9/26/21 Flashcards

1
Q

True or false: Waldenstrom macroglobulinemia is a rare malignancy causing excess production of monoclonal IgM from B cells.

A

True.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

How long does it take to reverse alcoholic ketoacidosis?

A

12–24 hours

rx: D5NS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What study should be performed in a patient with a classic presentation of pyloric stenosis but a normal ultrasound?

A

An upper GI contrast series, which not only can confirm pyloric stenosis but rule out reflux, malrotation, or an antral web.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Delirium tremens

A

most severe manifestation of alcohol withdrawal symptoms.

rapid onset of confusion

occurs as early as 48–72 hours after the cessation of alcohol and can last for 2–3 days.

The hallmark of delirium tremens is severe agitation, global confusion, disorientation, visual and auditory hallucinations, formication (tactile hallucinations of something crawling on the skin), fever, heavy sweating, and autonomic hyperactivity (tachycardia and hypertension).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

_____________ is the first line treatment for a hypertensive patient with an aortic dissection.

A

Esmolol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

At what ages should infants begin to roll over and walk?

A

5 months and 12–15 months, respectively.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What rate of compressions is recommended in adult patients?

A

100–120 compressions per minute

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

________________ are not indicated in the treatment of Guillain-Barré syndrome, and may in fact be harmful.

A

High-dose intravenous corticosteroids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

_____________________ are both treatments that reduce the time to recovery in Guillain-Barré syndrome,

A

Intravenous immunoglobulin and plasmapheresis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

In GBS If a patient’s FVC falls below ____________ it indicates severely impaired pulm function and is an indication for early intubation.

A

20 mL/kg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

How can the ST elevations of a posterior wall myocardial infarction be visualized on an ECG?

A

By putting leads V7-V9 on the patient’s back.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Sgarbossa criteria for STEMI with LBBB

A
  • Concordant ST elevation > 1 mm in leads with a positive QRS (5 points)
  • Concordant ST depression > 1 mm in V1–V3 (3 points)
  • Discordant ST elevation 5 mm in leads with a negative QRS (2)

3 = STEMI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

The earliest sonographic finding of cardiac tamponade

A

large pericardial effusion

evidence of right atrial collapse.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Septic thrombophlebitis

A
  • infected clot of the jugular vein caused by local invasion from bacterial pharyngitis
  • commonly affects patients ages 16–25 years within a week of pharyngitis
  • fever, anterior neck pain and stiffness, as well as possible respiratory distress from septic pulmonary emboli
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Postpartum Hemorrhage caused by uterine atony rx

A

Treatment is uterine massage, oxytocin, prostaglandins, or surgery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Ethylene Glycol Intoxication

A
  • Anion gap metabolic acidosis
  • *absence of significant lactate or ketone concentrations
  • ↑ osmol gap
  • hypocalcemia
  • acute renal failure
  • envelope (or Maltese cross) shaped crystals in urine - - fluorescent urine under Wood lamp
17
Q

What is considered a prolonged QTc?

A

> 440 ms (men) and > 460 ms (women), with > 500 ms associated with an increased risk of developing torsades de pointes.