Flashcard Davies Abdomen 5

1
Q

What is the most common cause of acute renal failure?

A

acute tubular necrosis

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2
Q

Causes of acute tubular necrosis

A

shock, trauma, sepsis, and drug toxicity

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3
Q

_____ and _____ may be seen associated with acute tubular necrosis

A

renal enlargement

increased resistive index

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4
Q

Sonographically, how is obstructive nephropathy differentiated from nonobstructive nephropathy?

A

Intrarenal resistivity index greater than 0.7 only relevant to acute obstruction

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5
Q

obstructive nephropathy is also known as

A

hydronephosis

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6
Q

Nonobstructive nephropathy will have resistivity index values of less than ____

A

0.7

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7
Q

Obstructive nephropathy will have resistivity index values of greater than ___

A

0.7

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8
Q

What genitourinary tract anomaly is commonly associated with a contralateral UPJ obstruction?

A

unilateral multicystic dysplastic kidney

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9
Q

Unilateral multicystic displastic kidney is commonly associated with a contralateral ______

A

ureteropelvic junction obstruction

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10
Q

most common cause of obstruction in patients with acute flank pain

A

renal calculi

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11
Q

Name three common locations within the urinary tract for obstruction from a renal calculi

A

ureterovesical junction

ureteropelvic junction

ureteric obstruction at level of pelvic inlet

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12
Q

What is the most common location for an obstruction from a renal calculi?

A

ureterovesical junction

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13
Q

a measurement used to evaluate renal transplants, assess suspected hydronephrosis, evaluate medical renal disease, and evaluate suspected renal neoplasms

A

resistive index

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14
Q

What is resistive index?

A

a measurement used to evaluate renal transplants, assess suspected hydronephrosis, evaluate medical renal disease, and evaluate suspected renal neoplasms

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15
Q

What is the formula for resistive index?

A

peak systolic frequency - end diastolic frequency / peak systolic frequency

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16
Q

peak systolic frequency - end diastolic frequency / peak systolic frequency

A

resistive index

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17
Q

Describe the waveform characteristics of the arterial side of an arteriovenous fistula

A

demonstrates an abnormally low resistive arterial flow pattern

a waveform with increased and sustained diastolic flow

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18
Q

Describe the waveform characteristics of the venous side of an arteriovenous fistula

A

a waveform with increased velocity, pulsatility and with spectral broadening due to turbulence

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19
Q

List four sonographic criteria for determining renal artery stenosis

A

kidney size less than 9 cm in length

peak main renal artery velocity > 180 cm/s

renal artery/aorta ratio >3.5

intrarenal parvus tardus waveform

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20
Q

Describe the sonographic appearance of a ureterocele

A

round, cystic structures that project into the bladder lumen at the ureterovesical junction

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21
Q

Ureteroceles appear as round, cystic structures that project into the bladder lumen at the ______

A

ureterovesical junction

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22
Q

Name the structure that connects the apex of the bladder to the umbilicus

A

median umbilical ligament (urachus)

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23
Q

The median umbilical ligament is also known as the:

A

urachus

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24
Q

The urachus is also known as the:

A

medial umbilical ligament

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25
Q

The median umbilical ligament suspends the bladder by connecting the bladder’s ___ to the ____

A

apex
umbilicus

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26
Q

The urachus lies in the:

A

space of Retzius

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27
Q

What is the term that describes cystic dilatation of the urachus?

A

urachal cyst

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28
Q

Cystic dilatation of the median umbilical ligament is termed:

A

urachal cyst

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29
Q

A _____ is seen as an echo-free tubular structure in the lower abdomen that extends from the umbilicus to the dome of the bladder

A

urachal cyst

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30
Q

A urachal cyst is seen as an echo-free tubular structure in the lower abdomen that extends from the _____ to the ____

A

umbilicus
dome of the bladder

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31
Q

What object is placed in the inferior vena cava to prevent the ascension of lower extremity thrombus into the lungs?

A

Inferior vena cava filters (Greenfield filter)

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32
Q

Inferior vena cava filters are also known as

A

Greenfield filter

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33
Q

Greenfield filters are also known as

A

Inferior vena cava filters

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34
Q

What is the purpose of an inferior vena cava filter?

