Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Revise Radiology Qs Notes > Get Through Mock 7 > Flashcards

Get Through Mock 7 Flashcards

1
Q

Ix for ?urethral diverticulum

A

MR urethra pre and post void

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Causes of right tracheal wall indentation

A

Double aortic arch,
Right arch with aberrant left subclavian,
Left arch with aberrant right subclavian with PDA,
Common origin of innominate and left common carotid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Uniformly enhancing retro-orbital mass in child, progressive exophthalmos

A

Rhabdomyosarcoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Cobra shaped pelvic mass/abscess, long standing IUCD

A

Actinomycosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Biggest risk factor for pulmonary haemorrhage & pneumothorax in lung biopsy

A

Depth of lesion (deeper is worse)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Heel-toe maneuvre on US improves picture by…

A

Minimising anisotropy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Stable sized adnexal cystic lesion over months

A

Paraovarian cyst

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Pancreatic transplant performed usually with which procedure1

A

Simultaneous renal transplant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Post-menopausal, Low T1 and T2

A

Ovarian Fibroma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Meigs syndrome

A

Ovarian fibroma, ascites, pleural effusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Previous endometriosis, bright on T1 and T1 fat sat, enhancing nodules

A

Clear cell carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Previous endometriosis associated with

A

Clear cell carcinoma,
Endometrioid carcinoma (no enhancing solid nodules)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

SAH within 4th ventricle, responsible vessel

A

PICA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Non-cyanotic child, mild cardiomegaly and increased pulmonary vascularity

A

VSD or ASD (VSD is more common)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Pulmonary nodules with endobronchial abnormality

A

Amyloid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Lung amyloid features

A

Parenchymal - recurrent infections, peripheral tree-in-bud.
Bronchial - Mass like lesions arising from internal walls

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Compressive vertebral haemangiomas distribution

A

Most commonly in thoracic spine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Most common cause of oesophageal rupture

A

Iatrogenic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Commonest location of traumatic (blunt) oesophageal rupture (& associated hydrothorax)

A

Upper third, causing right sided hydrothorax

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Acute congestive heart failure and joint pain, recent infection (child)

A

Rheumatic fever

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Common causes of basal ganglia calcification

A

Hypoparathyroidism, pseudohypoparathyroidism,
idiopathic,
Normal variant,
Ageing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Endometrial thickening & ovarian mass in postmenopausal woman

A

Granulosa cell tumour

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Lytic lesion with cortical expansion and lack of sclerotic rim in spine

A

Spinal giant cell tumour

24
Q

Commonest location for spinal GCT

A

Sacrum

25
Q

Filling defect in uterine fundus on HSG, low T2 mass abutting the junctional zone on MRI

A

Adenomyosis

26
Q

Low T1/T2 ovarian lesion, with multilocular cystic lesion in same ovary

A

Brenner tumour, commonly associated with mucinous cystadenoma of same ovary

27
Q

Cervical cancer with T1 high signal

A

Suggests haemorrhage

28
Q

Cystic lesion in cervix with high T1, post radiotherapy for cervical ca

A

Cervical stenosis with haematometra

29
Q

Liver biopsy indicated, pt is on anticoagulant and has acute liver failure

A

Transjugular biopsy

30
Q

2YO, painless supraorbital fluctuant lump, scalloping of underlying bone and low internal echoes

A

Angular dermoid

31
Q

Absolute contraindications to percutaneous vertebroplasty

A

Haemorrhagic diathesis
Infection

32
Q

Indications for percutaneous vertebroplasty

A

Symptomatic vertebral angioma
Painful vertebral body tumours
Painful osteoporosis with loss of height or compression fractures

33
Q

Commonest cause of bone mets to preipheral bones

A

Lung cancer

34
Q

Air embolus during dialysis line insertion - Rx

A

Left lateral position and high flow O2

35
Q

LeFort fractures

A

All involve pterygoid plate
LeFort 1 involves maxilla and nasal septum.
LeFort 2 involves nasal bones, frontal process of maxilla, maxillary sinus, medial and inferior orbital wall
LeFort 3 involves lateral orbital wall and zygomatoco-frontal suture
LeFort 2 = Pyramidal fracture

36
Q

Thickening and clumping of cauda equina nerve roots

A

Arachnoiditis

37
Q

Similar to HOA, autosomal dominant

A

Pachydermoperiostosis

38
Q

High pressure chronic retention

A

Caused by prostatic hypertrophy usually.
Rx is catheter and possible TURP, not nephrostomy

39
Q

Testicular vein rupture during coiling, Rx

A

Conservative management

40
Q

Liver mets resectability criteria

A

No strict number of mets, but more than 6 is unlikely.
At least 3 segments spared.
No nodal involvement.
At least one hepatic and portal vein branch spared

41
Q

Most specific CT sign for mesenteric injury and associated bowel wall ischaemia

A

Decreased or absent enhancement

42
Q

Neonate, HIDA scan shows no tracer in bowel at 24hrs. Normal GB on US

A

Biliary atresia

43
Q

Angiographic signs of active bleeding

A

Contrast extravasation,
Vessel spasm,
Vessel cut-off,
Early venous filling

44
Q

MRI signal in brain swelling

A

Can be normal

45
Q

Scaphoid fractures distribution

A

Waist 70%, proximal pole 20%, distal pole 10%.

46
Q

Scaphoid AVN

A

Proximal pole is at more risk

47
Q

Focal dissection at site of angioplasty, next step

A

Is usually normal, measure pressure gradient, should be <10mmHg

48
Q

Endotracheal tube correct location

A

Should be at least 5cm above the carina

49
Q

Intra-aortic counter pulsation balloon location

A

Proximal aspect distal to arch vessels

50
Q

DISH extraspinal manifestations

A

Calcification of enthesis and hypertrophic bone changes, commonly involving olecranon, patella, calcaneum

51
Q

Stable low T2 and diffusion restriction in peripheral prostate. Firm nodule on DRE

A

Granulomatous prostatitis

52
Q

Gout erosion location

A

Typically extra-articular

53
Q

MCUG, child already on prophylactic Abx, what to do with Abx

A

Take 3 day course of treatment dose Trimethoprim, starting on day of procedure

54
Q

Heterogenous, hemispheric mass with necrosis, haemorrhage and enhancement

A

PNET

55
Q

Enhancing intravascular mass with flow voids and hydrocephalus

A

Choroid plexus papilloma

56
Q

Urothelial vs squamous cell bladder Ca

A

Squamous cell is sessile, rather than papillary, and doesn’t demonstrate pure intraluminal growth

Revise Radiology Qs Notes (60 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions