamine, norephinephrine, and ephinephrine)
80
_____ cause hypersecretion of what substances?
catecholamines
81
Catecholamines
dopamine, norephinephrine, and epinephrine
82
What four criteria define a nonfunctioning cortical adenoma?
a unilateral mass no history of malignancy elsewhere no biochemical evidence of adrenal hyperfunctioning adrenal mass less than 3 cm in diameter
83
Name the three most common primary sources of carcinoma that metastasize to the adrenal gland.
lung breast melanoma
84
What tumor of the adrenal gland is seen as an echogenic mass with an associated propagation speed artifact?
adrenal myelolipomas
85
_____ are commonly seen as an echogenic mass in the adrenal bed
adrenal myelolipomas
86
What two tumors originate from the adrenal medulla.
pheochromocytoma neuroblastoma
87
Pheochromocytomas and neuroblastomas originate from the ____
adrenal medulla
88
Name the three compartments of the retroperitoneum
perirenal space anterior pararenal space posterior pararenal space
89
The perirenal space, anterior pararenal space, and posterior pararenal space are the three compartments of the:
retroperitoneum
90
Name structures that are retroperitoneal in location (11)
kidneys are ureters inferior vena cava pancreas ascending and descending colon lymph nodes bladder adrenal glands aorta portions of the duodenum prostate uterus
91
kidneys are ureters inferior vena cava pancreas ascending and descending colon lymph nodes bladder adrenal glands aorta portions of the duodenum prostate uterus
retroperitoneal
92
What are the three branches of the celiac axis?
common hepatic artery left gastric artery splenic artery
93
The common hepatic artery, left gastric artery, and the splenic artery are branches of the:
celiac axis
94
What is the definition of a true aortic aneurysm?
dilatation which involves all three layers of the aorta
95
dilatation which involves all three layers of the aorta
true aortic aneurysm
96
Most aortic aneurysms are in the _____, and usually do not involve the ____
distal aorta renal arteries
97
What are two different types of true aneurysms?
fusiform saccular
98
Spindle-shaped dilatation of the aorta
fusiform true aortic aneurysm
99
Localized spherical outpouching of the aortic wall
saccular true aortic aneurysm
100
What is the definition of a false aneurysm?
result from injury to the vessel wall where blood extravasates from the vessel. The blood surrounding the vessel is retained and walled off by the surrounding tissues.