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exam stuff > year 2 more passmed > Flashcards

year 2 more passmed Flashcards

1
Q

first line investigation for a suspected osteoporotic vertebral fracture

A

x-ray

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2
Q

what is the electrolyte abnormality in cushings

A

hypokalaemia metabolic acidosis

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3
Q

how is treatment for addisons changed when the patient is systemically unwell

A

double the hydrocortisone dose, keep the same fludrocortisone doe

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4
Q

which drugs increase the risk of osteonecrosis

A

steroids

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5
Q

what do you think when a diabetic patient presents with erratic blood glucose control, vomiting and bloating

A

gastroparesis

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6
Q

drug treatment for parathyroid adenoma

A

cinacalcet

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7
Q

which thyroid cancer spreads mainly by blood

A

follicular

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8
Q

which type of thyroid cancer cannot be determined if its malignant or not by fine needle aspiration cytology

A

follicular

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9
Q

visual field defect with a pituitary tumour

A

optic chiasm compression

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10
Q

what bacteria causes necrotising fasciitis

A

panton valentine leukocidin

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11
Q

first line investigation for bile coloured vomit in babies

A

abdo x-ray

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12
Q

first line investigation for pyloric stenosis in a baby

A

abdo ultrasound

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13
Q

what is toxic epidermal necrolysis

A

severe, acute, superficial desquamating eruption often secondary to a drug

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14
Q

what is neurogenic pruritus

A

caused by an effect on the central nervous system receptors such as renal or liver failure, thyroid disease or in association with malignancy

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15
Q

absent red reflexes

A

cataracts

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16
Q

painful loss of central vision, large haemorrhage in the fovea

A

wet ARMD

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17
Q

what is a diagnostic sign of proliferative diabetic retinopathy

A

new vessel growth at disc

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18
Q

wrist drop is a response to damage of what nerve

A

radial

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19
Q

claw hand is a response to damage of what nerve

A

ulnar nerve

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20
Q

what pathway is responsible for ketone development in states of insulin depletion

A

lipolysis

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21
Q

function of melanocytes

A

DNA protection from ultraviolet irradiation

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22
Q

which hormone triggers ovulation

A

LH

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23
Q

what bacteria is croup caused by

A

para-influenzae virus

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24
Q

if someone presents with a non-blanching rash, headache, neck stiffness and a strong bounding pulse, what type of shock is this

A

septic

25
Q

what type of hearing loss can congenital cytomegalovirus cause

A

sensorineural

26
Q

what is finkelsteins test for

A

de quervains tensosynovitis

27
Q

what is renal artery stenosis characterised by

A

refractory hypertension and worsening renal function after being started on an ARB or and ACEi

28
Q

what is a contraindication for renal transplant

A

metastatic active cancer

29
Q

what drugs should be stopped in AKI

A
  • NSAIDS
  • metformin
  • ACEis
  • gentamicin
  • ARBs
  • lithium
  • digoxin
30
Q

what are the indications for dialysis

A

Acidosis (severe metabolic acidosis with pH of less than 7.20)
Electrolyte imbalance (persistent hyperkalaemia of more than 7 mM
Intoxication (poisoning)
Oedema (refractory pulmonary oedema)
Uraemia (encephalopathy or pericarditis).

AEIOU

31
Q

classic presentation of acute interstitial nephritis

A
  • white cell casts are seen
  • triggered by meds (antibiotics)
  • non-oliguric
  • rash
  • fever
  • eosinophilia
32
Q

presentation of pyelonephritis

A

symptoms of lower UTI

  • dysuria
  • polyuria
  • frequency
  • chills
  • fever
  • flank pain
33
Q

what does chronic kidney disease look like on USS

A

bilateral shrunken kidneys

34
Q

treatment of refractory hyperkalaemia (hyperkalaemia that won’t go away)

A

haemofiltration

35
Q

what can high levels of urea (ureamia) cause

A
  • nausea
  • vomiting
  • confusion
  • seizures
  • coma
36
Q

what is an indication for renal biopsy

A

proteinuria and haematuria (with casts) on urine microscopy

37
Q

what is the commonest cause of peritoneal dialysis peritonitis

A

staph epidermis

38
Q

when should you start dialysis in diabetic patients

A

when eGFR is less than 10 or 15

39
Q

what does muddy brown casts in urine mean

A

acute tubular necrosis

40
Q

what is used as a vitamin D supplement in end stage renal disease

A

alfacalcidol

41
Q

what causes hypercoagulation in nephrotic syndrome

A

loss of antithrombin III and plasminogen via the kidneys

42
Q

how can alcohol bingeing lead to polyuria

A

ADH suppression in the posterior pituitary gland leading to polyuria

43
Q

what diuretics act on the proximal convoluted tubule

A

carbonic anhydrase inhibitor

44
Q

treatment for anaemia in CKD

A

start oral iron replacement

-after this you can start erythropoietin

45
Q

what does high phosphate levels in CKD cause

A

osteomalacia

46
Q

management of CKD-mineral bone disease

low calcium high phosphate

A

low phosphate diet at first

47
Q

what does a rise in urea but not creatinine indicate

A

dehydration

48
Q

best screening for adult polycystic kidney disease

A

ultrasound

49
Q

what acid-base disturbance does diarrhoea cause

A

normal anion gap metabolic acidosis

50
Q

what acid-base disturbance does addisons cause

A

metabolic acidosis with normal anion gap

51
Q

what does sepsis cause in terms of acid-base distribution

A

metabolic acidosis with raised anion gap

52
Q

which diuretic for ascites

A

aldosterone antagonists

53
Q

what is the commonest extra-renal manifestation of ADPKD

A

liver cysts

54
Q

what does widespread effacement of foot processes indicate

A

minimal change GN

55
Q

what does myeloma usually present with

A

anaemia, hypercalcaemia, bone pain, and AKI.

56
Q

first line treatment for blepharitis

A
  • hot compress

- mechanical removal of lid debris

57
Q
  • vesicular rash around the eye, which may or may not involve the actual eye itself
  • Hutchinson’s sign: rash on the tip or side of the nose. Indicates nasociliary involvement and is a strong risk factor for ocular involvement

what do these indicate

A

ocular involvement of shingles

-herpes zoster opthalmicus

58
Q

which eye condition is ankylosing spondylitis associated with

A

anterior uveitis

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