URR 2 Flashcards

1
Q

State and federal regulations prohibit the use of a patient’s ____ as an identifier on imaging exams.

A

social security number

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

The _____ is created by each facility to identify the specific patient

A

medical record number

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

____ frequency probes are used for thinner patients and superficial vessels.

A

higher

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Extremity, neck, scrotum, and superficial exams use _____ probe

A

linear array

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Abdominal exams used ____, ____, ____ probes.

A

phased array
curved array
vector array

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Position the machine to allow your arm to be extended and abducted to a ____ degree with the wrist extended (NOT flexed)

A

minimal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Choose a seat that allows your knees to fall below the level of your ____; this aids in proper spine positioning and posture during the exam.

A

hips

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Verify the patients ____ and ____ prior to starting the exam.

A

patient name
date of birth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

When performing exams on inpatients, use the patient _____ to verify the patient name and MRN, NOT THE CHART.

A

wrist band

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Optimal images on any type of abdominal vasculature exam require the patient to be NPO ____ prior to the exma

A

6-8

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

NPO status helps with:

A

reduction of bowel gas
allows gallbladder to fill with bile
decrease peristalsis in GI tract

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

10 examples of critical findings

A

emphysematous pyelonephritis

bacterial cholangitis

splenic artery aneurysm

fournier gangrene

testicular torsion

testicular rupture

aortic aneurysm >5.5 cm or suspected rupture

acute hematoma of an organ related to traumatic injury

pseudoaneurysm or active bleed

venous thrombosis or the hepatic veins, IVC, or iliac veins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

RUQ

A

right upper quadrant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

RLQ

A

right lower quadrant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

LUQ

A

left upper quadrant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

LLQ

A

left lower quadrant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Abdomen is divided by sagittal plane crossing through:

A

midline at umbilicus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Abdomen is divided by transverse plane crossing through the:

A

abdomen at level of umbilicus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Addison’s nine regions

A

right hypochondrium
epigastric
left hypochondrium
Right lumbar
umbilical
left lumbar
right iliac
hypogastric
left iliac

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Right hypochondrium region contains:

A

liver, gallbladder, hepatic flexure of colon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Epigastric region contains:

A

pancreas, stomach, transverse colon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Left hypochondrium contains;

A

spleen, stomach, upper pole of left kidney

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

right lumbar region contains:

A

right kidney, ascending colon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Umbilical region contains:

A

transverse colon, small bowel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Left lumbar region contains:

A

left kidney (mid/lower poles), descending colon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Right iliac region contains:

A

ovary, seminal vesicle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Hypogastric region contains:

A

bladder, uterus, prostate, rectum, sigmoid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Left iliac region contains:

A

ovary, seminal vesicle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Planes used to evaluate organs/structures

A

transverse
sagittal
coronal
oblique

30
Q

____, ____, and ____ positions are useful in evaluating the abdominal organs, especially the gallbladder

A

decubitus, oblique, erect

31
Q

Suspected polyp in the gallbladder with patient supine, place patient in ____ position to evaluate the polyp for motion.

32
Q

Aortic bifurcation is “gassed out” from an anterior abdominal approach, roll patient into ___ or ___ position and use a lateral probe approach to angle behind the intestinal gas to visualize the aorta

A

oblique
decubitus

33
Q

Right kidney is “gassed out” from an anterior abdominal approach, roll patient into _____ position for a coronal view of the right kidney

A

left decubitus

34
Q

Suspected varicocele or inguinal hernia, ask the patient to ____ to fill the veins due to hydrostatic pressure and gravity effects on hernia

35
Q

Pregnant patients may need to be scanned in the _____ position to prevent the uterus from compressing vascular (IVC).

A

left lateral decubitus

36
Q

Administration of ____ can be used to reduce gas in the stomach and the duodenum while providing an acoustic window to better visualize the pancreas and surrounding structures.

37
Q

ultrasound evaluation used to enhance patient care during a specific encounter or procedure

A

point of care ultrasonography

38
Q

focused evaluation used to answer a specific question

A

point of care ultrasonography

39
Q

FAST evaluation

A

focused assessment with sonography in trauma

40
Q

used to evaluate the abdomen for fluid or blood in trauma patients in the emergency room

A

FAST evaluation

41
Q

FAST evaluation of heart probe placement

A

subxiphoid or parasternal

42
Q

FAST evaluation of RUQ probe placement

A

midaxillary line between 8th and 12th rib

43
Q

FAST evaluation of LUQ probe placement

A

midaxillary line between 8th and 12th rib

44
Q

Cardiac POCUS evaluates for:

A

pericardial fluid and impaired function

cardiac motion with pulseless electrical activity

45
Q

Severe fluid collection around heart can lead to _____ which requires immediate intervention

A

cardiac tamponade

46
Q

Thorax POCUS is preferred over chest x-ray for diagnosis of:

A

pneumothorax

47
Q

Normal pleural layers _______ during respiration

A

slide back and forth over each other

48
Q

The ___ sign or ____ sign should be easily visible in normal patients

A

gliding
sliding

49
Q

_____ artifacts should be visualized at the pleural interface and move with respiration

A

comet tail

50
Q

Seashore sign

A

normal sliding during respiration gives the appearance of a sandy beach with rolling waves on M-mode

51
Q

absent sliding causes parallel lines on M-mode that do not change with respiration indicative of pneumothorax and is the ____ sign

52
Q

Vascular POCUS of aorta

A

aneurysm assessment

53
Q

Vascular POCUS IVC

A

dilatation, respiratory collapse

54
Q

Vascular POCUS helps show placement of:

A

vascular catheter

55
Q

Vascular POCUS of extremity veins

A

thrombosis

56
Q

A sonographer can discuss the patient exam results with:
A. the patient
B. the patient’s caregiver
C. the patient’s spouse
D. none of these

57
Q

Which of the following patients should be NPO for their exam?
A. thyroid biopsy
B. renal duplex examination
C. Scrotal ultrasound
D. Breast biopsy

58
Q

What is the proper order for putting on PPE?

A

gown, mask, goggles, gloves

59
Q

What is the proper order for removing PPE?

A

gloves, goggles, gown, mask

60
Q

MRSA requires _____ precautions and tuberculosis requires ____ precautions

A

contact, airborne

61
Q

What is the purpose of HIPAA?

A

to require the protection and confidential handling of protected health information

62
Q

An air-filled structure on a CT exam will be represented by what color on the image?

63
Q

A bony structure on a CT exam will be represented by what color on the image?

64
Q

Which of the following must be performed at the start of any procedure or ultrasound exam?
a. enter the patient’s social security number into the imaging equipment
b. ask the patient to sign an informed consent form for complications
c. ask the patient to wash their hands
d. confirm the patient identity

65
Q

A hot nodule of nuclear medicine means:

A

the nodule demonstrated a rapid uptake of the radioactive tracer

66
Q

If a stenosis is present on an angiography exam, how will it be displayed on the image?

A

an area of absence of contrast

67
Q

Which of the following is a critical finding on an ultrasound exam?
a. fundal gallstone
b. 3cm AAA
c. testicular torsion
d. chronic cholecystitis

68
Q

Which of the following exams would be improved by scanning the patient in the standing position?
a. scrotal varicocele
b. possible impacted gallstone
c. inguinal hernia
d. all of the above

69
Q

Which of the following patients would benefit from a FAST examination?
a. patient with history of RUQ pain after eating
b. patient with abdominal bruit, weight loss, and post prandial pain
c. patient with history of abdominal pain after a fall from a ladder yesterday
d. patient with suspected prostate cancer