Review for test 3

Question 1

What is the effect of peptide YY?

Answer 1

Secreted from the ileum, and inhibits pancreatic secretions

Question 2

What are the three actions of the stomach?

Answer 2

Relaxation
Churning
Emptying

Question 3

What are the two neurotransmitters that stimulate neck cells of the stomach to secrete mucus?

Answer 3

Ach

PGs

Question 4

What is pyloric stenosis the result of?

Answer 4

Lack of NO at pylorus

Question 5

What is the primary controller of the cephalic phase of pancreatic secretion?

Answer 5

Vagovagal reflex

Question 6

What is the primary controller of the gastric phase of pancreatic secretion?

Answer 6

Distension in the stomach

Question 7

What is the primary controller of the intestinal phase of pancreatic secretion?

Answer 7

Fat on I cells, causing CCK release

Question 8

What part of the intestines are Brunner’s glands found?

Answer 8

duodenum

Question 9

What is the equation for TPR in the peripheral circulation?

Answer 9

TPR = dP/CO, where dP = (pressure at aorta - pressure at RA)

Question 10

What is the equation for TPR in the pulmonary circulation?

Answer 10

TPR = dP/CO, where dP = (pressure at pulmonary artery - pressure at pulmonary vein)

Question 11

What is the effect of NE/E on the afferent/efferent arterioles of the glomerulus?

Answer 11

Preferentially constricts afferent

Question 12

What is the effect of adenosine on afferent/efferent arterioles?

Answer 12

Preferentially constricts afferent arteriole.

Question 13

What stimulates FGF23 release, and what does it do?

Answer 13

high PO3 causes release. FGF23 causes increased secretion of PO3 via the kidneys, and decreases calcitriol production

Question 14

What cells release FGF23?

Answer 14

osteoblasts

Question 15

What is P2Y12?

Answer 15

G-protein coupled receptor that leads to platelet aggregation. –plavex inhibits this

Question 16

What is the MOA of botulina toxin?

Answer 16

Inhibits SNAREs/SNAPs of acetylcholine release

Question 17

What is the receptor located on sweat glands?

Answer 17

M3

Question 18

What causes vasoconstriction of peripheral skin vessels?

Answer 18

Reduction in symp alpha2 activity

Question 19

What is the effect of angiotensin on renal blood flow? What is the effect of ACE inhibitors?

Answer 19

Preferentially constricts efferent. Thus ACE inhibitors would decrease GFR if renal artery pressure falls below normal

Question 20

Where are the juxtaglomerular cells found?

Answer 20

Afferent arteriole

Question 21

What is effect of NSAIDs on GFR

Answer 21

Decreases because it inhibits prostaglandins at the afferent arteriole

Question 22

What is FVC?

Answer 22

forced vital capacity (VC = total amount of air with inspiration)

Question 23

What is FEV1?

Answer 23

The forced vital capacity after 1 second of maximal expiration

Question 24

What is FEV1/FVC?

Answer 24

Amount of air that can be expelled after 1 second, as a percent of FVC

Question 25

What happens to the TLC in obstructive lung disease? Peak flow? FEF25?

Answer 25

TLC Increases Peak flow decreases slightly FEF25 decreases markedly

Question 26

What happens to the TLC in an upper airway obstruction? Peak flow? FEF25?

Answer 26

TLC remains the same Flow reaches plateau FEF25 decreases

Question 27

What happens to the TLC in restrictive lung diseases? Peak flow? FEF25?

Answer 27

TLF decreases Peak flow decreases (everything gets smaller)

Question 28

What is the main muscle of inspiration?

Answer 28

Diaphragm

Question 29

What role does the diaphragm play in expiration?

Answer 29

Little--mostly relaxes

Question 30

How are the external intercostal arranged?

Answer 30

Superolaterally

Question 31

How are the internal intercostal arranged?

Answer 31

Inferolaterally

Question 32

Which are used for inspiration and which for expiration: internal and external intercostals?

Answer 32

``` Inspiration = External intercostals Expiration = Internal intercostals ```

Question 33

What are the accessory muscle of breathing? (3)

Answer 33

Scalenes/SCM Abdominal muscles External/internal intercostals

Question 34

What are the characteristics of asthma, in terms of reversibility, sputum production, and alveolar damage? (high, med, low).

Answer 34

Reversibility = high Sputum production = low Alveolar damage = low

Question 35

What are the characteristics of chronic bronchitis, in terms of reversibility, sputum production, and alveolar damage? (high, med, low).

Answer 35

Reversibility = med Sputum production = high Alveolar damage = med

Question 36

What are the characteristics of emphysema, in terms of reversibility, sputum production, and alveolar damage? (high, med, low).

Answer 36

Reversibility = low Sputum production = low Alveolar damage = high

Question 37

What are the two types of asthma?

Answer 37

Allergic | Non-allergic

Question 38

What is the one treatment that can be offered for allergic asthma, that cannot be offered for non-allergic asthma?

Answer 38

Immunotherapy

Question 39

Which is genetically acquired, allergic or nonallergic asthma

Answer 39

Allergic

Question 40

What are the three characteristics of asthma?

Answer 40

1. Contraction of airway smooth muscle 2. Airway wall thickening 3. Accumulation of secretions

Question 41

What are the two therapeutic options in treating asthma (think sympathetic and parasympathetic responses)?

Answer 41

1. B2 stimulators (bronchodilators) | 2. Anticholinergics (inhibit M3)

Question 42

What is the MOA of corticosteroids in the treatment of asthma?

Answer 42

Block leukotriene synthesis, (which cause smooth muscle contraction)

Question 43

What is the MOA of cocaine?

Answer 43

Inhibits dopamine reuptake proteins (NET)

Question 44

What is the blocker of Tyrosine hydroxylase?

Answer 44

Metyrosine

Question 45

What is the protein that stores dopamine? What inhibits this?

Answer 45

VMAT, reserpine

Question 46

What is the chemical that inhibits dopamine release?

Answer 46

Bretylium

Question 47

Long presynapse, short post = ? | Equal = ?

Answer 47

Long pre, short post = para | Equal = symp

Question 48

All presynaptic ganglia use what neurotransmitter?

Answer 48

Ach

Question 49

What is the neurotransmitter and receptor utilized for all somatic nerves?

Answer 49

Ach, nicotinic

Question 50

What is the neurotransmitter and receptor utilized for all presynaptic nerves?

Answer 50

Ach, Nicotinic

Question 51

What is the neurotransmitter and receptor utilized for all parasympathetic nerves?

Answer 51

Ach, muscarinic

Question 52

What is the neurotransmitter and receptor utilized for sympathetic nerves?

Answer 52

NE/E, D, alpha, or beta adrenergic receptors

Question 53

What is the neurotransmitter and receptor for sweat glands?

Answer 53

Ach, Muscarinic

Question 54

What is the MOA of alpha bungarotoxin?

Answer 54

irreversible blocking of nicotinic receptors

Question 55

What is the precursor molecule for ACh?

Answer 55

Choline

Question 56

What is the transporter for choline? What blocks this?

Answer 56

CHT, hemicholine

Question 57

What is the storage protein for Ach? What inhibits this?

Answer 57

VAT, vesamicol

Question 58

What is the chemical that inhibits the release of ACh?

Answer 58

Botulinum toxin

Question 59

What is the pathophysiology behind Eaton lambert syndrome?

Answer 59

Autoimmune against PREsynaptic Ca channels on motor end plate

Question 60

Stimulation of what part of the brain leads to sweating?

Answer 60

Hypothalamic-preoptic area

Question 61

What is the normal value of FEV1?

Answer 61

0.8

Question 62

What happens to the FEV1/FVC ratio in obstructive lung diseases?

Answer 62

Decreases because FEV1 decreases more than FVC

Question 63

What happens to the FEV1/FVC ratio in restrictive lung diseases?

Answer 63

Increases because both FEV1 and FVC decrease, but FVC decreases more

Question 64

What are the two parts of the hypothalamus that regulate body heat? What does each do?

Answer 64

1. Pre-optic area (main body core sensor | 2. Posterior hypothalamus (integrating center)

Question 65

What is the MOA of GLP1 analogues in treating DM?

Answer 65

GLP1 is normally release with insulin, and promotes it activity. Thus increase GLP1 promote insulin action

Question 66

What is the MOA of DPP4 inhibitors?

Answer 66

DPP4 normally degrades GLP1. GLP1 increases insulin action. Thus more GLP1

Question 67

What is the MOA of thiazolidinediones?

Answer 67

Increases the expression of GLUT1 and GLUT4

Question 68

What is the MOA of Sulfonylureas and meglitinides?

Answer 68

Inactivates the K pump on beta cells of the pancreas. This causes depolarization, influx of Ca, and release of insulin