A

prevent the ascension of thrombus into the lungs

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35
Q

What role can ultrasound play in the evaluation of IVC filters?

A

can determine the location of the inferior vena cava filter

allows detection of complications

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36
Q

The proper placement of a Greenfield filter should be in a location:

A

inferior to the renal veins

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37
Q

Complications of Greenfield filters

A

thrombosis around the filter or perforation through the IVC wall, which may be associated with a retroperitonal hematoma

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38
Q

What is the sequence of branching renal arteries from the aorta to the renal capsule

A

main renal artery
segmental arteries
interlobar arteries
arcuate arteries
interlobar arteries

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39
Q

Which arteries of the kidneys are positioned between the medullary pyramids

A

interlobar arteries

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40
Q

Interlobar arteries are positioned:

A

between the medullary pyramids

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41
Q

Which arteries of the kidney are parallel to the base of the medullary pyramids

A

arcuate arteries

42
Q

Arcuate arteries are located:

A

parallel to the base of the medullary pyramids

43
Q

_____ is the most common organism causing an infection in AIDS patients.

A

Pneumocystic carinii

44
Q

Pneumocystic carinii is the most common organism causing an infection in ____ patients.

45
Q

Name eight other disorders associated with AIDS patients

A

fatty liver infiltration

hepatomegaly

hepatitis

non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma

candidiasis

cholangitis

cholecystitis

Kaposi’s sarcoma

46
Q

What finding is a common complication of renal transplantation and gynecologic, vascular, or urological surgery?

A

lymphoceles

47
Q

_____ are common complication of pelvic surgery

A

lymphoceles

48
Q

Lymphoceles are common complications of ____ surgery

49
Q

Lymphoceles are caused by:

A

leakage of lymph from a renal allograft, or by surgical disruption of the lymphatic channels

50
Q

leakage of lymph from a renal allograft, or by surgical disruption of the lymphatic channels

A

lymphoceles

51
Q

What are the sonographic findings associated with acute rejection of a renal transplant?

A

enlarged transplant

decreased cortical echogenicity

indistinct corticomedullary boundary

prominent hypoechoic medullary pyramids

peritransplant fluid collections

52
Q

Which laboratory value is most specific for hepatocellular damage?

A

Alanine aminotransferase (ALT)

53
Q

Alanine aminotransferase was formerly known as

A

serum glutamic pyruvic transaminase (SGPT)

54
Q

Alanine Aminotransferase (ALT) is present in high concentration within the ____.

A

hepatocytes

55
Q

____ should be elevated in the presence of liver damage.

56
Q

alanine aminotransferase should be elevated in the presence of

A

liver damage

57
Q

Why is aspartate aminotransferase (AST) not specific for liver damage?

A

has a wide tissue distribution.

58
Q

Aspartate aminotransferase is formerly known as:

A

serum glutamic oxaloacetic transiminase (SGOT)

59
Q

AST has a wide tissue distribution. It is present in the tissues of the ___, ___, ____, _____, and _____

A

liver
heart
skeletal muscle
kidney
brain

60
Q

With decreasing renal function, what two waste products increase in serum concentration?

A

Creatinine
blood urea nitrogen

61
Q

____ and _____ are waste products that are primarily removed from the blood by kidney filtration

A

creatinine
blood urea nitrogen

62
Q

Creatinine and blood urea nitrogen are waste products that are primarily removed from the blood by ______

A

kidney filtration

63
Q

When renal function _____, creatinine and blood urea nitrogen serum concentrations increase.

64
Q

Name three abdominal masses associated with the elevation of alpha-fetoprotein

A

hepatocellular carcinoma

metastatic liver disease

hepatoblastoma

65
Q

Hepatocellular carcinoma, metastatic liver disease, and hepatoblastomas are three abdominal masses associated with elevation of what?

A

alpha-fetoprotein

66
Q

What four factors are associated with the increase of prostate specific antigen (PSA) in the blood?

A

patient age

prostate volume

benign prostatic hypoplasia

prostate cancer

67
Q

Patient age, prostate volume, benign prostatic hyperplasia, and prostate cancer are four factors associated with increases in ______ in the blood.

