Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

exam stuff > year 2 passmed > Flashcards

year 2 passmed Flashcards

1
Q

what are the ottawa rules for ankle x-ray

A

An ankle x-ray is required only if there is any pain in the malleolar zone and any one of the following findings:

  • bony tenderness at the lateral malleolar zone
  • bony tenderness at the medial malleolar zone
  • inability to walk four weight bearing steps immediately after the injury and in the emergency department
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

how often is methotrexate taken

A

weekly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

how quickly do patients with PMR respond to steroids

A

dramatically quickly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

which antibiotic if prescribes with methotrexate could cause bone marrow suppression

A

trimethoprim

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what does a patient need to have to confirm a diagnosis of diffuse systemic sclerosis

A

systemic fibrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what does this patient have

A

ankylosing spondylitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

which type of osteomyelitis are sickle cell patients prone to

A

salmonella osteomyelitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

how long does the morning stiffness last in osteoarthritis

A

less than 30 mins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

if the biopsy is normal in a potential giant cell arteritis patient, do you stop prednisolone

A

no

skip lesions may occur

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

which SLE drug is safe to use in pregnancy

A

azathioprine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

if syndesmophytes are found on plain radiograph of the spine what does this indicate

A

ankylosing spondylitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what does spondylolisthesis mean

A

displacement of one spinal vertebra over the other

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what should patients with anti phospholipid syndrome who haven’t had a thrombosis before be started on

A

low dose aspirin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

patients who are allergic to what drug may also be allergic to sulfasalazine

A

aspirin

co-timoxazole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

causes of trigger finger

A
  • rheumatoid arthritis

- diabetes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what does a positive simmonds sign mean

A

achilles tendon rupture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

which hypersensitivity reaction is anaphylaxis

A

type 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what does joint aspiration of gout show

A

needle-shaped negatively birefringent monosodium urate crystals under polarised light

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

early x-ray findings of rheumatoid arthritis

A

juxta-articular osteoporosis
loss of joint space
soft-tissue swelling

JLS!!!!!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

late x-ray findings os rheumatoid arthritis

A
  • periarticular erosion

- subluxation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Knee pain and swelling, typically after exercise
Knee catching, locking and/or giving way: more constant and severe symptoms are associated with the presence of loose bodies
Feeling a painful ‘clunk’ when flexing or extending the knee - indicating the involvement of the lateral femoral condyle

diagnosis?

A

osteochondritis dissecans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

if a patient presents with an auricular haematoma what is done first

A

referral to ENT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

if a patient presents with a unilateral polyp what is the first thing that should be done

A

urgent referral to ENT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

side effect of azathioprine

A

myelosuppression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

how long should you wait after taking methotrexate before having a baby

A

6 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

first line treatment for tonsillitis

A

Phenoxymethylpenicillin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

where does webers lateralise to

A

affected ear

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

side effect of gentamicin

A

sensorineural hearing loss

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

what causes viral warts in rheumatoid arthritis

A

secondary to immunosuppression from etanercept treatment

-nothing should be done tho

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

halos around lights

A

closed angle glaucoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

what diseases can cause angular cheilitis

A

crohns and UC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

what does pyoderma gangrenosum present as

A

an enlarging blister usually on the shins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

what does erythema multiforme present as

A

many target lesions over 24 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

what is lupus vulgaris

A

a type of cutaneous tuberculosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

what does lichen planus present as

A

a violaceous, polygonal, papular eruption that is commonly pruritic
-it can form plaques

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

what does lichen sclerosus present as

A

itchy white spots seen on vulvas and penises

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

what does drusen affecting the fovea suggest

A

ARMD

38
Q

does a thyroglossal cyst protrude when the patient sticks their tongue out

A

yes

39
Q

histology of a SCC of the skin

A

lesion containing irregular masses of anaplastic epidermal cells proliferating down to the dermis with keratin pearls

40
Q

what is an eye manifestation of giant cell arteritis

A

anterior ischaemic optic neuritis

41
Q

if a patient with psoriasis is on oral steroid and vit D analogue what is the next step in management

A

stop the steroid and do twice daily vit D analogue

42
Q

in bullous pemphigoid, which adhesive structure is disrupted by autoimmune mechanisms

