Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

ARDMS > Flashcards Davies Abdomen 7 > Flashcards

Flashcards Davies Abdomen 7

1
Q

Where is the undescended testicle usually found?

A

80% lie at level of inguinal canal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what are two complications of cryptorchordism?

A

infertility
cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are symptoms of acute appendicitis?

A

periumbilical pain
leukocytosis
fever
right lower quadrant pain with rebound tenderness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

How does acute appendicitis develop?

A

from the obstruction of the appendiceal lumen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Obstruction of the appendiceal lumen

A

acute appendicitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are the sonographic signs of an inflamed appendix?

A

appendix greater than 6 mm in diameter or an appendicloth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are the symptoms of acutre diverticulitis?

A

LLQ pain
fever
leukocytosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are the sonographic signs of acute diverticulitis?

A

thickened bowel, or abscess formation in the LLQ

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is a target of pseudokidney sign?

A

describes abnormal bowel wall thickening. Appears as a hypoechoic external rim representing the thickened intestinal wall and an echogenic center relating to the residual gut lumen or mucosal ulceration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

describes abnormal bowel wall thickening. Appears as a hypoechoic external rim representing the thickened intestinal wall and an echogenic center relating to the residual gut lumen or mucosal ulceration

A

target or pseudokidney sign

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are the signs of hypertrophic pyloric stenosis?

A

characterized by hypertrophy of the circular pyloric muscle, resulting in elongation and constriction of the intestines between the stomach and the first portion of the duodenum. Neonates present with projectile vomiting, and a palpable “olive-like” abdominal mass.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

characterized by hypertrophy of the circular pyloric muscle, resulting in elongation and constriction of the intestines between the stomach and the first portion of the duodenum. Neonates present with projectile vomiting, and a palpable “olive-like” abdominal mass.

A

hypertrophic pyloric stenosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

A pyloric muscle thickness of > ____ is indicative of hypertrophic pyloric stenosis

A

4 mm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

A pyloric channel length of > ____ is indicative of hypertrophic pyloric stenosis

A

1.2 cm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

A pyloric cross section of > ____ is indicative of hypertrophic pyloric stenosis.

A

1.5 cm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

An _____ is the most common cause of obstruction in infants.

A

intussception

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are the symptoms of intussception?

A

crampy, intermittent abdominal pain

vomiting

passage of blood through the rectum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the sonographic appearance of an intussception?

A

oval, pseudokidney mass, with central echoes on longitudinal imaging, and a sonolucent doughnut or target configuration on cross-sectional imaging

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

oval, pseudokidney mass, with central echoes on longitudinal imaging, and a sonolucent doughnut or target configuration on cross-sectional imaging

A

intussception

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Name the four zones of the prostate

A

peripheral zone
central zone
transition zone
fibromusclar stroma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What zone of the prostate is the source of most prostate cancer

A

peripheral zone (approx 70%)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the classic appearance of prostate cancer on ultrasound?

A

hypoechoic, peripherally-oriented lesion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What zone of the prostate is not affected by cancer?

A

fibromuscular stroma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

non-glandular, anterior portion of the prostate

A

fibromuscular stroma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Fibromuscular stroma is not affected by ____, _____, or _____

A

cancer

prostatitis

hyperplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

The ______ zone of the prostate is not affected by cancer, prostatitis, or hyperplasia because it is non-glandular.

A

fibromuscular stroma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Describe benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH)

A

enlargement of the inner gland, which is hypoechoic relative to the peripheral zone.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

enlargement of the inner gland, which is hypoechoic relative to the peripheral zone

A

benign prostatic hyperplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

benign prostatic hyperplasia is enlargement of the inner gland, which is hypoechoic relative to the _____

A

peripheral zone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Benign prostatic hyperplasia is enlargement of the inner gland, which is _____ relative to the peripheral zone

A

hypoechoic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

BPH originates exclusively from the _____.

A

inner gland

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

____ originates exclusively from the inner gland.

A

BPH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

__% of all BPH arises in the transition zone.

A

95

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

95% of all BPH arises in the ______

A

transition zone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

__% of BPH arises from the periurethral glands or tissue

A

5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

5% of BPH arises from the ______

A

periurethral glands or tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

The ejaculatory ducts pass through the ____ and empties into the urethra.

A

central zone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

The _______ pass through the central zone and empties into the urethra.

A

ejaculatory ducts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

The ejaculatory ducts pass through the central zone and empties into the _____

A

urethra

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

______ are two sac-like out-pouchings of the vas deferens situated adjacent to the superior/posterior aspect of the prostate between the urinary bladder and the rectum

A

seminal vesicles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Seminal vesicles are two sac-like out-pouchings of the _____ situated adjacent to the superior/posterior aspect of the prostate between the urinary bladder and the rectum.

A

vas deferens

42
Q

Seminal vesicles are two sac-like out-pouchings of the vas deferens situated adjacent to the _______ aspect of the prostate between the urinary bladder and the rectum.

A

superior/posterior

43
Q

Seminal vesicles are two sac-like out-pouchings of the vas deferens situated adjacent to the superior/posterior aspect of the _____ between the urinary bladder and the rectum.

44
Q

Seminal vesicles are two sac-like out-pouchings of the vas deferens situated adjacent to the superior/posterior aspect of the prostate between the _____ and the rectum

A

urinary bladder

45
Q

Seminal vesicles are two sac-like out-pouchings of the vas deferens situated adjacent to the superior/posterior aspect of the prostate between the urinary bladder and the ____

46
Q

The base of the prostate is the _____ portion of the gland.

