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Pathophysiology > Unit 13 Chapter 43, 45, 46 > Flashcards

Unit 13 Chapter 43, 45, 46 Flashcards

1
Q

spermatogenesis

A

Generation of spermatozoa or sperm

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2
Q

when does spermatogenesis begin

A

13

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3
Q

sperm is formed in

A

seminiferous tubules

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4
Q

sperm travels through ________ __________ to epididymis

A

efferent ductules

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5
Q

where is the final site of sperm maturation

A

epididymis

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6
Q

the migration through _____ _________

A

vas deferens

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7
Q

what is the storage reservoir for sperm

A

ampulla

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8
Q

how long does fertility continues after vasectomy

A

4-5 weeks

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9
Q

vasectomy babies, how did this happen?

A

sperm was living in the ampulla for 4-5 weeks and did not use proper protection

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10
Q

how long should you continue to use protection after a vasectomy

A

4-5 weeks

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11
Q

what creates fluid for semen

A

seminal vesicles

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12
Q

_________ provide energy for sperm motility

A

fructose

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13
Q

______________ assist in fertilization by making cervical mucus more receptive

A

prostaglandin

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14
Q

testosterone produced by cells in _____

A

testes

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15
Q

where is testosterone is metabolized in _______

A

liver

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16
Q

where is testosterone secreted by

A

kidneys

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17
Q

testosterone functions as anabolic agents in male and females to promote _____________ and ______________ _______

A

metabolism, musculoskeletal growth

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18
Q

erection is under control of parasympathetic or sympathetic

A

parasympathetic

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19
Q

what must be intact and available to get an erection (2 things)

A

parasympathetic innervation must be intact
nitric oxide synthesis must be active

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20
Q

drugs treat erectile dysfunction at the __________ level

A

mediator

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21
Q

ejaculation is under what nervous system

A

sympathetic

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22
Q

detumescence is under what nervous system

A

sympathetic

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23
Q

what is detumescence

A

going soft, losing the erection

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24
Q

erectile dysfunction is caused by

A

psychogenic, organic, or mixed

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25
Q

erectile dysfunction neurogenic causes

A

parkinsons disease, stroke, cerebral trauma; spinal cord depends on level, location and extent lesion

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26
Q

erectile dysfunction arterial insufficiency causes

A

hypertension, hyperlipidemia, cigarette smoking, DM, pelvic irradiation

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27
Q

drugs that can cause erectile dysfunction

A

antidepressant, antipsychotic, antihypertensive

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28
Q

erectile dysfunction causes excessive ___________ and ________

A

alcohol, aging

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29
Q

treatment for erectile dysfunction

A

selective inhibitor of phosphodiesterase type 5

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30
Q

what does the treatment for erectile dysfunction target

A

nitric oxide

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31
Q

phosphodiesterase type 5 is an enzyme that inactivates _______, ______ ___________ _________ _________, and _______________ ___________

A

cGMP, alpha adrenergic receptor antagonist, prostaglandin analog

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32
Q

priapism

A

involuntary, prolonged, abnormal, painful erection

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33
Q

priapism is most common with males suffering from what disease

A

sickle cell disease

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34
Q

during priapism with patients with sickle cell _______________ and states of ___________ blood during reception is thought to increase sickling

A

deoxygenation, cavernosal

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35
Q

testes develop from ____________ _______

A

embryonic kidneys

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36
Q

testes embryologically develop in abdomen and descend through ___________ _____ in 7-9th month

A

inguinal canal

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37
Q

testes descend into scrotum through

A

inguinal canal

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38
Q

in the testes failure to close canal leads to __________ _______

A

inguinal hernia

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39
Q

inguinal hernia

A

protrusion of parietal peritoneum and intestine through and abnormal opening from the abdomen

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40
Q

testicular torsion

A

twisting of spermatic cord that suspends the testies

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41
Q

testicular torsion with present with

A

pain radiation to inguinal area, nausea and vomiting, affected testes are large and tender

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42
Q

epididymitis

A

sexual and non sexual transmission of bacterial pathogens

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43
Q

orchitis can be precipitated by primary

A

UTI

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44
Q

orchitis can be caused by what other disease

A

mumps

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45
Q

what percent of boys that had mumps will develop orchitis

A

20-25%

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46
Q

________________ irreversibly impaired in 30% of testes damaged by mumps orchitis

A

spermatogenesis

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47
Q

with orchitis is this reversible or irreversible impaired

A

irreversibly

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48
Q

what is detumescence

A

going soft, losing the erection

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49
Q

what might cause someone to get scrotal cancer

A

chimney sweeps, poor hygiene, external causes

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50
Q

testicular cancer most common age group is

A

15-35 age group

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51
Q

how would you be able to notice testicular cancer

A

self examination at least once a month

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52
Q

tesitular cancer is associated with

A

cryptorchidism

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53
Q

what is cryptoorchidism

A

undescended testes

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54
Q

the higher the cryptorchidism the ___________ the risk

A

greater

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55
Q

prostatitis

A

inflammation of prostate

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56
Q

is benign prostatic hyperplasia cancer

A

no it is benign

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57
Q

benign prostatic hyperplasia occurs in 50% of men older than

A

60

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58
Q

benign prostatic hyperplasia risk factor? what specific race

A

African american

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59
Q

benign prostatic hyperplasia: discovery that DHT is the active factor in BPH is the rationale for use of

A

5 alpha reductase inhibitors (alpha reductase inhibitor)

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60
Q

benign prostatic hyperplasia: location contributes to ___________ and ____________

A

pathophysiology and symptomatology

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61
Q

benign prostatic hyperplasia: increase in prostatic size

A

weak stream, frequency

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62
Q

BPH symptom index 7 questions

A

incomplete emptying
frequency
intermittency
urgency
weak stream
straining
nocturia

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63
Q

what is the most severe BPH number

A

7

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64
Q

a patient comes in for BPH and a scale of 3, you know that this patient is suffering from

A

mild conditions

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65
Q

a patient comes in for BPH and a scale of 7, you know that this patient is suffering from

A

severe conditions

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66
Q

in BPH what drives treatment

A

symptoms

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67
Q

in BPH is there a drug that treats all symptoms

A

no

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68
Q

_____________ in bladder readily infected due to incomplete emptying

A

diverticula

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69
Q

diverticula in bladder

A

little pockets that could become infected due to incomplete empyting

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70
Q

what is the most common male cancer

A

cancer of the prostate

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71
Q

what is the major race that is affected by cancer of the prostate

A

AFRICAN AMERICAN MEN

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72
Q

cancer of the prostate is the __________ leading cause of death

A

second

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73
Q

what are some risk factors for cancer of the prostate

A

age (85% >65), African American race, environment, high fat diet

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74
Q

PSA stands for

A

prostate surface antigen

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75
Q

PSA is what type

A

glycoprotein

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76
Q

PSA is secreted into the cytoplasm of __________ and _________ prostatic cells

A

benign, malignant

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77
Q

is PSA specific to cancer

A

no

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78
Q

what will also cause PSA to be released/increased

A

infection and inflammation

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79
Q

cancer of the prostate annual screening and digital exam over

A

40-50

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80
Q

cancer of the prostate diagnosis- transrectal ultrasound; ___________ grading system

A

Gleason

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81
Q

Gleason grading scale 1

A

well differentiated

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82
Q

Gleason grading scale 5

A

poorly differentiated

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83
Q

do Gleason grade 1 and 5 have the same treatments

A

no, different treatments

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84
Q

Gleason grading system is associated with what cancer

A

prostate

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85
Q

seven questions is associated with what disease

A

benign prostatic hyperplasia

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86
Q

prostate tumor grading system

A

T1-T4

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87
Q

prostate tumor T1

A

primary stage tumors are asymptomatic and discovered on histological examination or prostatic tissue specimens

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88
Q

prostate tumor T2

A

tumors are palpable on digital examination but are confined to the prostate gland

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89
Q

prostate tumor T3

A

tumors have extended beyond the prostate

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90
Q

prostate tumor T4

A

tumors have pushed beyond the prostate to involve adjacent structures

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91
Q

for Gleason, BPH grading, and Prostate tumor grading, as the numbers go up

A

more worse the condition is

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92
Q

if someone has a palpable prostate tumor but is confined to the prostate gland what level is this

