Renal Flashcards

1
Q

pronephros develops by

A

Week 4, then degenerates

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2
Q

Mesonephros

A

interim kidney during 1st trimester, later contributes to male genital system

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3
Q

metanephros

A

permanent kidney

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4
Q

When does metanephros appear? contiues through

A

5th week of gestation. Nephrogenesis continues through 32-36 weeks.

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5
Q

When is ureteric bud fully canalized by?

A

10th week

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6
Q

What is ureteric bud derived from?

A

caudal end of mesonephric duct

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7
Q

What does ureteric bud give rise to?

A

ureter + pelvises + calyces + collecting ducts

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8
Q

what does metanephric mesenchyme give rise to?

A

Glomerulus through to DCT.

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9
Q

what are congenital malformations of kidney often due to?

A

aberrant interaction between ureteric bud and metanephric mesenchyme.

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10
Q

causes of Potter disease

A

ARPKD + obstructive uropathy (posterior urethral valves) + bilateral renal agenesis + chronic placental insufficiency

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11
Q

Potter sequence presentation

A

POTTER (pulmonary hypoplasia, Oligohydramnios (trigger), Twisted face, Twisted Skin, Extremity defects, Renal failure (in utero.

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12
Q

horseshoe kidney assocations

A

1) hydronephrosis (ureteropelvic junction obstruction.
2) renal stones
3) infection
4) chromosomal aneuploidy syndromes (13,18,21)
5) renal cancer (rarely)

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13
Q

Diagnosis of unilateral renal agenesis

A

US

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14
Q

cause of unilateral renal agenesis

A

Ureteric bud fails to develop and induce differentiation of metanephric mesenchyme.

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15
Q

kidney consisting of cysts and connective tissue

A

multicystic dysplastic kidney

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16
Q

cause of multicystic dysplastic kidney

A

ureteric bud fails to induce differentiation of metanephric mesenchyme

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17
Q

Causes of duplex collecting system

A

1) 2 ureteric buds reaching and interacting with metanephric blastema
2) bifurcation of ureteric bud before it enters the metanephric blastema, creating a Y-shpaed bifid ureter.

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18
Q

Why do duplex collecting systems create problems?

A

1) vesicoureteral reflux
2) ureteral obstruction
3) increased risk for UTIs

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19
Q

what usually happens with congenital solitary functioning kidney?

A

1) majority asymptomatic
2) compensatory hypertrophy of kidney
3) anomalies in contralateral kidney common though.

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20
Q

which kidney is usually taken during donor transplantation?

A

left (longer renal vein)

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21
Q

Renal blood flow

A

renal artery –> segmental artery –> interlobar artery –> arcuate artery –> interlobular artery –> afferent arteriole –> glomerulus –> efferent arteriole –> vasa recta/peritubular capillaries –> venous outflow

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22
Q

angiotensin II affects

A

1) Potent vasoconstrictor with preferential affects on the efferent arteriole, thus increasing FF to preserve GFR in low vlume states.
2) increases NE release by renal sympathetic nerves, thus stimulating aldosterone release
3) secondary effect is to increase HCO3- reabsorption (permitting contraction alkalosis)
4) Affects baroreceptor function; limits reflex bradycardia.
5) stimulates hypothalamus –> thirst
6) Acts at AT II receptor on vascular smooth muscle –> vasoconstriction –> increased BP.
8) stimulates ADH release from anterior pituitary.
9) increases PCT Na/H activity –> Na, HCO3, H2O reabsorption (can permit contraction alkalosis).

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23
Q

macula densa location

A

Lines the wall of the cortical thick ascending limb, at the transition to the DCT.

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24
Q

function of macula densa

A

when GFR drops, NaCl presentation to the macula is reduced , macula densa signals to juxtaglomerular cells in the afferent arteriole, causing them to release renin and activate the RAAS. Thus causing efferent arteriole vasoconstriction and increased GFR.

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25
Q

common complication of gynecologic procedures (ligation of uterine or ovarian vessels)

A

Damage to ureter, leaking to ureteral obstruction or leak.

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26
Q

relation of ureter to vas

A

Ureter passes UNDER vas deferens

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27
Q

percent of total body weight of total body water, ICF, ECF

A

60-40-20. 60% of your body water is total body water, of which 40% is ICF and 20% is ECF.

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28
Q

How is plasma volume measured?

A

Radiolabeling albumin.

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29
Q

How is ECF volume measured?

A

Inulin or mannitol

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30
Q

osmolality

A

285-295 mOsm/kg H2O

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31
Q

How to calculate HCT

A

roughly 3 x [Hb] in g/dL

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32
Q

RBC volume

A

2.8 L

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33
Q

ECF breakdown

A

interstitial fluid comprises 75% of ECF, Plasma comprises 25% of ECF

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34
Q

what component of the glomerular filtration barrier is lost in nephrotic syndrome?

A

Charge barrier

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35
Q

Composition of glomerular filtration barrier

A

1) fenestrated capillary endothelium (size barrier)
2) Fused BM w/ heparan sulfate (negative charge and size barrier)
3) epithelial layer consisting of podocyte foot processes (negative charge barrier)

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36
Q

Renal clearance equation

A

Cx = Ux V/Px (FA 556)

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37
Q

clearance and GFR relationship

A

Cx net reabsorption
Cx>GFR –> net secretion
Cx = GFR –> no net secretion or reabsorption

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38
Q

How to calculate GFR

A

1) Clearance of inulin. (given by above equation)

2) creatinine clearance

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39
Q

Normal GFR

A

100 mL/min

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40
Q

Describe creatinine clearance as a measure of GFR

A

Approximate. Slightly overestimates GFR because creatinine is moderately secreted by renal tubules.

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41
Q

How to estimate effective renal plasma flow (eRPF)? why?

A

PAH clearance. This is because between filtration and secretion there is nearly 100% excretion of all PAH that enters the kidney. It rises rapidly and is not reabsorbed anywhere.

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42
Q

eRPF as an estimate of RPF

A

It UNDERestimates true renal plasma flow slightly.

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43
Q

Normal FF

A

20%

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44
Q

How to calculate filtered load (mg/min)

A

GFR (mL/min) x plasma concentration (mg/mL)

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45
Q

How do prostaglandins affect FF?

A

No effect on FF because they increase both RPF and GFR

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46
Q

angiotensin II affect on FF

A

Increase FF because they decrease RPF and increase GFR by constricting efferent arteriole.

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47
Q

Effect of ureter constriction on GFR and FF

A

Decrease GFR + FF (backup causes increased hydrostatic pressure)

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48
Q

Effect of dehydration on GFR, RPF, and FF

A

Decrease GFR and decrease RPF BUT increase FF (RPF decreased to a greater degree than GFR).

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49
Q

Filtered load equation

A

Filtered load = GFR x Px

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50
Q

Excretion rate equation

A

V x Ux

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51
Q

Reabsorption/secretion

A

just difference between filtered and excreted

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52
Q

FEna

A

Na+ excreted/Na+ filtered

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53
Q

Glucose clearance

A

at a normal plasma level, glucose is completely reabsorbed in PCT by Na+/glucose ACTIVE cotransport.

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54
Q

When does glucosuria begin?

A

around 200 mg/dL

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55
Q

when do glucose glucose transporters become fully saturatd (Tm)?

A

375 mg/min

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56
Q

Why are glucosuria and aminoaciduria common in pregnancy?

A

pregnancy decreases ability of PCT to reabsorb glucose and amino acids.

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57
Q

What is “splay”?

A

Region of substance clearance between threshold and Tm. Basically, individual nephrons vary in absorptive capacity, so beyond the threshold there are still some nephrons capable of reabsorption.