47
Q

The ____ of the prostate is the superior portion of the gland.

48
Q

The apex of the prostate is the _____ portion of the gland.

49
Q

The ____ of the prostate is the inferior portion of the gland.

50
Q

The demarcation between the inner gland and the outer gland is called the ____

A

surgical capsule

51
Q

What is the surgical capsule of the prostate gland

A

demarcation between the inner gland and the outer gland

52
Q

The prostate is situated in the ______

A

retroperitoneum

53
Q

The prostate is bordered anteriorly by the _____

A

pubic bone

54
Q

The prostate is bordered _____ by the pubic bone

A

anteriorly

55
Q

The prostate is bordered posteriorly by the _____

56
Q

The prostate is bordered _____ by the rectum

A

posteriorly

57
Q

The prostate is bordered ______ by the bladder

A

superiorly

58
Q

The prostate is bordered superiorly by the _____

59
Q

The prostate is bordered _____ by the urogenital diaphragm

A

inferiorly

60
Q

The prostate is bordered inferiorly by the ______

A

urogenital diaphragm

61
Q

Describe Prostrate Specific antigen (PSA)

A

produced exclusively by prostatic acinar cells, and rises in relationship to the amount of benign and/or malignant tissue

62
Q

PSA is produced exclusively by ______

A

prostatic acinar cells

63
Q

____ is produced exclusively by prostatic acinar cells

64
Q

PSA will rise with _____, _____, ____, and/or _____

A

patient age
prostate volume
benign prostatic hyperplasia
prostate cancer

65
Q

______ will elevate the PSA level approximately 10 times that of benign prostatic hyperplasia

A

prostate cancer

66
Q

Prostate cancer will elevate the PSA level approximately ___ times that of benign prostatic hyperplasia

67
Q

Prostate cancer will elevate the PSA level approximately 10 times that of ______

A

benign prostatic hyperplasia

68
Q

What is the name of the anatomical point where the posterior sheath of the rectus muscle ends

A

arcuate line

69
Q

Above the ______, hematomas are confined within the anterior and posterior rectus sheath

A

arcuate line

70
Q

Above the arcuate line, _____ are confined within the anterior and posterior rectus sheath

71
Q

Above the arcuate line, hematomas are confined within the ____ and _____ _______

A

anterior and posterior rectus sheath

72
Q

Below the _____, hematomas protrude posteriorly into the pelvis due to the absence of posterior rectus sheath

A

arcuate line

73
Q

Below the arcuate line, _____ protrude posteriorly into the pelvis due tot he absence of the posterior rectus sheath

74
Q

Below the arucate line, hematomas protrude _____ in to the pelvis due to the absence of the posterior rectus sheath

A

posteriorly

75
Q

Below the arcuate line, hematomas protrude posteriorly into the ____ due to the absence of the posterior rectus sheath

76
Q

Below the arcuate line, hematomas protrude posteriorly into the pelvis due to the absence of the ______

A

posterior rectus sheath

77
Q

What is an abcess?

A

complex collections contains cystic and solid components.

78
Q

complex collections contains cystic and solid components.

79
Q

In most cases, ____, ____, and ____ are seen within an abscess

A

debris
septations
gas

80
Q

The borders of an abscess are typically _____, and may be quite ____

A

irregular
thick

81
Q

Depending on their cystic component, abscesses typically demonstrate ______

A

posterior enhancement

82
Q

Clinically, patients with abscesses should present with ____ and _____

A

fever
leukocytosis

83
Q

What is the etiology of a lymphocele?

A

leakage of lymph due to surgical disruption of lymphatic channels

84
Q

leakage of lymph due to surgical disruption of lymphatic channels

A

lymphocele

85
Q

complications of renal transplantation and gynecologic, vascular or urological surgery

A

lymphoceles

86
Q

What are lymphoceles.

A

complications of renal transplantation and gynecologic, vascular, or urological surgery

87
Q

What are some possible causes of urinomas?

A

renal trauma
renal surgery
obstructing lesion

88
Q

What two conditions are commonly associated with urinomas?

A

renal transplantation
posterior urethral valve obstruction

89
Q

Describe the sonographic appearance of a hematoma

A

variable, and depends on age of collection.

90
Q

Most hematomas are initially seen as echogenic collections because of _____

A

rapid fibrin invasion

91
Q

Gradual hemolysis of a hematoma eventually creates an ____ appearance in a hematoma

92
Q

_____ are often associated with long-standing hematomas

A

calcifications

93
Q

What is hematocrit?

A

the percentage of red blood cells per volume of blood

94
Q

the percentage of red blood cells per volume of blood

A

hematocrit

95
Q

A normal hematocrit ranges from ___- ____%

96
Q

A low hematocrit level indicates:

A

red blood cell loss

97
Q

Low hematocrit can be caused by many factors including _____, _____, and ______

A

internal bleeding

iron deficiency

external blood loss

98
Q

What is a Baker’s cyst?

A

a collection of synovial fluid which is found in the popliteal fossa

99
Q

a collection of synovial fluid which in found in the popliteal fossa

A

Baker’s cyst

100
Q

Baker’s cysts are commonly located in:

A

medial aspect of popliteal fossa

ARDMS (12 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions