WBC, LN, Spleen Flashcards

1
Q

cut off value for clinically significant neutropenia

A

<500/mm3

considered agranulocytosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

most common cause of agranulocytosis

A

drug toxicity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

___ syndrome is associated with inadequate of ineffective granulopoiesis

A

kostmann syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

___ syndrome of ineffective hematopoeisis. abnormal cells die before they can go out of the marrow resulting to low peripheral blood counts and compensatory hypercellular marrow

A

myelodysplastic syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

___ center is the area of B-cell activation

A

germinal center

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

___ zone contains small, naive B cells in LN

A

mantle zone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

pattern of hyperplasia seen in acute viral infections; mottled appearance

A

paracortical hyperplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

[diagnosis]

younger, primitive cells, aggressive clinical course, amenable to treatment

A

Acute leukemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

[diagnosis]

older, mature looking cells, indolent clinical course, subtle symptoms, resistant to treatment

A

chronic leukemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

sanctuary sites of Bcell ALL and T cell ALL

A

testis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

this refers to absence of blasts in peripheral blood; >100,000/mm3

A

aleukemic leukemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

t(15;17)

A

APML

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

t(12;21)

A

B-CELL ALL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

NOTCH-1 mutation

A

T-CELL ALL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

[diagnosis]

needle-like azurophilic granules

A

APML

auer rods

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

___ cells when there are numerous auer rods. seen in APML. Associated with DIC

A

faggot cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

[diagnosis]

constitutional symptoms, hepatosplenomegaly, lymphadenopathy, hypogammaglobinemia, >5,000/mm3 PBS, small lymphocytes with smudge cells

A

CLL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

[diagnosis]

constitutional symptoms, hepatosplenomegaly, lymphadenopathy, hypogammaglobinemia, <5,000/mm3 PBS, small lymphocytes with smudge cells

A

SLL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Chronic lymphomas that can undergo Richter Syndrome

A

CLL, SLL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

progression of CLL to DLBCL is called

A

richter syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

t(9;22)

A

CML

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

[diagnosis]

WBC >100,000/ mm3
thrombocytosis
Blast <10% in PBS

A

CML

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

[diagnosis of CML phase]

  1. Increasing WBC unresponsive to therapy
  2. Basophils >20%
  3. Thrombocytes <100,000 unrelated to therapy OR
  4. > 1,000,000 unresponsive to therapy
  5. increasing splenomegaly
A

Accelerated phase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

____ (low/high) leukocyte alkaline phosphatase level in CML

25
receptor used by drugs in treating CML
Tyrosine Kinase DOC: imatinib
26
[diagnosis] LN: large, multiple nuclei or single with multiple lobes, each with nucleolous
Hodgkin lymphoma
27
[subtype of HL] Reactive T-cells with fibrous bands forming nodules, not associated with EBV
nodular sclerosis
28
[subtype of HL] mixed leukocytic infiltrate without fibrous nodules, 70% associated with EBC
mixed cellularuty
29
[subtype of HL] rich reactive T-cell infiltrate, 40% associated with EBV
lymphocyte rich
30
[subtype of HL] rare reactive lymphocyte, CD15 + and CD 30 +; mostly associated with EBV
lymphocyte depleted
31
[subtype of HL] reactive B cells, popcorn reed steinberg cells, not associated with EBV CD15 (-) CD30 (-) CD20 (+)
Lymphocyte predominant
32
staging system used in hodgkin lymphoma
ann arbor classification
33
most common indolent lymphoma of adults
follicular lymphoma
34
[diagnosis] painless, generalized lymphadenopathy, BMA: paratrabecular lymphoid aggregates, can undergo richter syndrome transform to DLBCL or Burkitt lymphoma
Follicular lymphoma
35
[diagnosis] LN involved: single, axial group of nodes (cervical, mediastinal, para-aortic, contiguous spread
Hodgkin lymphoma
36
[diagnosis] LN involvement: multiple, peripheral LN, non-contiguous spread, has extranodal presentation, mesenteric and waldeyer ring are commonly involved
non-hodgkin lymphoma
37
most common lymphoma of adults
Diffuse large B-cell lymphoma
38
[diagnosis] approx 60/M rapidly enlarging mass at nodal or extranodal site, histologically, diffuse pattern of growth; large cell with highly anaplastic appearance
DLBCL
39
Immunostains used in DLBCL
CD45, Cytokeratin, vimentin
40
fastest growing human tumor
Burkitt lymphoma
41
[diagnosis] children/young adults, mandibular mass, 100% latent infection with EBV Histologically: diffuse infiltration of medium-sized anaplastic lymphocytes that phagocytose apoptotic lymphocytes
Endemic burkitt
42
[diagnosis] children/young adults, ileocecum, peritoneal mass, 15-20% latent infection with EBV Histologically: diffuse infiltration of medium-sized anaplastic lymphocytes that phagocytose apoptotic lymphocytes
Sporadic burkitt
43
t(8;14) mutation
burkitt lymphoma
44
[diagnosis, type of NHL] type of lymphoma that can arise in salivary glands (sjogren syndrome), thyroid gland (hashimoto thyroiditis), stomach (H. pylori)
marginal zone lymphoma
45
[diagnosis] infiltration of epidermis and upper dermis T cells with cerebriform nuclei
mycosis fungoides/Cutaneous T cell lymphoma
46
____ syndrome associated with mycosis fungoides characterized as generalized exfloative erythroderma and leukemia T-cells with cerebriform nuclei
Sezary Syndrome
47
[diagnosis] 65-75 years old, PAS(+) cytoplasmic (russel bodies) or nuclear inclusion (dutcher bodies) containing Ig
Multiple myeloma
48
[diagnosis] punched out bone lesions, bence-jone proteinuria, hypercalcemia
Multiple myeloma
49
[type of MDS] Prussian blue (+) iron-laden mitochondria in erythroblast, megaloblastoid maturation, nuclear budding, abnormalities, mishapen polypoid nuclei
erythroid MDS
50
[type of MDS] | presence of PMNs with only 2 lobes
granulocytic MDS pseudo pelger huet cell
51
[diagnosis] pseudo Pelger Huet Cell
Granulocytic MDS
52
[type of MDS] megakaryocyte with multiple separated nuclei
megakaryocytic MDS
53
[diagnosis] pawn ball megakaryocyte
megakaryocytic MDS
54
[diagnosis] JAK2 mutation plethoric, thrombosis, infarcts, hemorrahge, hyperuricemia, gout, throbbing and burning of hands and feet due to thrombotic occlusion by platelet aggregates
PV
55
[diagnosis] Thrombosis, infarcts, hemorrhage, escape of erythroid and granulocytic precursos into circulation and sites of extramedullary hematopoiesis
Essential Thrombocytopenia
56
[diagnosis] extensive deposition of collagen in marrow by non-neoplastic fibroblasts; WBC and platelet predominance, pronounced hepatosplenomegaly, hyperuricemia/gout, presence of dacrocytes, fibrotic marrow converted into bone, osteo sclerosis
Primary myelofibrosis
57
[diagnosis] proliferative disorder of dendritic cells in skin, presence of birbeck granules, presence of racket shaped granules
langerhands histiocytosis
58
[diagnosis] birbeck granules, pentalaminar racket-shaped granules
langerhans histiocytosis