A

T2

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93
Q

if someone has a prostate tumor but they are asymptomatic this is what level

A

T1

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94
Q

hypospadias

A

urethra ends below penis

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95
Q

epispadias

A

urethra ending above penis

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96
Q

phimosis

A

tightening of the foreskin

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97
Q

paraphimosis

A

fighting of the foreskin so tight it cannot cover glans

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98
Q

cryptorchidism

A

undescended testes

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99
Q

cryptorchidism is related to

A

birth weight and gestational age

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100
Q

spontaneous descent of testes often occurs during

A

3-6 months

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101
Q

consequences of cryptorchidism/undescended testes

A

infertility, malignancy and psychological effects

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102
Q

two infant boys had undescended testes in 2 different locations, the first boys were located 3 inches below the bellybutton and the second boys we located on the inner thigh right next to the testes, who has the greater chance of testicular cancer

A

first boy

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103
Q

testosterone maybe used in older men with low androgen levels to improve

A

muscle strength and vigor

104
Q

is normal vaginal bacterial flora harmful or protective

A

protective

105
Q

doderlein bacilli metabolize glycogen and in the process produce

A

lactic acid

106
Q

normal vaginal pH is

A

3.8-4.5

107
Q

is vaginal pH acidic or basic

A

acidic

108
Q

normal bacterial flora protect against

A

infections

109
Q

normal vaginal bacterial flora can be disrupted by

A
  • abnormal estrogen levels
  • increased glycogen availability
  • antibiotics
110
Q

why would normal glycogen availability cause normal flora to be disrupted

A

sugar is source of energy and if there is an increase in fuel then the bacteria will overgrow

111
Q

individuals with what conditions might have disrupted vaginal bacterial floras

A

diabetic and immunocompromised

112
Q

vaginal cancer will present with

A

abnormal bleeding, abnormal vaginal discharge, palpable mass, pain during intercourse

113
Q

vaginal cancer discharge

A

abnormal vaginal discharge

114
Q

vaginal cancer may be cause by the spread of what other cancer

A

cervical cancer

115
Q

what STD would cause vaginal cancer

A

HPV

116
Q

what type of irritation might cause vaginal cancer

A

chronic local irritation

117
Q

cervical cancer is related to what infection

A

HPV

118
Q

diagnosis of cervical cancer

A

Pap smear

119
Q

evidence suggests a casual link between HPV infection and __________ cancer

A

cervical

120
Q

what might cause someone to develop a HPV infection

A

early age at first intercourse, multiple sexual partners, a promiscuous male partner, smoking, history of STDS

121
Q

Gardasil

A

prevent infection with the HPV subtypes 16, 18, 6, and 11

122
Q

cervical cancer is present with HPV types

A

16, 18, 31, 33, 45

123
Q

PID

A

pelvic inflammatory disease

124
Q

in PID the infection ascends through uterus to what 2 organs

A

Fallopian tubes, ovary

125
Q

PID disrupts what tissue

A

endothelial tissue

126
Q

PID inflammation causes pain in lower abdomen and

A

cervix

127
Q

what type of discharge is present with PID

A

purulent discharge

128
Q

PID will have 2 increased counts of what

A

WBC
C- reactive protein

129
Q

since people with PID have increase C-reactive protein will the inflammation only be in the uterus or be all over

A

not specific to the uterus, inflammation all over

130
Q

PID may result in what if long lasting

A

infertility, etopic preganancies

131
Q

a patient comes in with pain in lower abdomen and a purulent discharge and is also showing increase WBC count? what might she have

A

PID

132
Q

endometriosis affects what precent of pre menopausal women

A

10-15%

133
Q

endometriosis is functional endometrial tissue found in

A

ectopic sites outside the uterus

134
Q

how did the tissue get there in endometriosis

A

up through the Fallopian tubes (retrograde menstruation)

135
Q

what is retrograde menstration

A

menstruate backwards

136
Q

tissue of endometriosis are found in ________ sites

A

ectopic

137
Q

since the tissue of endometriosis is still functional the tissue will or will not go through mental cycle

A

it will go through a mental cycle, the tissue dies and bleeds and pain and adhesions result

138
Q

endometriosis is the result of what type of mentration

A

RETROGRADE

139
Q

with endometriosis where are some spots that functional endometrial tissue can be found

A

bladder, colon, ovary, small bowel, Fallopian tube, umbilicus

140
Q

what is the most frequent invasive cancer of female reproductive track in the US

A

endometrial cancer

141
Q

15-25% of POSTmenopasual women with bleeding have

A

endometrial cancer

142
Q

can endometrial cancer occur in postemopausal women

A

yes

143
Q

endometrial cancer risk factor is prolonged stimulated exposure to what hormone

A

estrogen

144
Q

a person who is 50 pounds overweight will have what precent increase to getting endometrial cancer

A

10%

145
Q

what are some other risk factors with endometrical cancer

A

diabetes, nulliparity, early menarche, late menopause

146
Q

type 1 risk is prolonged ___________ stimulation

A

estrogenic

147
Q

nulliparity

A

no children

148
Q

menarche

A

first period

149
Q

if there is a early menarche and late menopause we are widening the window for

A

estrogen stimulation

150
Q

endometrial cancer will present with

A

abnormal. painless bleeding

151
Q

a patient comes in a states how she is has just went through menopause at the age of 70 and she started her period at the age of 9. She is experiencing abnormal painless bleeding? what could she have

A

endometrial cancer

152
Q

the good thing about endometrial cancer is the survival rate, what is the percent

A

80-85%

153
Q

leiomyomas are

A

fibroids

154
Q

leiomyomas/fibroids are benign or malignant

A

benign

155
Q

where are leiomyomas/fibroids origin

A

smooth muscle

156
Q

leiomyomas/fibroids are in 1/4 women over the age of

A

35

157
Q

leiomyomas/fibroids growth rate and size greater in what race

A

African american

158
Q

are leiomyomas/fibroids asymptomatic and symptomatic

A

asymptomatic

159
Q

leiomyomas/fibroids may cause

A

menorrhagia

160
Q

menorrhagia

A

excess menstral flow

161
Q

do leiomyomas/fibroids have a defined border or no clear borders

A

borders are clearly defined

162
Q

a patient comes in for an anaul exam and the physician notices a nodule in the patients vagina area but the patient claims she had no symptoms. what disease is this

A

leiomyomas/fibroids

163
Q

a patient was just diagnosed with fibroids and she presents concern that the tumors could be cancerous, what would you tell her?

A

all leiomyomas/fibroids are benign

164
Q

cystocele

A

bladder prolapse into vagina

165
Q

rectocele

A

anus prolapse into vagina

166
Q

uterine prolapse

A

uterus into vagina

167
Q

PCOS

A

polycystic ovary syndrome

168
Q

PCOS is known as the

A

silent thief of fertility

169
Q

PCOS can cause

A

infertility

170
Q

a patient was just diagnosed with fibroids and she presents concern that the tumors could be cancerous, what would you tell her?

A

all leiomyomas/fibroids are benign

171
Q

PCOS causes hyper___________

A

androgenism

172
Q

PCOS is a common source of

A

chronic anovulation

173
Q

PCOS could present with

A

central irregularity, metabolic dysfunction including dislipidemia, insulin resistance, and obesity

174
Q

PCOS is in what percent of the population

A

5-15%

175
Q

Ovarian cancer may present with

A

asymptomatic or vague

176
Q

ovarian cancer is related to

A

nulliparity

177
Q

are there any good screens for ovarian cancer

A

no

178
Q

what is CA 125 (cell surface antigen) used for

A

monitoring therapy and recurrences with ovarian cancer

179
Q

mastitis

A

post partum, tumors, tramsa, skin infections, or hormonal fluctuations

180
Q

fibrocystic changes

A

lumpy breasts with non discrete nodules

181
Q

breast cancer is what percent hereditary

A

10%

182
Q

risk factors for breast cancer

A

age, history, promotion of breast maturation, 1st child >30, not term pregnancies

183
Q

detection of breast cancer

A

mammography, MRI, biopsy

184
Q

positive breast cancer may result in a lumpectomy or a mastectomy, whats the difference

A

lumpectomy= take out just tumor
mastectomy= take out whole brest

185
Q

with breast cancer it is important to inject blue dye in the tumor before removing the tumor, why?

