MT M6 quiz 1

Question 1

Name the parts of the oral cavity that form the roof, sides, entrance, and floor.

Answer 1

The roof of the oral cavity is the hard and soft palates, the sides of the mouth are the cheeks, the entrance to the mouth is the lips, and the floor of the mouth is formed from the tongue. (Section 6.2)

Question 2

Describe the structure and function of the tongue. Identify the different types of teeth and name their functions.

Answer 2

The tongue is made of muscle. It functions to taste food, move food around the mouth for chewing, and to initiate swallowing.

There are four different types of teeth: incisors, molars, premolars, and canines. Incisors and canines are used for biting into food, as they have a sharp cutting edge. The premolars and molars are used for crushing food, as the crown of the tooth is broad. (Section 6.2)

Question 3

Describe the role of the epiglottis during swallowing.

Answer 3

The epiglottis covers the entrance to the trachea during swallowing so that food enters the esophagus, not the trachea. (Section 6.2)

Question 4

Describe the two types of digestion performed by the stomach. What do these two types of digestion produce and where does it go next?

Answer 4

Answer: The stomach performs mechanical and chemical digestion. Mechanical digestion occurs as the muscles in the walls of the stomach contract to churn the food with the digestive juices in the stomach. Chemical digestion occurs as the digestive enzymes within the gastric juices mix with the food and break it down. The product of these actions is called chyme, a liquid that is then released from the stomach into the small intestine through the pyloric sphincter. (Section 6.2)

Question 5

Describe the differences between the small and large intestines in terms of size and function. What are the three sections of the small intestine? What are the four sections of the large intestine?

Answer 5

The small intestine functions to continue chemical digestion and to absorb nutrients through villi located in the walls of the small intestine. The diameter of the small intestine is about 1 inch, and it is 21 feet long. The large intestine functions to compact the leftover waste into feces, absorb water from the chyme, and remove feces from the body through defecation. The diameter of the large intestine is 2 ½ inches, and it is 5 feet long.

The three sections of the small intestine are the duodenum, ileum, and jejunum. The four sections of the large intestine are the cecum, colon, anal canal, and rectum. (Sections 6.2)

Question 6

Identify the accessory organs of the digestive system and describe their functions.

Answer 6

Answer: The salivary glands function to secrete saliva into the mouth to moisten food and start carbohydrate digestion. The liver secretes bile and functions in the metabolism of nutrients for the body. The gallbladder stores bile. The pancreas secretes hormones and digestive enzymes. (Section 6.2)

Question 7

Name the kidney’s three protective layers.

Answer 7

Answer: The three protective layers of the kidney are the renal capsule, perirenal fat, and the renal fascia. (Section 6.6)

Question 8

Fill in the blank: ____ is the structural and functional unit of the kidney.

Answer 8

Answer: The nephron. (Section 6.6)

Question 9

Describe the parts of the nephron.

Answer 9

Answer: The nephron starts at the glomerulus, the tubule starting with the proximal convoluted portion, the loop of Henle, the distal convoluted portion, and the collecting tubule. (Section 6.6)

Question 10

Describe the differences between the male urethra and the female urethra.

Answer 10

Answer: The male urethra is longer than the female urethra and it carries both urine and semen out of the body. (Section 6.6)

Question 10

Describe how urine is formed in the nephron.

Answer 10

Answer: Glomerular filtration pulls water and waste products out of the blood and into the tubule. As the tubule runs along a capillary, the contents of the filtrate are refined as more waste products are added to the filtrate, and proteins, glucose, ions, and water are reabsorbed into the blood. (Section 6.6)

Question 10

Describe the path of urine from the kidney to outside the body.

Answer 10

Answer: Urine flows from the kidney, through the ureter, to the urinary bladder, to the urethra, and out of the urethra through the urinary meatus. (Section 6.6)

Question 11

A patient presents with swelling of the parotid gland, mouth pain with meals, and tenderness at the opening of the parotid duct on the buccal What is the medical term for this condition? Define buccal.

