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exam stuff > passmed :0 > Flashcards

passmed :0 Flashcards

1
Q

bone profile results for osteoporosis

A

usually normal
normal PTH
normal calcium
normal phosphate

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2
Q

first line treatment for ankylosing spondy

A

exercise and NSAIDs

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3
Q

treatment for an acute attack of gout

A

continue allopurinol if already on it

start colchicine

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4
Q

tumour markers for testicular cancer

A
  • gynaecomastia
  • excess HCG
  • excess oestrogen
  • increased AFP
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5
Q

what is diuresis after relief of urinary retention

A

polyuric state large volumes of salt and water are lost, with the risk of patients developing hypovolaemia, dehydration, and electrolyte imbalances.

at first its physiological but after 48hrs its pathological

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6
Q

treatment for renal cell carcinoma

A

radical nephrectomy

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7
Q

organism for peritonitis secondary to peritoneal dialysis

A

staph epidermis

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8
Q

medical treatment for someone with lots of calcium in their urine and a renal stone

A

thiazide diuretics

-as thiazides increase distal tubular calcium reabsorption therefore decrease calcium in the urine and stone formation

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9
Q

painless visible haematuria

A

bladder cancer

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10
Q

treatment for patients with severe hyperkalaemia (>6.5)

A

IV calcium gluconate

IV insulin/dextrose

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11
Q

methods to remove potassium from the body

A
  • calcium resonium
  • loop diuretics
  • dialysis
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12
Q

which testicular cancer has a better prognosis

A

seminomas

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13
Q

what should all men with erectile dysfunction get checked

A

morning testosterone

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14
Q

schistosoma infection is strongly linked to which type of cancer

A

SCC bladder

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15
Q

mechanism of action of goserelin

A

GnRH agonist

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16
Q

if patients on spironolactone get gynaecomastia, which diuretic should they be switched to

A

eplerenone

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17
Q

investigation for priapism

A

cavernosal blood gas analysis

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18
Q

what are the indications for haemodialysis in AKI

A
  • hyperkalaemia (>7) or unresponsive to medical therapy >6.5
  • severe acidosis (pH<7.15)
  • fluid overload e.g. pulmonary oedema
  • urea >40, pericardial rub/effusion
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19
Q

what nerve innervates the external urethral sphincter

A

pudendal nerve

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20
Q

does diarrhoea cause acidosis or alkalosis

A

acidosis

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21
Q

does vomiting cause alkalosis or acidosis

A

alkalosis

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22
Q

treatment for osteomalacia in CKD patients

A

aledronic acid

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23
Q

treatment for anaemia in CKD

A

oral iron before erythropoietin

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24
Q

why does CKD lead to anaemia

A

due to reduced levels of erythropoietin

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25
Q

first thing you do when someone has a potassium of over 6

A

ECG!!!!!!!!!!

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26
Q

if someone under age of 40 has haematuria but no bacteria where should they be sent?

A

nephrology

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27
Q

if someone is over the age of 40 with haematuria and bacteria where should they be sent

A

urology for a cytoscopy

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28
Q

someone has progressive weakness, hepatomegaly, dyspnoea, proteinuria and worsening renal function

A

amyloidosis

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29
Q

most common viral infection in organ transplant patients

A

CMV

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30
Q

is pulmonary hypertension a feature of limited or diffuse systemic sclerosis

A

limited

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31
Q

treatment for a person who has had a pulmonary embolus and has anti-phospholipid syndrome

A

life long warfarin

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32
Q

should patients with SLE be put on long term steroids

A

no

-should only be used when required and for short periods of time

33
Q

can lupus cause MI’s

A

yes

34
Q

can joints with osteoarthritis have effusion

A

yes

35
Q

can joints with osteoarthritis show synovitis

A

no

36
Q

how old are people that get PMR

A

almost always over 50

37
Q

is there any blood abnormalities in fibromyalgia

A

no

38
Q

treatment for clubfoot

A

ponseti technique

39
Q

erb’s palsy (waiters tip) is damage to what nerve roots

A

C5 and 6

40
Q

which test is the ortolani one

A

the one where the hip is abducted

41
Q

does DDH affect more girls or boys

A

girls

42
Q

what are the red flags for back pain

A
  • clinical evidence of cauda equina
  • back pain in under 20yrs
  • new back pain in over 60yrs
  • constant, severe pain thats worst at night
  • systemic upset
43
Q

when is calf pain worst in spinal stenosis

A 
walking downhill
(s=going down to the subway)
44
Q

when is calf pain worst in peripheral artery disease

A 
walking uphill
(p = pain, walking uphill is painful)
45
Q

what is wolff’s law

A

that bone will be laid down along areas of stress

46
Q

which tendon most commonly needs surgical repair when injured

A

patella tendon

47
Q

which artery could be injured in a supracondylar fracture

A

brachial

48
Q

which bone is the slowest healing

A

tibia

49
Q

should a steroid injection be administered in achilles tendonitis

A

no

-risk of rupture

50
Q

what requires regular monitoring when someone is on hydroxychloroquine

A

visual acuity

-may result in severe and permanent retinopathy

51
Q

side effect of aledronic acid

A

oesophageal problems

51
Q

side effect of aledronic acid

A

oesophageal problems

52
Q

first line investigation for osteoporotic vertebral fracture

A

X-ray

53
Q

which shoulder dislocations are seen in seizures and shock

A

posterior

54
Q

what does a positive femoral nerve stretch test indicate

A

referred lumbar spine pain as a cause of hip pain

55
Q

first line for osteoporosis

A

alendronate

56
Q

if a patient with osteoporosis cannot tolerate alendronate what should be given instead

A

risedronate or etidronate

57
Q

why would people not be able to tolerate alendronate (bisphosphonates)

A

GI problems

58
Q

when is pain worst in tennis elbow

A
  • wrist extension against resistance
  • supination of the forearm

(tennis the ball is high so supination and extension go up)

59
Q

is a subcaptial fracture intracapsular or extracapsular

A

intracapsular

60
Q

is chondrocalcinosis seen in pseudogout or gout

A

pseudogout

61
Q

what needs to be screened for in dermatomyositis

A

malignancy

-malignancy and dermatomyositis are linked

62
Q

investigation for bone cancer

A

x-ray

63
Q

msk risk factors of taking long-term steroids

A

avascular necrosis

64
Q

cardiac complication of ehler-danlos

A

aortic regurgitation

65
Q

what drugs can cause tinnitus

A

NSAIDs

aspirin

66
Q

where does webers lateralise to

A

the unaffected side of sensorineural

67
Q

what type of hearing loss does perforated eardrum cause

A

conductive

68
Q

commonest tumours of parotid gland

A

pleomorphic adenoma

69
Q

what type of infection is tonsillar SCC associated with

A

HPV

70
Q

management for someone with sudden unilateral sensorineural hearing loss

A
  • refer urgently to ENT

- steroids

71
Q

what does mixed hearing loss look like on an audiogram

A

both air and bone conduction are impaired, with air conduction often being ‘worse’ than bone

72
Q

what is nasopharyngeal carcinoma related to

A

south china

EBV

73
Q

what is laryngeal carcinoma related to

A

cigarettes and alcohol

74
Q

what is the most common pathogen in leg cellulitis

A

strep pyogenes

75
Q

what hypertension medication can cause hyponatraemia

A

bendroflumethiazide

76
Q

is uveitis associated with a small or big pupil

A

small

77
Q

what nerve is responsible for closing your eyelids

A

CN 7

78
Q

what do you do to a conscious choking baby

A

chest thrusts

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