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Revise Radiology Qs Notes > Revise Radiology MSK > Flashcards

Revise Radiology MSK Flashcards

1
Q

T1 dark line in vertebral body with normal signal elsewhere

A

Osteoporotic compression fracture

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2
Q

Sequestrum

A

Piece of necrotic bone surrounded by granulation tissue.
Sign of active osteomyelitis

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3
Q

Thickening of flexor tendon sheath with locking sensation

A

Trigger finger

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4
Q

Associated with aneurysmal bone cyst

A

Chondroblastoma,
Osteoblastoma,
Giant cell tumour,
Fibroxanthoma,

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5
Q

Smoldering infection in hands without periosteal reaction in children

A

Tuberculous dactylitis

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6
Q

Achondroplasia spinal appearances

A

Posterior vertebral scalloping,
Gibbus deformity,
short pedicle canal stenosis
Decreasing interpedicular distance
Widening of intervertebral discs

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7
Q

Chronic kidney disease causes (endocrine)

A

Hyperparathyroidism

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8
Q

Tibial stress fracture risk of malunion

A

Anterior = high risk
Posteriomedial = low risk

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9
Q

Wrist deformities and relevant angles

A

Normal SL = 30-60. Normal CL < 30
SLAC: SL > 60, CL < 30
DISI: SL > 60, CL > 30
VISI: SL <30, CL >30

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10
Q

Pedunculated bone tumour arising from metaphysis of long bones with cartilaginous cap

A

Osteochondroma

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11
Q

Marrow darker than muscle on T1, Lucent metaphyseal bands on X-ray, child

A

Leukaemia

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12
Q

Lodwick classification of lytic lesions

A

1a: geographic with thin, sclerotic margin
1b: well defined border without sclerosis
1c: ill defined border
2: moth eaten
3: permeative

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13
Q

DIP and PIP joint involvement with central erosions

A

Erosive osteoarthritis

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14
Q

Bulky mass, posterior distal femoral metaphysis, string sign

A

Parosteal osteosarcoma

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15
Q

Parosteal vs periosteal sarcoma

A

Metaphysis vs diaphysis
50% vs no marrow extension
Outer vs inner layer of periosteum

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16
Q

Maffucci vs Ollier

A

Ollier: multiple enchondromas, slight increase in chondrosarcoma risk
Maffucci: multiple enchondromas, haemangiomas, higher sarcoma risk

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17
Q

Normal atlanto-occipital distance

A

<5mm

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18
Q

elastofibroma dorsi

A

Benign soft tissue lesion, usually infrascapular. Can show PET uptake. Similar density to muscle with fat component

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19
Q

Well defined lucent lesion in proximal humerus with intact trabeculae

A

Pseudocyst of humerus. Get CT

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20
Q

Well defined lytic lesion with non-sclerotic margin

A

Giant cell tumour

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21
Q

Spotty osteoporosis following recent ORIF

A

RSD

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22
Q

Geographic lytic lesion with sclerotic margin in intertrochanteric NOF

A

Liposclerosing myxofibroma (10% risk of malignant degeneration)

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23
Q

Osteochondromas pointing towards the joint, originating from the epiphysis

A

Trevor disease

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24
Q

Scaphoid fracture mechanism of injury

A

Hyperextension

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25
Q

Fibrous lesion between planter portions of metatarsal heads

A

Morton’s neuroma

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26
Q

Eccentric lytic lesion in knee with thin sclerotic border

A

Fibrous cortical defect (<3cm)
Non-ossifying fibroma (>3cm)

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27
Q

Linear or triangular T1/T2 bright structure projecting from centre of posterior vertebral bodies

A

Basivertebral veins

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28
Q

Anserine bursa of the knee

A

Consists of Sartorius, Gracilis and Semitendinosus tendons, can become inflamed leading to pes anserine bursitis, characterised by medial knee pain

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29
Q

Chronic wrist pain, positive ulnar variance, cystic changes in lunate bone

A

Ulnar impaction syndrome

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30
Q

Multiple loose bodies with varying calcification in the knee with joint effusion

A

Synovial chondromatosis

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31
Q

Most common pulley injury in competitive sports

A

A2

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32
Q

Types of SLAP tear

A

Type 1: Superior labrum frayed but still attached
Type 2: Superior labrum and biceps anchor detached from glenoid rim
Type 3: bucket handle tear
Type 4: Bucket handle tear extending into biceps tendon

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33
Q

Anterior tibial lesion in child with anterior tibial bowing

A

Osseofibrous dysplasia

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34
Q

Mild fever, chronic pain, well defined lytic lesion with sclerotic rim

A

Brodie’s abscess

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35
Q

Infant, symmetrical metaphyseal fractures with diaphyseal diffuse periosteal reaction

A

Congenital syphilis

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36
Q

Bilateral periostitis of distal long bones

A

Hypertrophic osteoarthropathy

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37
Q

Vertebral body squaring with Romanus lesions

A

Seen in early ank spond

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38
Q

Klippel-Feil syndrome associated with

A

Unilateral renal agenesis

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39
Q

Epidural collection along the ALL

A

TB spondylitis (Pott’s disease)

40
Q

Primary hyperparathyroidism features

A

Subperiosteal resorption of bone

41
Q

Osteopenia with reduced joint space and cartilage calcification in hands

A

Haemochromotosis

42
Q

Commonest soft tissue injury associated with avulsion of medial proximal tibia

A

MCL tear

43
Q

DDH causes increased risk of

A

Labral tears

44
Q

Retro-achilles bursitis, thickening of achilles tendon, calcaneal bony prominence

A

Mullholland deformity/Haglund’s disease

45
Q

Avulsion fracture at base of proximal first phalanx with UCL disruption

A

Gamekeeper’s thumb

46
Q

Longitudinal temporal bone fractures

A

Associated with inco-stapedal joint dislocation

47
Q

Hypoechoic swelling of the median nerve with increased cross sectional area

A

Carpal tunnel syndrome

48
Q

Best sequence to assess Triangular fibrocartilage complex tear

A

T2 coronal

49
Q

washed out hand with proximal distribution, premature fusion of growth plates

A

Juvenile idiopathic arthritis

50
Q

Double density sign on bone scintigraphy

A

Osteoid osteoma

51
Q

Gorlin Goltz associated with

A

Increased risk of medulloblastomas

52
Q

Best modality to assess pathological fractures

A

CT

53
Q

Femoral fracture with long periosteal reaction and underlying pagets

A

Atypical fracture, due to bisphosphonate

54
Q

Fragment near the medial process of calcaneal tuberosity, often associated with plantar spur

A

Plantar Fascia rupture

55
Q

Kaposi sarcoma (MRI)

A

Intermediate T2, high T2 signal in lower extremeties with variable gadolinium enhancement

56
Q

Melorhheostosis management

A

Conservative

57
Q

AVN grading

A

Ficat and Arlet classification:
Grade 2: Osteopenia, sclerosis and cysts with no crescent sign.
Grade 3: crescent sign

58
Q

Hill sachs vs bankart

A

Hill sacs are more common and affect posteriosuperior humeral head
Bankart affects anterior inferior glenoid

59
Q

Syrinx associated with

A

Neuropathic arthropathy

60
Q

Most sensitive test for HOA

A

MRI

61
Q

Marfans vs homocysteinuria

A

Upward vs downward lens dislocation

62
Q

Subligamentous collection along the anterior spine

A

TB

63
Q

Lesion arising from muscle causing cortical bone erosion

A

Malignant Fibrous Histiocytoma

64
Q

Talocalcaneal coalition associated with

A

Pes planus

65
Q

Fibrous dysplasia PET

A

hot

66
Q

Long fibula associated with

A

Achondroplasia

67
Q

Erosive arthritis

A

Central erosions, gullwing appearance

68
Q

incomplete femoral neck fractures associated with

A

Pagets

69
Q

Loss of lamina dura

A

Scleroderma

70
Q

Bennett vs Rolando

A

Both fractures through base of thumb metacarpal. Rolando is comminuted

71
Q

Heterogenous lesion in distal diaphysis with sclerotic margins

A

Medullary infarct

72
Q

High T2 loose bodies in the knee

A

Primary synovial chondromatosis

73
Q

Fever, irritability, coarse & irregular periosteal reaction with soft tissue swelling

A

Caffey disease - Infantile cortical hyperostosis

74
Q

FAST scan can reliably detect how much free fluid

A

> 200ml

75
Q

ECU tendon moved from original position

A

Tendon sheath synovitis

76
Q

Best position for supraspinatus imaging

A

ADduction and Internal rotation (back pocket)

77
Q

Best position for biceps tendon visualisation

A

Arm ADducted, internally rotated (slight) and palm facing up

78
Q

Subscapularis best position

A

Arm ABducted, externally rotated

79
Q

Infraspinatus best position

A

Arm flexed, placed across chest

80
Q

Bilateral cortical thickening and sclerosis, with patchy marrow changes

A

Erdheim Chester disease

81
Q

Geographic bone destruction with wide zone of transition, fluid levels and aneurysmal dilatation

A

Telangiectatic osteosarcoma

82
Q

Ix to further investigate wrist fractures/dislocations

A

CT

83
Q

Jefferson fracture

A

Fracture of the ring of the atlas due to axial loading

84
Q

VACTERL spinal anomalies

A

Spina bifida occulta

85
Q

Complex presacral mass in baby

A

Sacrococcygeal teratoma

86
Q

diffuse osteosclerosis with splenomegaly

A

Myelofibrosis

87
Q

Flexion teardrop fractures associated with

A

Anterior cervical cord syndrome

88
Q

Expansile, lytic lesion with sclerotic rim in metaphysis, with internal septations and calcifications

A

Chondromyxoid fibroma

89
Q

Phemister Triad

A

Peri-articular osteoporosis
peripherally located osseous erosion,
gradual joint space narrowing
Suggests TB arthropathy

90
Q

Thin sclerotic rim, extension across physeal plate, occurs in epiphyses or equivalents

A

Chondroblastoma

91
Q

Large, lobular or cystic calcium deposits near joints

A

Tumoural calcinosis

92
Q

Communication between ankle joint and common peroneal tendon sheath

A

Calcaneofibular ligament rupture

93
Q

Posterior superior shoulder impingement

A

Involves infraspinatus and posterior fibres of supraspinatus. Seen in throwers

94
Q

Causes of sclerotic bone mets

A

Prostate, breast, lung

95
Q
A

Revise Radiology Qs Notes (60 decks)

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