Answer 11

Answer: Sialadenitis is inflammation of a salivary gland and the condition described in this question. Buccal means pertaining to the cheek. (Section 6.3 Digestive flashcards)

Question 12

The liver is largely responsible for nutrient metabolism, which is defined as the process of chemically and physically breaking down tissues and creating different tissues that are needed for the body. Identify and define the two terms presented in the flashcards that are associated with metabolism.

Answer 12

Answer: Anabolism is the building up of body substances, and catabolism is the breakdown of complex substances into smaller segments. (Section 6.3 Digestive flashcards)

Question 13

Identify the medical term for bad breath.

Answer 13

Answer: Halitosis. (Section 6.3 Digestive flashcards)

Question 14

A patient with constipation took a medication called a laxative. Define the underlined terms.

Answer 14

Answer: Constipation is the infrequent passage of hard or dry stools. A laxative is a medication used to loosen the bowel. (Section 6.3 Digestive flashcards)

Question 15

A patient with cancer of the stomach underwent a partial gastrectomy. Describe what happened based on the underlined medical term in the sentence.

Answer 15

Answer: The patient had a portion of his/her stomach removed surgically due to the presence of cancer. (Section 6.3 Digestive flashcards)

Question 16

Identify and define the terms from the urinary flashcards that describe additional materials in the urine that should not be there. Example: Hematuria means blood in the urine. There are 7 in addition to hematuria.

Answer 16

Albuminuria: The presence of protein in the urine.

Bacteriuria: The presence of bacteria in the urine.

Calciuria: The presence of calcium in the urine.

Hypercalcemia: Excessive amount of calcium in the urine.

Glycosuria: Presence of glucose in the urine.

Ketonuria: Presence of ketones in the urine.

Pyuria: Pus in the urine.

Question 17

A patient with cystitis presents with complaints of frequency, urgency, and dysuria. Define the underlined terms.

Answer 17

Answer: Cystitis - inflammation of the bladder. Urgency - the feeling of the sudden need to urinate. Dysuria - painful urination. (Section 6.7 Urinary flashcards)

Question 18

Identify another term for normal urination.

Answer 18

Answer: Micturition is the process of urination. (Section 6.7 Urinary flashcards)

Question 19

You are reading the chart of a patient with chronic renal failure on dialysis, and it says that they have anuria. What does this mean?

Answer 19

Answer: Anuria is the lack of urine production. This patient’s renal failure has progressed to the point where they no longer produce any urine. (Section 6.7 Urinary flashcards)

Question 20

An older patient is taking a medication to induce diuresis (commonly called a diuretic) to treat hypertension, and they are experiencing the adverse effects of incontinence and increased nocturia.

A) Define the underlined term that describes the mechanism of action of this medication.

B) Define the medical terms that describe the adverse effects this patient is experiencing.

Answer 20

A) Diuresis is the medical condition of increased urine flow. This medication is causing an increased flow of urine.

B) This patient is experiencing incontinence, which is uncontrolled urination, and nocturia, which is urination at night. (Section 6.7 Urinary flashcards)

Question 21

A patient with severe right lower quadrant pain, nausea, and vomiting presents to the ED. A CT scan diagnoses appendicitis, and the patient is sent for an emergent appendectomy. Identify the combining form in the underlined words and define the terms.

Answer 21

Answer: Appendic/o is the combining form that means appendix. Appendicitis is the inflammation of the appendix. An appendectomy is the surgical removal of the appendix. (Section 6.3, Table 6.1, and Table 1.7 of Module 1)

Question 22

A patient is found to have cholelithiasis that has not progressed to cholecystitis or choledocholithiasis and is seeing a general surgeon to discuss an elective cholecystectomy. Identify the three combining forms in the underlined words and define the terms.

Answer 22

Answer: Chol/e means gall or bile. Cyst/o means bladder. Choledoch/o means the common bile duct. Cholecystitis is inflammation of the gallbladder. Choledocholithiasis is the presence of stones within the common bile duct. Cholecystectomy is the surgical removal of the gallbladder. (Section 6.3, Table 6.1, and Section 6.4)

Question 22

A patient with gastroduodenitis is undergoing a gastroduodenoscopy to investigate the condition. Identify the two combining forms and define the underlined terms.

Answer 22

Answer: Gastro means stomach. Duoden/o means the duodenum. Gastroduodenitis is inflammation of the stomach and duodenum. A gastroduodenoscopy is a medical procedure that looks at the stomach and duodenum with a scope. (Section 6.3, Table 6.1)

Question 23

A patient is undergoing a screening colonoscopy and is diagnosed with polyposis and underwent a polypectomy during the procedure. Identify the two combining forms and define the underlined medical terms.

Answer 23

Answer: Colon/o means colon. Polyp/o means polyp, which is an abnormal growth that projects outward from the normal surface. A colonoscopy is a procedure that visualizes the colon with a scope. Polyposis is the abnormal condition of several polyps. A polypectomy is the removal of one or more polyps. (Section 6.3, Table 6.1)

Question 24

The female urethral meatus is in the perineum. Identify and define the combining forms in the underlined terms.

Answer 24

Answer: Urethr/o means urethra. Meat/o means passage. Perine/o means perineum. (Section 6.3, Table 6.1)

Question 25

The system that includes the kidneys, ureters, bladder, and urethra has two names: the urinary system or the excretory system. Identify and define the combining forms in these two titles.

Answer 25

Answer: Urin/o means urinary. Excret/o means sifted out. (Section 6.3, Table 6.1)

Question 26

A patient with nephrolithiasis is undergoing a renal study called a pyelogram, where a series of x-rays are taken after dye has been injected. Identify and define the combining forms in the underlined words.

Answer 26

Answer: Nephr/o means kidney. Ren/o means kidney. Pyel/o means the renal pelvis. (Section 6.3, Table 6.1)

Question 27

A patient is undergoing a nephroureterocystectomy due to a spreading carcinoma. Identify the combining forms and the sections of the urinary system that are being removed from this medical term.

Answer 27

Answer: A kidney (nephr/o), ureter (ureter/o), and all or part of the bladder (cyst/o) are being removed during this surgical procedure. (Section 6.3, Table 6.1)

Question 28

A patient presents to their physician due to frequent watery bowel movements after travel to an area without a clean source of water. The physician orders stool testing that includes an O&P study.

A) Identify the medical term for frequent watery bowel movements.

B) Identify the abbreviation for a bowel movement.

C) Define the abbreviation O&P.

Answer 28

A) Diarrhea is the medical term that means frequent watery stool.

B) The abbreviation BM means bowel movement.

C) O&P means ova and parasites. (Sections 6.3, Table 6.2)

Question 29

A patient was admitted to the hospital with acute abdominal pain, nausea, and vomiting. An ERCP was performed, which diagnosed stones in the CBD. Define the abbreviations in this sentence.

Answer 29

The abbreviation ERCP means endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography. The abbreviation CBD means common bile duct.

Note: An ERCP is a medical procedure where an endoscope is inserted into the mouth and goes through the esophagus and stomach into the duodenum and then inserts dye into the CBD. The combining forms cholangi/o meaning bile duct and pancreat/o meaning pancreas indicate which area is being visualized during this scope. (Section 6.3, Table 6.2)

Question 30

A patient who is suspected of having stones in their GU tract was ordered a KUB x-ray and a UA and UC. Define the abbreviations.

Answer 30

Answer: The abbreviation GU means genitourinary. The abbreviation KUB means kidneys, ureters, bladder. A KUB x-ray is an imaging study that looks specifically at the kidneys, ureters, and bladder via x-ray. The abbreviations UA and UC mean urinalysis and urine cultures, respectively, which are lab studies performed on a sample of urine. (Section 6.3, Table 6.2)

Question 31

AGN, where inflammatory lesions develop within the glomerulus, can be a cause of AKI, and patients will experience hypertension, edema, and abnormal sediment in the urine. Define the abbreviations.

Answer 31

Answer: The abbreviation AGN means acute glomerulonephritis and AKI means acute kidney injury. (Section 6.3, Table 6.2)

Question 32

Identify and describe the different sources of bleeding in the upper GI tract. How are upper GI bleeds generally treated?

Answer 32

Ulcers and tumors can bleed. Esophageal varices, dilated veins in the lower esophagus, can be a source of bleeding. Mallory-Weiss tears, lacerations at the gastroesophageal junction, can be a source of bleeding. Finally, vascular abnormalities can cause bleeding.