A

hemidesmosome

43
Q

treatment for scabies

A

topical permethrin

44
Q

which drug can cause acne vulgaris

A

isoniazid

45
Q

what is changed about levothyroxine in pregnancy

A

dose increased

46
Q

what is elevated in the blood results for polymyositis

A

creatine photokinase and aldolase

47
Q

which arteritis is the pulseless one

A

takayasu’s

48
Q

what is skiers thumb

A

a complete or partial tear of the UCL of the thumb

49
Q

which nerve is associated with tear formation

A

intermediate nerve

50
Q

what does positive anti-endomysial antibody mean

A

coeliac

51
Q

blood results for pseudohypoparathyroidism

A

elevated PTH
low calcium
high phosphate

52
Q

if someone has right homonymous superior quadrantanopia where is the lesion

A

left temporal lobe optic radiation

53
Q

first line treatment for a pregnant woman with conjunctivitis

A

topical fusidic acid eye drops

-chloramphenicol contraindicated in pregnancy

54
Q

treatment for actinic keratoses

A

5-flourouracil cream

54
Q

treatment for actinic keratoses

A

5-flourouracil cream

55
Q

which type of collagen is affected in alport syndrome

A

type IV

56
Q

what causes oslers nodes

A

infective endocarditis

57
Q

treatment for moderately severe eczema

A

regular diprobase ointment and once daily betamethasone valerate 0.025% plus 10 days oral flucloxacillin

58
Q

what is found on biopsy in diabetic nephropathy

A

kimmelstein-wilson nodes

59
Q

treatment for patients with rheumatoid arthritis who have not responded to two DMARDs

A

biologics

infliximab

60
Q

in a suspected osteosarcoma, what is first line management

A

order a whole body bone scan, CT chest, and MRI of the entire femur

61
Q

which thyroid cancer tends to affect young patients and has a good prognosis

A

papillary

62
Q

which thyroid cancer has the worst prognosis

A

anaplastic

63
Q

what would explain these abdo x-ray findings

A

medullary sponge kidney

64
Q

what does the long head of the biceps brachii tendon attach to

A

the supraglenoid tubercle of the scapula

65
Q

side effect of bisphosphonates

A

oesophagitis (most common)

osteonecrosis of jaw (less common)

66
Q

if psammoma calcification is found on biopsy of a thyroid lump, what is the diagnosis?

A

papillary cancer

67
Q

what does the patient have if they have a negative anterior drawer test but the test in painful

A

ACL injury

68
Q

testosterone effect on fertilisation

A

increases infertility

-exogenous testosterone suppresses GnRH and so FSH and LH

69
Q

intrinsic hand muscle wasting suggests that the lesion is where

A

T1

70
Q

what is fat embolism syndrome

A

an acute respiratory disorder caused by embolized fat globules that may enter the bloodstream as a result of acute long bone fractures or intramedullary instrumentation

71
Q

what can cause sensory problems and reduction in grip and pinch strength in the hand

A

ulnar neuropathy

72
Q

if a patient gets an intertrochanteric fracture and gets a dynamic hip screw for it, then a few months there the hip screw is backed out slightly what does this suggest

A

trochanteric bursitis from the metal work

73
Q

if a patient with T2DM on metformin and gliclazide is getting surgery and needs to fast, what changes should be made to their medication

A

omit gliclazide and continue metformin

74
Q

what drug can cause hyponatraemia

A

bendroflumethiazide

75
Q

what causes the hyponatraemia in SIADH

A

increased water absorption in collecting duct

76
Q

investigation for osteomalacia

A

serum 25-OH cholecalciferol

77
Q

floaters in eye

A

retinal detachment

78
Q

first thing to do in a patient with a painful eye and loss of visual acuity

A

refer to opthalmology department as an emergency

79
Q

which anatomical structure in most likely to be affected in an orbital blowout fracture

A

inferior rectus muscle at fracture site

80
Q

which nerve is responsible for closing the lids

A

facial (7th)

81
Q

does otosclerosis result in conductive or sensorineural hearing loss

A

conductive

82
Q

abdo thrusts or chest thrusts in a conscious choking baby

A

chest

83
Q

what needs to be done in children with UTIs

A

abdo ultrasound

84
Q

preterm baby with vomiting, lethargy and abdo distension

A

necrotising enterocolitis

85
Q

when would jaundice due to haemolysis present

A

within 24 hours of birth

86
Q

what jaundice is pathological

A

jaundice in first 24 hours of life

87
Q

causes noisy breathing in baby with fever, cough, reduced oral intake

A

bronchiolitis

88
Q

who gets kawasaki disease

A

children younger than 5

89
Q

what are the 5 principal clinical features of kawasaki disease

A
  • bilateral conjunctival injection
  • changes in the lips and oral cavity
  • cervical lymphadenopathy
  • extremity changes
  • polymorphous rash
90
Q

what medication improves survival in chronic congestive heart failure

A

ACEis

91
Q

what is the test for glandular fever (epstein barr)

A

monospot test

exam stuff (55 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions