Lung and Pleura Flashcards

1
Q

[diagnosis]

abrupt onset of significant hypoxemia and bilateral infiltrates without heart failure

A

acute lung injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

type II pneumocyte necrosis can lead to hypoxemia due to decrease in

A

surfactant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

[diagnosis: type of lung disease]

lung volume is increased
FEV1 severely decreased
FVC decreased
FEV1/FVC = <0.7

A

obstructive lung disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

[diagnosis: type of lung disease]

lung volume decreased
FEV1 decreased
FVC severely decreased
FEV1/FVC = normal to increased

A

restrictive lung disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

[diagnosis: type of lung disease]

Associated conditions are bronchial asthma, COPD, emphysema, chronic bronchitis, bronchiectasis

A

obstructive lung disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

[diagnosis: type of lung disease]

associated conditions include pulmonary fibrosing disease, chest wall disorders

A

restrictive lung disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

[diagnosis]

Irreversible destruction fo air spaces distal to terminal bronchiole, leading to their enlargement, without obvious fibrosis

abnormally large alveoli separated by thin septa with only focal centriacinar fibrosis

A

emphysema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

[diagnosis]

cough with sputum production for at least 3 months at least 2 consecutive years without identifiable cause

A

chronic bronchitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

[type of emphysema]

most common, associated with smoking

A

centriacinar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

[type of emphysema]

less common, from respiratory bronchiole to alveoli, associated with alpha 1 antitrypsin deficiency

A

panacinar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

type on emphysema associated with spontaneous pneumothorax

A

distal acinar ir paraseptal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

[diagnosis: type of COPD]

common in 40-45 y/o, infection is common, increased airway resistance, prominent vessels and enlarged heart, cor pulmonary is common

A

predominant bronchtis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

[diagnosis: type of COPD]
common among 50-75 years old, occasional infection, not associated with cor pulmonale, airway resistance is increased, noted hyperinflation of lungs and small heart

A

predominant emphysema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

[diagnosis]

chronic disorder of conducting airways, immunologic reaction, episodic bronchoconstriction due to increased airway sensitivity, inflammation of bronchial walls

A

Bronchial asthma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

In bronchial asthma, the first exposure is associated with ___ response

A

TH2 response, IgE production and eosinophil recruitment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Subsequent exposure in bronchial asthma is associated with

A

mast cell degranulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

[diagnosis]
occlusion of bronchi and bronchioles by thick tenacious mucous plug; presence of curshmann spirals and charcot-leyden crystals

A

status asthmaticus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

[diagnosis]

destruction of smooth muscle and elastic tissue; permanent dilation of bronchi and bronchioles

A

bronchiectasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

[diagnosis]

progressive interstitial pulmonary fibrosis and respiratory failure

A

idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

[diagnosis]

patchy interstitial fibrosis with varying age; initially starts with fibroplastic focus later turn to honeycomb fibrosis

A

idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

most common pneumoconiosis in the world

A

silicosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

[diagnosis; pneumoconiosis]

eggshell calcifications of LN, fine nodularities in the upper lung zone; increased susceptibility to tuberculosis

A

silicosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

most common malignancy associated with asbestosis

A

lung CA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

[diagnosis]

non-caseating granuloma with giant cell; presence of schaumann bodies (concretions of Ca and proteins) and asteroid bodies (stellate inclusions in giant cells)

A

sarcoidosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

cut-off value for pulmonary hypertension

A

mean PA pressure >/25

26
Q

[diagnosis]

BMPR2 LOF mutation; medial hypertrophy of the pulmonary muscular and elastic arteries, pulmonary arterial atherosclerosis, RVH

A

pulmonary hypertension

27
Q

location of the cough center (specific location in the brainstem)

A

nucleus tractus solitarius

28
Q

[adventitious breath sound]

discontinuous, intermittent, non-musical, brief

like dots in time

A

crackles or rales

29
Q

[adventitious breath sounds]

continuous, >/ 250msec, musical, prolonged, like dashes in time; high pitch with hissing and shrill quality

A

wheeze

30
Q

[adventitious breath sounds]

continuous, >/ 250msec, musical, prolonged, like dashes in time; low pitch, snoring quality

A

rhonchi

31
Q

[diagnosis]

patchy consolidation, consolidated areas of acute suppurative inflammation, neutrophil-rich exudate that fills the ariways

A

bronchpneumonia

32
Q

[stage of pneumonia]

red, heavy boggy, few neutrophils, numerous bacteria

A

congestion

33
Q

[stage of pneumonia]

red, firm, airless, numerous neutrophils, RBCs and fibrin

A

red hepatization

34
Q

[stage of pneumonia]

grayish brown; RBCs disintegrate, fibrinosuppurative exudate

A

gray hepatization

35
Q

[stage of pneumonia]

Resorption of exudates or organization (fibrosis); ingestion by macrophages

A

resolution

36
Q

[type of pneumonia]

mononuclear infiltrates (lymphocytes, monocytes, plasma cell)

A

viral pneumonia

37
Q

[type of pneumonia]

predominance of neutrophil, intra-alveolar inflammation

A

bacterial pneumonia

38
Q

suppurative destruction of the lung parenchyma with central area of cavitation

A

lung abscess

39
Q

[diagnosis: PICH]

CMV, pneumocystis jirovicii, drug reaction cause ___ infiltrates

A

diffuse

40
Q

[diagnosis: PICH]

G(-) bacteria, S. aureus, aspergillus, candida, malignancy cause ___ infiltrates

A

focal

41
Q

[type of pneumonia: chronic or acute]

localized lesion without LN involvement

A

chronic

42
Q

[lung CA]

most common, seen in never smokers and females, peripheral location

A

adenocarcinoma

43
Q

[lung CA]

glandular differentiation with mucin production

A

adenocarcinoma

44
Q

[lung CA]

second most common, common in males, central/hilar location

A

squamous cell CA

45
Q

[lung CA]

causes paraneoplastic syndrome: hypercalcemia due to PTHrP

A

squamous cell

46
Q

[lung CA]

keratinization (pearls or dyskeratotic cells), intercellular bridges

A

squamous cell CA

47
Q

[lung CA]

third most common, highest association with smoking, located either central/hilar/peripheral

A

small cell CA

48
Q

[lung CA]

salt and paper chromatin, necrosis, basophilic staining of vessel walls

A

small cell CA

49
Q

[lung CA]

causes paraneoplastic syndrome: SIADH and Cushing syndrome

A

small cell CA

50
Q

[lung CA]

no squamous or glandular differentiation, negative IHC stain for adenoCA and SCCA, large pleomorphic cell

A

large cell CA

51
Q

[paraneoplastic syndrome]

enophthalmos, ptosis, miosis, anhidrosis, lung tumor on the superior sulcus

A

horner syndrome (pancoast tumor)

52
Q

[paraneoplastic syndrome]

Autoantibodies agains neuronal calcium channel

A

lambert eaton myasthenic syndrome

53
Q

[diagnosis]

intraluminal polypoid mass seen mostly on mainstem bronchi, collar button lesion; rosette-like arrangement of neoplastic cells; rare mitotic activity; regular cells

A

carcinoid

54
Q

[diagnosis]

diarrhea, flushing, cyanosis

A

carcinoid syndrome

55
Q

primary tumor that is notorious in producing massive hemorrhagic pleural effusion

A

mesothelioma

56
Q

[diagnosis: pneumothorax]

rupture of alveoli in pulmonary disease

A

spontaneous

57
Q

[diagnosis: pneumothorax]

young people, subpleural blebs, self limiting, recurrent attacks common

A

spontaneous idiopathic

58
Q

[diagnosis: pneumothorax]

due to perforating injury to the chest wall

A

traumatic

59
Q

[diagnosis: pneumothorax]

sufficient to cause circulatory compression to mediastinal structures

A

tension

60
Q

[diagnosis: lung primary CA]

chest pain, dyspnea, recurrent pleural effusion

thick layer of soft, gelatinous, grayish pink tumor tissue enclosing affected ling

A

malignant mesothelioma