Upper GI bleeds are typically addressed through an EGD, where the location of the bleeding is identified and the source of the bleeding is cauterized, clipped, or injected with medication to stop the blood loss. (Section 6.4)

Question 33

Describe the differences between hematemesis, hematochezia, and melena.

Answer 33

Answer: Hematemesis is vomiting with blood in the emesis. Melena is stool that contains digested blood and appears as black, tarry stools with a distinct odor. (Section 6.4). Hematochezia is massive blood loss through the passage of large volumes of bloody stool. (Section 6.4)

Question 34

Describe the common symptoms that a patient with cholecystitis will present with and the indications for a cholecystectomy.

Answer 34

Answer: Patients with cholecystitis will present with abdominal pain in the right upper quadrant (also called biliary pain), fever, and vomiting. Jaundice is also a symptom of cholecystitis. Patients who are eligible for a cholecystectomy will have repeated episodes of cholecystitis, necrosis of the gallbladder, and stones that have migrated into the common bile duct. (Section 6.4)

Question 34

Identify and describe the different sources of bleeding within the lower GI tract. How are lower GI bleeds generally treated?

Answer 34

Answer: Infectious colitis, anorectal disease, and inflammatory bowel diseases are causes of bleeding within the lower GI tract. Tumors, diverticular disease, and vascular abnormalities are also a cause of bleeding. Bleeding is addressed through a colonoscopy. (Section 6.4)

Question 35

Describe the similarities and differences between Crohn’s disease and ulcerative colitis.

Answer 35

Answer: These diseases cause inflammation in the mucosal surface of the GI tract. The difference is that Crohn’s disease can cause inflammation at any part of the GI tract, and ulcerative colitis only causes inflammation within the colon. (Section 6.4)

Question 36

Describe the difference between diverticulosis and diverticulitis. What are the common symptoms and treatments for a patient with diverticulitis?

Answer 36

Answer: Diverticulosis is a condition where pouches form in the walls of the colon, and it is a common condition associated with aging. Diverticulitis is when one or more of the pouches become inflamed. Patients with diverticulitis will have pain in their abdomen, fever, nausea, and vomiting. It is diagnosed through a CT of the abdomen and treated with antibiotics and a liquid diet. (Section 6.4)

Question 37

A patient is admitted to the hospital due to acute pyelonephritis. What is causing this condition? What are the treatments that this patient will receive?

Answer 37

Answer: Pyelonephritis is an inflammation of the kidney and renal pelvis due to a bacterial infection that has ascended from the lower GU tract. This patient may receive IV fluids and IV antibiotics. (Section 6.8)

Question 38

Describe the voiding symptoms that a patient with an infection of the urinary tract may experience.

Answer 38

Answers: Patients may experience frequency, which is the frequent need to urinate. Urgency is an urgent feeling of the need to void, and dysuria is painful or difficult urination. (Section 6.8)

Question 39

Which two conditions lead to most cases of chronic kidney disease?

Answer 39

Answer: Hypertension and diabetes mellitus. (Section 6.8)

Question 40

Uremia is a common symptom in patients with advanced chronic kidney disease. Patients need dialysis to improve uremia. What is uremia? How do the two types of dialysis work to improve uremia?

Answer 40

Answer: Uremia is a condition where there is excess urea, creatinine, and other waste products in the blood due to failure of the kidney to filter these products out. (Section 6.7 urinary flashcards) Dialysis is a medical procedure where the blood is filtered and the normal fluid, electrolyte, and acid-base balance is reestablished via a mechanical or chemical process. There are two types of dialysis: hemodialysis and peritoneal dialysis. Hemodialysis uses a machine to filter the blood. Peritoneal dialysis uses the peritoneal cavity and the peritoneal membrane to filter the blood. (Section 6.8)

Question 41

Nephrolithiasis can cause renal colic, nausea, and vomiting. What is renal colic?

Answer 41

Answer: Renal colic is sharp, severe pain in the lower back over the kidney. (Section 6.7 urinary flashcards, Section 6.8)