A

prostate specific antigen (PSA)

68
Q

The crus of the diaphram lies ____ to the aorta

69
Q

The crus of the diaphragm lies ____ to the celiac axis.

70
Q

The crus of the diaphragm lies _____ to the inferior vena cava

71
Q

The crus of the diaphragm lies ____ and ____ to the adrenal glands.

A

medial
posterior

72
Q

What three arteries supply the adrenal glands bilaterally?

A

suprarenal branch of the inferior phrenic artery

suprarenal branch of the aorta

suprarenal branch of the renal artery

73
Q

The suprarenal branch of the inferior phrenic artery, suprarenal branch of the aorta, and the suprarenal branch of the renal artery supply the _____ bilaterally with arterial blood.

A

adrenal glands

74
Q

Into which vessel does the right suprarenal (adrenal) vein drain?

A

directly into the inferior vena cava

75
Q

The ___ suprarenal vein drains directly into the inferior vena cava

76
Q

Into which vessel does the left suprarenal (adrenal) vein drain?

A

left renal vein

77
Q

The ____ suprarenal vein drains into the left renal vein.

78
Q

In what locations can pheochromocytomas be found?

A

adrenal medulla

organ of Zuckerkandl near the aortic bifurcation

paravertebral sympathetic ganglia

79
Q

Pheochromocytomas cause hypersecretion of what substances?

A

catecholamines (dopamine, norephinephrine, and ephinephrine)

80
Q

_____ cause hypersecretion of what substances?

A

catecholamines

81
Q

Catecholamines

A

dopamine, norephinephrine, and epinephrine

82
Q

What four criteria define a nonfunctioning cortical adenoma?

A

a unilateral mass

no history of malignancy elsewhere

no biochemical evidence of adrenal hyperfunctioning

adrenal mass less than 3 cm in diameter

83
Q

Name the three most common primary sources of carcinoma that metastasize to the adrenal gland.

A

lung
breast
melanoma

84
Q

What tumor of the adrenal gland is seen as an echogenic mass with an associated propagation speed artifact?

A

adrenal myelolipomas

85
Q

_____ are commonly seen as an echogenic mass in the adrenal bed

A

adrenal myelolipomas

86
Q

What two tumors originate from the adrenal medulla.

A

pheochromocytoma

neuroblastoma

87
Q

Pheochromocytomas and neuroblastomas originate from the ____

A

adrenal medulla

88
Q

Name the three compartments of the retroperitoneum

A

perirenal space

anterior pararenal space

posterior pararenal space

89
Q

The perirenal space, anterior pararenal space, and posterior pararenal space are the three compartments of the:

A

retroperitoneum

90
Q

Name structures that are retroperitoneal in location (11)

A

kidneys are ureters

inferior vena cava

pancreas

ascending and descending colon

lymph nodes

bladder

adrenal glands

aorta

portions of the duodenum

prostate

uterus

91
Q

kidneys are ureters

inferior vena cava

pancreas

ascending and descending colon

lymph nodes

bladder

adrenal glands

aorta

portions of the duodenum

prostate

uterus

A

retroperitoneal

92
Q

What are the three branches of the celiac axis?

A

common hepatic artery

left gastric artery

splenic artery

93
Q

The common hepatic artery, left gastric artery, and the splenic artery are branches of the:

A

celiac axis

94
Q

What is the definition of a true aortic aneurysm?

A

dilatation which involves all three layers of the aorta

95
Q

dilatation which involves all three layers of the aorta

A

true aortic aneurysm

96
Q

Most aortic aneurysms are in the _____, and usually do not involve the ____

A

distal aorta

renal arteries

97
Q

What are two different types of true aneurysms?

A

fusiform

saccular

98
Q

Spindle-shaped dilatation of the aorta

A

fusiform true aortic aneurysm

99
Q

Localized spherical outpouching of the aortic wall

A

saccular true aortic aneurysm

100
Q

What is the definition of a false aneurysm?

A

result from injury to the vessel wall where blood extravasates from the vessel. The blood surrounding the vessel is retained and walled off by the surrounding tissues.