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ARRT abdomen 11 Flashcards

1
Q

blinded ended tube extending from cecum

A

vermiform appendix

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2
Q

most common cause of acute abdominal pain resulting in surgery

A

acute appendicitis

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3
Q

Where is the McBurney point?

A

RLQ between anterior superior iliac spine and umbilicus

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4
Q

The McBurney point is associated with what pathology?

A

acute appendicitis

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5
Q

Clinical symptoms of acute appendicitis:

A

rebound pain at McBurney point
fever
nausea vomiting
leukocytosis

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6
Q

Sonographic appearance of acute appendicitis

A

non-compressible blind ended tube
>6mm in diameter
hyperemia
may also have appendicloth

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7
Q

Hypertrophic pyloric stenosis is also called:

A

gastric outlet obstruction

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8
Q

enlargement or thickening of the pyloric sphincter

A

hypertrophic pyloric stenosis

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9
Q

channel that empties into the duodenum

A

hypertrophic pyloric stenosis

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10
Q

Hypertrophic pyloric stenosis is most commonly seen in:

A

male patients less than 2 months old

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11
Q

clinical symptoms of hypertrophic pyloric stenosis

A

projectile, non-bilious vomiting
palpable olive sign
weight loss
dehydration

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12
Q

Sonographic appearance of hypertrophic pyloric stenosis

A

pyloric wall measuring more than or equal to 3mm
Channel measuring more than or equal to 17 mm
“cervix” sign in long axis view
“target” sign in short axis view

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13
Q

In hypertrophic pyloric stenosis the pyloric wall measures more than or equal to:

A

3mm

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14
Q

In hypertrophic pyloric stenosis the channel will measure more than or equal to:

A

17mm

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15
Q

Hypertrophic pyloric stenosis sign in long axis view

A

cervix sign

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16
Q

Hypertrophic pyloric stenosis sign in short axis view

A

target sign

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17
Q

In hypertrophic pyloric stenosis, the fluid will not move from the ___ through the _____

A

stomach
channel

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18
Q

small bowel “twisted” or rotated abnormally around SMA; clinically similar to pyloric stenosis, but with bilious vomiting; upper GI radiography used for diagnosis

A

midgut malrotation/volvulus

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19
Q

telescoping of one part of bowel into another

A

intussception

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20
Q

most common intestinal obstruction in pediatrics less than 2 years old

A

intussception

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21
Q

Most common location for intussception

A

ileocolic (RLQ)

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22
Q

Clinical symptoms of intussception

A

abdominal pain
red currant jelly stools
vomiting (bilious)

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23
Q

Sonographic appearance of intussception

A

non-compressible target sign with rings
danger of blood flow being interrupted

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24
Q

non-compressible target sign with rings

A

cinnamon bun sign

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25
blood flow being interrupted in the small bowel
bowel ischemia
26
abdominal distention and fluid filled loops of bowel
intestinal obstruction
27
Mechanical intestinal obstruction
physical blockage increased peristalsis noted
28
Non-mechanical intestinal obstruction
paralytic ileus functional problem lack of peristalsis
29
most common inflammatory disease of small bowel
Crohn's disease
30
inflammation of the small outpouchings in bowel
diverticulitis
31
Most common location of diverticulitis
colon
32
The abdominal wall consists of paired _____ covered by ____
rectus abdominis muscles rectus sheath
33
The rectus abdominus muscles are connected in the center by:
linea alba
34
fibrous band that runs vertical in the midline
linea alba
35
rupture of rectus abdominis muscle due to trauma, blood collection will be found within sheath
rectus sheath hematoma
36
interruption or defect in continuity of linea alba
linea alba hernia
37
Hernia can be ___, ___, or ____
fat fluid bowel
38
When something goes into an area it's not supposed to _____ can be useful as it will "push" it further into wherever its herniated
valsalva
39
Where is a linea alba hernia located?
midline superior to umbilicus/epigastrium
40
Where is spigelian hernia located?
spontaneous lateral/ventral/inferior to umbilicus
41
Where is inguinal hernia located?
groin (direct) scrotum (indirect)
42
Where is umbilical hernia located?
protrudes into umbilicus
43
Normal lungs are not seen on ultrasound due to:
air
44
The pleural space is superior to the:
diaphragm
45
fluid within the pleural space, around the lung
pleural effusion
46
In a pleural effusion, fluid is dependent, so in the supine patient it will be seen in:
the corner superior to diaphragm
47
Pleural effusion is ___ to the diaphragm
superior
48
Ascites is ____ to the diaphragm
inferior
49
Fluid next to diaphragm on superior side
pleural effusion
50
Fluid between diaphragm and liver or spleen
ascites
51
procedure done under US guidance to drain fluid in thorax
thoracentesis
52
Patient positioning for thoracentesis
sitting position, leaning forward
53
Thorax is typically drained from ____ approach in largest pocket, avoiding lung.
posterior
54
free air within chest
pneumothorax
55
lungs filled with fluid, inflammation, or tumor and no longer filled with air
lung consolidation
56
lymph node enlargement >1 cm
lymphadenopathy
57
Aorta and IVC sandwiched between lymphadenopathy
"sandwich" sign
58
When inside great vessel compartment, lymphadenopathy causes displacement of the aorta and IVC ____
anteriorly
59
fibrous hypoechoic thickening of retroperitoneum
retroperitoneal fibrosis
60
Retroperitoneal fibrous is most often seen:
anterior to abdominal aorta
61
When retroperitoneal fibrosis is found, the kidneys should be checked for:
hydronephrosis
62
Most common location of retroperitoneal hematoma
psoas muscle
63
The psoas muscle is located:
posterior to kidney
64
clinical symptoms of retroperitoneal hematoma
decreased hematocrit
65
salivary glands are ____ glands
exocrine
66
exocrine glands that produce saliva
salivary glands
67
3 paired glands make up the salivary glands:
parotids submandibular sublingual
68
Largest of 3 paired glands that make up salivary glands
parotids
69
The ____ are located anterior to ears, extending inferiorly
parotid glands
70
Normal sonographic appearance of salivary glands
hyperechoic to surrounding muscles
71
The thyroid is an _____ gland.
endocrine
72
The thyroid is primarily responsible for:
regulating metabolism
73
The ____ send TSH to regulate thyroid hormone production
pituitary gland
74
The anterior pituitary releases:
thyroid stimulating hormone
75
The thyroid + ____ produces thyroxine T4, Triiodothyronine T3, and calcitonin.
iodine
76
The thyroid +iodine produces ____, ____, and ____
thyroxine T4 Triiodothyronine T3 Calcitonin
77
The superior thyroid artery arises from the _____ lateral to the thyroid.
external carotid artery
78
The inferior thyroid artery arises from ______
subclavian artery
79
superior extension of the isthmus
pyramidal lobe
80
The thyroid is ____ and _____ compared to adjacent muscles
homogeneous echogenic
81
The isthmus normally measures up to ___ but normal is up to ___
6mm 10mm
82
The esophagus can be distinguished from a mass by:
having the patient swallow
83
Strap muscles
sternohyoid sternothyroid
84
The strap muscles are located ____ to each side of thyroid.
strap muscles
85
The _____ are located lateral to each side of thyroid.
sternocleidomastoid
86
The _____ muscles are located posterior to each side of thyroid.
longus colli
87
The common carotid artery is located ____ to each side of thyroid.
lateral
88
The ____ is located posterior to isthmus
trachea
89
The ______ glands are located posterior to each side of thyroid.
parathyroid
90
The nerves are located _____ to each side of thyroid.
posteromedial
91
The _____ is located posteromedial to left side of neck.
esophagus
92
superior extension of isthmus
pyramidal lobe
93
general term for enlarged thyroid
goiter
94
The isthmus is considered thickened if measures over
10 mm
95
Goiter may be caused by ___, ____, or _____
iodine deficiency Grave's disease Hashimoto's disease
96
Clinical symptoms of goiter
palpable swelling feeling of tightness hoarse voice
97
Sonographic appearance of goiter
diffusely heterogeneous with isthmus >10mm
98
Graves disease is also known as:
diffuse toxic goiter
99
Most common cause of hyperthyroidism
Graves disease
100
refers to hypervascularity that is characteristic to Graves disease or hyperthyroidism
thyroid inferno

ARDMS (61 decks)

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