A

to test the lymph node that the cancer drained to

186
Q

what is genetic testing for breast cancer

A

BRAC1 and BRAC2

187
Q

what are some notable common risk factor that is encouraged to do to prevent hyperlipidemia

A

alcohol. too much can increase chances of breast cancer

188
Q

what do BRAC1 and BRAC2 do

A

they are genes that code for proteins that help repair DNA after it has mutated

189
Q

a mutation of BRAC1 and BRAC2 would cause the gene to not code for protein that would repair DNA after it was mutated which would result in

A

increase in cancer chances

190
Q

what hormones make breast cells divide

A

estrogen and growth factor

191
Q

breast cells with too much _________ or __________ ______ receptors are more likely to become cancerous

A

estrogen, growth factor

192
Q

why does breast cancer that result from estrogen/growth factor come from receptors and not the actual amount of hormone

A

more receptors cause more hormone to be taken in by the cell, it doesn’t matter the amount of hormone unless there is enough receptors to bind to the hormones

193
Q

Condylomata

A

genital warts

194
Q

genital warts are caused by

A

HPV

195
Q

genital warts may be transient or

A

persistent

196
Q

genital warts can they be asymptomatic

A

yes

197
Q

genital warts are associated with

A

genital cancers

198
Q

Herpes simplex virus 2 is related to

A

chickenpox and cold sores

199
Q

genital herpes causes genital

A

ulcers

200
Q

genital herpes grows in

A

neurons

201
Q

genital herpes can remain dormant in ___________ for years

A

neurons

202
Q

do genital herpes go away

A

no

203
Q

vaginal infetions

A

candidiasis
trichomoniasis
bacterial vaginitis

204
Q

candidiasis

A

yeast infection/thrush

205
Q

candidiasis is present in what precent of healthy women without causing symptoms

A

20%-50%

206
Q

candidiasis results in

A

inflammation
thick odorless discharge

207
Q

a patient comes in with inflammation around her vagina but no other symptoms but has a thick odorless discharge what is the disease

A

candidiasis

208
Q

discharge of candidiasis

A

thick odorless

209
Q

what is causes of candidiasis

A

antibiotic therapy
high hormone levels owing to pregnancy
the use of oral contraceptives
Diabetes mellitus
HIV infection

210
Q

how does antibiotic therapy cause candidiasis

A

suppress the normal protective bacterial flora

211
Q

how does the use of oral contraceptives cause candidiasis

A

cause an increase in vaginal glycogen stores

212
Q

how does DM or HIV cause candidiasis

A

compromise the immune system

213
Q

trichomoniasis is what type of protozoan

A

anaerobic protozoan

214
Q

trichomoniasis feeds on the

A

vaginal mucosa and ingest bacteria and leukocytes

215
Q

discharge of trichomoniasis

A

copious, frothy, malodorous, green or yellow discharge

216
Q

trichomoniasis presents with occasional

A

itching and irritation

217
Q

with trichomoniasis sometimes ______________ spots will appear on the cervix

A

strawberry spots

218
Q

one difference between trichomoniasis and candidiasis is that trichomoniasis is associated with

A

tubular infertility or PIVD

219
Q

bacteria vaginosis may present with what type of discharge

A

homogenous (frothy, grayish, yellowish white)

220
Q

bacteria vaginosis may produce a fishy amine odor when 10% ____________ _____________ solution is dropped onto the secretions

A

potassium hydroxide

221
Q

bacteria vaginosis may present with pH above ____

A

4.5

222
Q

bacteria vaginosis is usually treated only if ____________ or associated with other risk conditions

A

symptomatic

223
Q

bacteria vaginosis is nonspecific meaning

A

it may be caused by many different bacteria

224
Q

bacteria vaginosis also may present with thin discharge with

A

fishy ordor

225
Q

chlamydia may have signs at site of infection like

A

hypertrophy and drainage

226
Q

chlamydia may have signs of UTI like

A

urinary frequency, dysuria, discharge postcoital bleeding

227
Q

chlamydia may have signs of upper genital tract infection like

A

irregular uterine bleeding, abdominal/pelvic discomfort

228
Q

chlamydia complications include

A

infertility and ectopic pregnancy

229
Q

chlamydia may cause __________ in infant

A

conjunctivitis

230
Q

gonorrhea may be cause

A

conjunctivitis

231
Q

gonorrhea in women will have what kind of discharge

A

thick yellow or gray vaginal discharge

232
Q

gonorrhea symptoms women

A

burning/pain with urination or bowel movement
abnormal periods
abdominal pain or cramps

233
Q

gonorrhea discharge men

A

thick yellow/greenish drip from penis

234
Q

gonorrhea symptoms men

A

burning pain with urination or bowel movement
need to urinate more often
tender or swollen testicles

235
Q

in females gonorrhea may lead to ________ which ultimately could lead to infertility

A

PID

236
Q

syphilis is cause by what kind of bacteria

A

spirochete, treponema pallidum

237
Q

primary syphilis

A

chancer at site of exposure

238
Q

secondary syphilis

A

lasts from 1 week to 6 months
disseminates to other organs

239
Q

secondary syphilis symptoms

A

skin rash, fever, sore throat, stomatitis, nausea, loss of appetite and inflamed eyes

240
Q

tertiary syphilis

A

Gumma lesions develop in organs
CNS and heart often affected

241
Q

what is the only STD that causes systemic issues

A

syphilis

242
Q

gonorrhea and chlamydia both cause what in neonates

A

ocular disease and blindness

243
Q

gonorrhea and chlamydia both cause what in neonates

A

ocular disease and blindness

244
Q

is syphilis transferred to the fetus from the mother through the placenta

A

yes

245
Q

when syphilis progresses to the tertiary stage it takes one of three forms

A

development of localized destructive granuloma like lesions called gummas
development of cardiovascular lesions
development of central nervou system lesions

246
Q

name of lesions in tertiary syphilis when they are developed on localized destructive granuloma

A

gummas

247
Q

women with abnormal vaginal discharge

A

vaginal cancer

248
Q

purulent discharge

A

PID

249
Q

thick odorless discharge

A

candidiasis

250
Q

copious, frothy, malorodorous, green or yellow discharge

A

trichomoniasis

251
Q

homogenous discharge (frothy grayish, yellowish white) or thin discharge with fishy odor

A

Bacterial vaginosis

252
Q

women: thick yellow or gray vaginal discharge

A

gonorrhea

253
Q

men: thick yellow greenish drip from penis

A

gonorrhea

254
Q

do all people with gonorrhea have symptoms

A

no some people do not have symptoms

255
Q

a 60 year old man comes to the clinic and has been found to have a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus and cardiovascular disease. the manifestations of these diseases will warrant the nurse to assess the patient for which of the following problems
-undescended testicles
- prostate cancer
- erectile dysfunction
- increased sperm production

A

erectile dysfunction

256
Q

an elderly male patient is complaining of dribbling after he urinates and feeling like he never empties his bladder. The nurse suspects the patients may have a problem with
- kidney stones
- an enlarged prostate gland
- blood clots clogging the urethra
- calcium sediment in the bladder

A

an enlarged prostate gland (benign prostatic hyperplasia)

257
Q

after an office visit with her primary health provider, a female patient with an elevated CA-125 test results asks the nurse if that means she has ovarian cancer. Which of the following is the nurses best response
- “the test is not specific for ovarian cancer but suggests further evaluation to find the cause of the elevation”
- “the test is an accurate screening tool for early detection of ovarian cancer”
- “you will need to ask your doctor to explain the test to you”
-“don’t worry about it. The test is too general to cause you to be alarmed.”

A

“the test is not specific for ovarian cancer but suggests further evaluation to find the cause of the elevation”

Pathophysiology (44 decks)

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