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58
Q

PCT functions

A

1) reabsorbs all glucose and amino acids and most HCO3-, Na+, Cl-, PO4, K+, H2O, uric acid
2) generates and secretes NH3, which acts as a buffer for secreted H+ (which is secreted when Na+ is absorbed)

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59
Q

PTH action in the proximal tubule

A

Inhibits Na+/PO4 cotransport, cauisng phosphate excretion.

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60
Q

Fraction of Na+ reabsorbed in the proximal tubule

A

65-80%

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61
Q

Function of thin descending loop of henle

A

passive reabsorption of H2O via medullary hypertonicity (impermeable to Na). Thus, this is a concentrating segment.

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62
Q

Fraction of Na reabsorbed in the thick ascending limb

A

10-20%

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63
Q

Ca2+ and Mg2+ transport

A

Paracellular absorption in thick ascending limb through positive lumen potential generated by K+ backleak.

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64
Q

Thick ascending limb and affect on tonicity

A

Impermeable to H2O. Makes urine less concentrated as it ascends.

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65
Q

Early DCT affect on tonicity

A

Reabsorbs Na, Cl- thus diluting urine.

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66
Q

PTH action in the early DCT

A

Increases Ca/Na exchange leading to Ca reabsorption.

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67
Q

Fraction of Na absorbed in the DCT

A

5-10%

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68
Q

triamterene

A

K+-sparing diuretic

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69
Q

collecting tubule function

A

Reabsorbs Na+ in exchange for secreting K+ and H+ (regulated by aldosterone).

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70
Q

Sodium absorption in the collecting tubule

A

3-5%

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71
Q

Fanconi syndrome defect

A

Generalized reabsorptive defect in PCT. Associated with increased excretion of nearly all amino acids, glucose, HCO3-, and PO4.

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72
Q

Causes of fanconi syndrome

A

Wilson disease, tyrosinemia, glycogen storage disease, cystinosis, ischemia, MM, nephrotoxins/drugs (ifosfamide, cisplatin, tenofovir, expired tetracyclines), lead poisoning.

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73
Q

Which is more severe, gitelman’s or bartter’s syndrome?

A

Barter’s

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74
Q

differentiating barter’s from gitelman’s in metabolic profile

A

gitelman’s causes hypocalciuria, Bartter’s causes hypercalciuria

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75
Q

Example of a gain of function mutation

A

Liddle syndrome

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76
Q

Syndrome of apparent mineralocorticoid excess

1) pathophys
2) presentation
3) treatment

A

hereditary deficiency of 11beta-hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase, which normally converts cortisol into cortisone in mineralocorticoid receptor-containing cells before cortisol can act on the mineralocorticoid receptors. /excess cortisol in these cells from enzyme deficiency leads to increased mineralocorticoid receptor activity. /presentation = hypertension + hypokalemia + metabolic alkalosis. /low serum aldosterone. /can acquire disorder from glycyrrhetic acid (present in licorice), which blocks activity of 11beta-hydroxystroid dehydrogenase. /treatment = corticosteroids (exogenous corticosteroids decrease endogenous cortisol production, leading to decreased mineralocorticoid receptor activation).

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77
Q

Components of the juxtaglomerular apparatus + function

A

Mesangial cells + JG cells + macula densa (NaCL sensor, part of DCT). Function is maintain GFR via RAAS.

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78
Q

JG cells + function

A

Modified smooth muscle cells of afferent arteriole. Secrete renin in response to decreased renal blood pressure and increased sympathetic tone (B1)

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79
Q

ANP, BNP effects

A

1) check on RAAS.
2) relaxes vascular smooth muscle via cGMP –> increased GFR + decreased renin
3) dilates afferent ateriole; constricts efferent
4) promotes natriuresis.

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80
Q

What activates RAAS?

A

1) Decreased BP
2) decreased Na+ delivery (macula densa cells)
3) increased sympathetic tone (B1-receptors)

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81
Q

angiotensin 1 –> angiotensin II

A

occurs in lungs

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82
Q

Aldosterone affects

A

Increases Na channel and 1) Na/K pump insertion in principal cells; enhances K+ and H+ excretion by way of principal cell K+ channels and alpha-intercalated cell H+ ATPases. Thus, creates favorable Na+ gradient for Na+ and H2O reabsorption.
2) summary –> Na reabsorption, K+ and H+ secretion.

83
Q

active form of vitamin D

A

calcitriol, 1,25-(OH)2 vitamin D3

84
Q

PTH action in vitamin D pathway

A

inhibits 1alpha-hydroxylase

85
Q

calciferol

A

refers to either D2 or D3

86
Q

Dopamine kidney actions

A

Secreted by PCT cells, promotes natriuresis. At low doses, dilates interlobular arteries, afferent arterioles, efferent arterioles –> increased RBF, little or no change in GFR. At higher doses, acts as vasoconstrictor.

87
Q

PTH triggers

A

1) decreased plasma Ca
2) increased phosphate
3) decreased plasma 1,25-OH)2D3

88
Q

PTH effects

A

1) increased Ca reabsorption (DCT)
2) decreased phosphate reabsorption (PCT)
3) increased vitamin D production
4) increased Ca and phosphate absorption from gut via vitamin D

89
Q

Causes of hyperkalemia (things that shift K+ out of cells)

A

DOLABS. Digitalis, hyperOsmolarity, Lysis of cells, Acidosis, B-blocker, high blood Sugar

90
Q

Causes of hypokalemia

A

Hypo-osmolarity, alkalosis, beta agonists, insulin

91
Q

Presentation of hyponatremia

A

nausea + malaise + stupor + coma + seizures

92
Q

hypernatremia presentation

A

irritability + stupor + coma

93
Q

hypokalemia on ECG

A

U waves + flattened T waves

94
Q

hyperkalemia on ECG

A

wide QRS and peaked T waves

95
Q

caveat about hypercalcemia

A

not necessarily calciuria

96
Q

hyperkalemia pnemonic

A

stones (renal), bones (pain), groans (abdominal pain), thrones (increased urinary frequency), psychiatric overtones (anxiety, altered mental status).

97
Q

hypomagnesemia presentation

A

presentation = tetany + torsades de pointes + hypokalemia.

98
Q

hypermagnesemia presentation

A

decreased DTRs + lethargy + bradycardia + hypotension + cardiac arrest + hypocalcemia

99
Q

hypophosphatemia presentation

A

bone loss + osteomalacia (adults) + rickets (children).

100
Q

hyperphosphatemia presentation

A

renal stones + metastatic calcifications + hypocalcemia

101
Q

bicarb and PCO2 levels in metabolic alkalosis

A

increased PCO2 + increased HCO3

102
Q

Using winters formula + what results mean

A

1) Use winters to predict respiratory compensation for a simple metabolic acidosis.
2) if measured PCO2>predicted PCO2, a concomitant respiratory acidosis is occurring
3) If measured PCO2 is leass than predicted PCO2, concomitant respiratory alkalosis is occurring.

103
Q

Causes of normal anion gap

A

HARDASS: Hyperalimentation, Addison disease, Renal tubular acidosis, Diarrhea, Acetazolamide, Spironolactone, Saline infusion

104
Q

PCO2 cutoff for determining respiratory acidosis

A

44 mm Hg

105
Q

HCO3- cutoff for determining metabolic acidosis

A

less than 20

106
Q

PCO2 cutoff for determining respiratory alkalosis

A

less than 36

107
Q

HCO3- cutoff for determining metabolic alkalosis

A

greater than 28

108
Q

common causes of metabolic alkalosis

A

1) loop diuretics
2) vomiting
3) antacid use
4) hyperaldosteronism

109
Q

hyperchloremic vs. hypochloremic metabolic acidosis

A

hyperchloremic = normal anion gap

hypochloremic - anion gap

110
Q

Renal tubular acidosis (RTA)

A

disorder of renal tubules that leads to normal anion gap metabolic acidosis

111
Q

Distal renal tubular acidosis (type 1)

A

Urine pH > 5.5. Defect in ability of alpha intercalated cells to secrete H+ –> no new HCO3- is generated, leading to metabolic acidosis. Associated with hypokalemia + increased risk for calcium phosphate kidney stones (due to increased urine pH and increased bone turnover).

112
Q

Causes of distal renal tubular acidosis (type 1)

A

Amphotericin B toxicity, analgesic nephropathy, congenital anomalies (obstruction) of urinary tract.

113
Q

Proximal renal tubular acidosis (type 2)

A

Urine pH increased excretion of HCO3- in urine and subsequent metabolic acidosis. Urine is acidified by alpha-intercalated cells in collecting tubule. Associated with hypokalemia + increased risk for hypophosphatemic rickets.

114
Q

Causes of proximal renal tubular acidosis (type 2)

A

Fanconi syndrome + carbonic anhydrase inhibitors

115
Q

Hyperkalemic renal tubular acidosis (type 4)

A

Urine pH HYPERkalemia –> decreased NH3 synthesis in PCT –> decreased NH4+ excretion.

116
Q

causes of hyperkalemic renal tubular acidosis (type 4)

A

decreased aldosterone production + aldosterone resistance (K+ sparing diuretics, nephropathy due to obstruction, TMP/SMX).

117
Q

RBC casts found in

A

glomerulonephritis + malignant HTN

118
Q

WBC casts found in

A

tubulointerstitial inflammation + acute pyelo + transplant rejection

119
Q

Fatty casts (“oval fat bodies) found in

A

nephrotic syndrome. associated with “Maltese cross” sign.

120
Q

waxy casts found in

A

ESRD/chronic renal failure

121
Q

hyaline casts indicate…

A

nonspecific, can be normal, often seen in concentrated urine samples

122
Q

focal vs. diffuse glomerulonephritis

A

diffuse involves >50% of glomeruli, focal less than

123
Q

“proliferative” means…

A

hypercellular glomeruli

124
Q

cause of nephritic syndrome

A

Inflammatory process. GBM disruption

125
Q

general characteristics of nephritic syndrome

A

HTN (due to salt retention) + increased BUN and creatinine + oliguria + hematuria + RBC casts + azotemia + proteinuria (mild)

126
Q

cause of nephrotic syndrome

A

Podocyte disruption –> charge barrier impaired.

127
Q

general characteristics of nephrotic syndrome

A

massive proteinuria + hypoalbuminemia + hyperlipidemia + edema.

128
Q

Nephritic-nephrotic syndrome

A

Severe nephritic syndrome can lead to profound GBM damage that damages the glomerular filtration charge barrier leading to nephrotic range proteinuria + concomitant features of nephrotic syndrome. Can occur with any nephritic syndrome.

129
Q

nephritic-nephrotic syndrome most commonly seen with..

A

1) Diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis.

2) Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis.

130
Q

massive proteinuria defined as

A

greater than 3.5 g/day

131
Q

other impt features of nephrotic syndrome

A

hypercoagulable state (due to AT III loss in urine) + immunocompromised state (due to loss of immunoglobulins in urine and soft tissue compromise by edema).

132
Q

What happens to GFR in diabetic glomerulonephropathy?

A

Increased due to glycosylation of efferent arterioles.

133
Q

most common kidney stone presentation

A

calcium oxalate stone in patient w/ hypercalciuria and normocalcemia.

134
Q

renal stone breakdown

A

80% calcium, 15% struvite, 5% uric acid

135
Q

where would uric acid stones form?

A

DTC and collecting tubule (precipitate in decreased pH)

136
Q

Other causes of hydronephrosis

A

retroperitoneal fibrosis + vesicoureteral reflux.

137
Q

Renal cell carcinoma route of metastasise

A

invades renal vein then IVC and spreads hematogenously.

138
Q

renal cell carcinoma treatment

A

Resection if localized. Immunotherapy (eg, aldesleukin) or targeted therapy for advanced/metastatic disease. Resistant to chemo and radiation.

139
Q

usual presentation for RCC

A

metastatic neoplasm. “silent cancer”

140
Q

renal oncytoma – presentation, etc.

A

codebook

141
Q

Wilms tumor management

A

MOPP –> Mechlorethamine, Oncovin/vincristine, Procarbazine, Prednisone

142
Q

WAGR complex

A

WAGR syndrome: Wilms tumor, Aniridia (absence of iris), Genitourinary malformations, mental Retardation/intellectual disability (WT1 deletion).

143
Q

Denys-Drash syndrome

A

(codebook)

144
Q

transitional cell carcinoma carcinogens

A

Phenacetin, Smoking, Aniline dyes, cyclophosphamide

145
Q

nitrites indicate

A

gram negative organisms (especially e coli)

146
Q

sterile pyuria indicates

A

urethritis by gonorrhoea or chlamydia

147
Q

negative urine cultures with UTI presentation indicates

A

urethritis by gonorrhoea or chlamydia

148
Q

other impt findings in pyelonephritis

A

tubulorrhexis (necrosis of epithelial lining) + microabscesses

149
Q

CT finding in pyelo

A

striated parenchymal enhancement

150
Q

chronic pyelo findings + xanthogranulomatous pyelo

A

codebook

151
Q

ATN pathophys in intrinsic renal failure

A

Patchy necrosis leads to debris obstructing tubule and fluid backflow across necrotic tubule, leading to decreased GFR.

152
Q

Consequences of renal failure

A

MADHUNGER: Metabolic Acidosis, Dyslipidemia (especially triglycerides), Hyperkalemia, Uremia, Na+/H2O retention (HF, pulmonary edema, HTN), Growth retardation and developmental delay, Epo failure (anemia), Renal osteodystrophy

153
Q

urea vs ammonia vs protein

A

Excess nitrogen in the form of ammonia (NH3) is generated from the catabolism of amino acids, and is feed into the urea cycle to produce urea, which is then excreted by the kidney.

154
Q

Uremia + presentation

A

Clinical syndrome marked by increased BUN. nausea and anorexia + pericarditis + asterixis + encephalopathy + platelet dysfunction.

155
Q

Prerenal Lab Values:

1) Urine osmolality (mOsm/kg)
2) Urine Na+ (mEq/L)
3) FENa
4) Sserum BUN/Cr

A

1) >500
2) less than 20
3) less than 1%
4) greater than 20

156
Q

Intrinsic renal Lab Values:

1) Urine osmolality (mOsm/kg)
2) Urine Na+ (mEq/L)
3) FENa
4) Sserum BUN/Cr

A

1) less than 350
2) greater than 40
3) greater than 2%
4) less than 15

157
Q

Postrenal Lab Values:

1) Urine osmolality (mOsm/kg)
2) Urine Na+ (mEq/L)
3) FENa
4) Sserum BUN/Cr

A

1) less than 350
2) greater than 40
3) >1% (mild), >2% (severe)
4) varies

158
Q

3 stages of ATN, and associated risks

A
  1. Inciting event.
  2. Maintenance phase–oliguric; lasts 1-3 weeks; risk of hyperkalemia, metabolic acidosis, uremia.
  3. Recovery phase–polyuric; BUN and creatinine fall; risk of hypokalemia.
159
Q

Causes of ATN

A

1) Ischemic–secondary to decreased renal blood flow (eg, hypotension, shock, sepsis, hemorrhage, HF). Results in death of tubular cells that may slough into tubular lumen.
2) Nephrotoxic–secondary to injury resulting from toxic substances (eg., aminoglycosides, radiocontrast agents, lead cisplatin), crush injury (myoglobinuria), hemoglobinuria. PCT is particularly susceptible to injury.

160
Q

papillary necrosis associations

A

sickle cell disease or trait + acute pyelonephritis + NSAIDs + diabetes mellitus

161
Q

ADPKD treatment

A

ACE inhibitors or ARBs

162
Q

Medullary cystic disease

A

Inherited disease causing tubulointerstitial fibrosis and progressive renal insufficiency with inability to concentrate urine. Medullary cysts usually not visualized; shrunken kidneys on ultrasound. Poor prognosis.

163
Q

ARPKD

A

cystic dilation of collecting ducts. Often presents in infancy. associated with congenital hepatic fibrosis. Significant oliguric renal failure can lead to Potter sequence.

164
Q

sequela of ARPKD

A

Systemic HTN + progressive renal insufficiency + portal hypertension from congenital hepatic fibrosis.

165
Q

Simple cysts

A

Filled with ultrafiltrate (anechoic (black) on US). Very common and account for majority of all renal masses. Found incidentally and typically asymptomatic.

166
Q

Complex cysts

A

Septated, enhanced, or have solid components on imaging. Require follow-up or removal due to risk of RCC.

167
Q

Mannitol MOA

A

Osmotic diuretic. Increases tubular fluid osmolarity, thereby increasing urine flow and decreasing.intracranial/intraocular pressure.

168
Q

Mannitol clinical use

A

Drug overdose, elevated ICP/intraocular pressure.

169
Q

Mannitol AE’s

A

pulmonary edema, dehydration, contraindicated in anuria, HF.

170
Q

Acetazolamide mechanism

A

carbonic anhydrase inhibitor. Causes self-limited NaHCO3 diureses and decreased total body HCO3- stores.

171
Q

Acetazolamide clinical use

A

glaucoma, urinary alkalinization, metabolic alkalosis, altitude sickness, pseudotumor cerebri

172
Q

Acetazolamide AE’s

A

Proximal RTA, paresthesias, NH3 toxicity, sulfa allergy

173
Q

Other mechanism point about loop diuretics

A

Stimulate PGE release (vasodilatory effect on afferent arteriole); inhibited by NSAIDs.

174
Q

Loop diuretics adverse effects

A

ototoxicity, hypokalemia, dehydration, allergy (sulfa), metabolic alkalosis, interstitial nephritis, gout.

175
Q

ethacrynic acid MOA

A

nonsulfonamide inhibitor of cotransport system of thick ascending limb of loop of henle.

176
Q

ethacrynic acid AE’s

A

similar to furosemide, but more ototoxic.

177
Q

metolazone

A

thiazide

178
Q

Thiazide clinical uses

A

HTN, HF, idiopathic hypercalciuria, nephrogenic DI, osteoporosis

179
Q

Thiazide AE’s

A

hypokalemic metabolic alkalosis, hyponatremia, hyperglycemia, hyperlipidemia, hyperuricemia, hypercalcemia, sulfa allergy

180
Q

spironolactone and eplerenone MOA

A

competitive aldosterone receptor antagonists in cortical collecting tubule.

181
Q

triamterene and amiloride MOA

A

Act at collecting tubule by blocking Na+ channels in the cortical collecting tubule.

182
Q

K+ sparing diuretics use

A

hyperaldosteronism, K+ depletion, HF

183
Q

hepatic ascites treatment

A

spironolactone

184
Q

nephrogenic DI treatment

A

amiloride

185
Q

K+ sparing diuretics AE’s

A

hyperkalemia (arrhythmias) + endocrine effects with spironolactone (gynecomastia, antiandrogen effects).

186
Q

diuretics associated with alkalemia

A

loop diuretics + thiazides

187
Q

alkalemia mechanism with diuretics

A

1) volume contraction –> increased AT II –> increased Na+/H+ exchange in PCT –> increased HCO3- reabsorption
2) K+ loss leads to K+ exiting all cells (via H+/K+ exchanger) in exchange for H+ entering cells.
3) in low K+ state, H+ (rather than K+) is exchanged for Na+ in cortical collecting tubule –> alkalosis and “paradoxical aciduria”

188
Q

bradykinin actions

A

potent vasodilator

189
Q

ACEI’s clinical use

A

HTN, HF (decreased mortality), proteinuria, diabetic nephropathy. Prevent unfavorable heart remodeling as a result of chronic HTN.

190
Q

ACEI mechanism in diabetic nephropathy

A

decrease intraglomerular pressure, slowing GBM thickening.

191
Q

ACEI’s AE’s

A

cough, angioedema, teratogen, increased creatinine, hyperkalemia, Hypotension

192
Q

ACEI’s contraindicated in

A

bilateral renal artery stenosis (can further decrease GFR)

193
Q

ARB clinical uses

A

HTN, HF, proteinuria, diabetic nephropathy with intolerance to ACE inhibitors

194
Q

ARB AE’s

A

hyperkalemia + decreased GFR + hypotension + teratogen

195
Q

Aliskiren MOA

A

direct renin inhibitor, blocks conversion of angiotensinogen to angiotensin I

196
Q

Aliskiren AE’s

A

hyperkalemia, decreased GFR, hypotension. Relatively contraindicated in patients already taking ACEI’s or ARBs.

197
Q

Inulin and mannitol

A

Used to help measure GFR (volume of fluid filtered from the renal glomerular capillaries into the Bowman’s capsule per unit time) because it is not secreted or absorbed. Thus, inulin clearance is constant. Very similar to creatinine. Concentration basically steadily rises, except for a slight dip in distal tubule.

198
Q

Potassium regulation in the kidney

A

2 vacuums in proximal tubule + thick ascending limb sucking bananas from tubules/most K+ is resorbed in the proximal tubule + loop of Henle. /late distal and cortical collecting tubules are the primary sites for regulation of K+ concentration. Imagine faces of Principal ted from highschool puking bananas into the late DTC + collecting duct/principal cells in the late distal convoluted tubule + cortical collecting ducts secrete K under conditions of normal or increased K+ load.

199
Q

Phosphorus regulation in the kidney

A

80-90% of filtered load of phosphate is reabsorbed. Phosphines stuck into proximal tubule with salt piled on top/most reabsorption occurs in the proximal tubule by secondary active transport mediated by Na+-phsophate cotransporters (NAPT). This is a transport maximum process. /primarily regulated by PTH, which reduces proximal tubule phosphate reabsorption. /calcitriol (1,25-OH2-vitamin D), increases phosphate reabsorption (by increasing NAPT). /Thus PTH inhibits renal phosphate reabsorption.

200
Q

Tubular fluid osmolarity

A

Hambones frozen in ice lining proximal tubule/300 in the proximal tubule + *isotonic (both solutes and water reabsorbed). Lined with hooks/descending limb = 700 (variable tho). Lined with ivy/thin ascending limb = 800. Stuffed with hens/thick ascending limb = 200. Filled with hats/distal convoluted tubule = 100. Lined with bode miller hula-hooping/collecting duct (IN THE PRESENCE OF ADH) = 900. Dead bode covered in lice/in the absence of ADH, tubular fluid is most dilute in the collecting ducts. /most NaCl absorption occurs in the thick and thin ascending limbs, so fluid becomes hypotonic here. Thus, these are called the diluting segments of the kidney. Salt plug in the bottom of the loop of henle/in the absence of ADH, highest osmolarity occurs at the bottom of the loop of henle.

201
Q

Permeabilities of segments:

A
  • Descending limb is permeable to water, but not solutes - fluid becomes hypertonic. -Thick ascending limb is impermeable to water and electrolytes are resorbed fluid becomes hypotonic.
  • DTC reabsorbs solutes + is impermeable to water tubular fluid becomes more hypotonic.
  • Collecting ducts depends on ADH impermeable to water in its absence, thus becoming more hypotonic.
202
Q

Effect of hematocrit on GFR

A

Increased hematocrit will decrease GFR because increased hematocrit means decreased plasma volume (plasma holds water and protein).

203
Q

In the absence of ADH, where is fluid most diluted in the kidney?

A

Collecting duct