Cardiology Flashcards
1
Q
Romano-Ward syndrome
A
Q from the bond is a giant standing in the back/form of congenital long QT syndrome. Femdom chick whipping him/autosomal dominant. /pure cardiac phenotype (no deafness). Arthur spinning/can predispose to torsades de pointes, causing syncopal episodes + sudden cardiac death. /thought to result from mutations in a K= channel protein that contributes to the delayed rectifier current (Ik) of the cardiac action potential.
2
Q
Jervell and Lange-Nielsen syndrome
A
Q from the bond is a giant /form of congenital long QT syndrome. Tyrion running down the hall/autosomal recessive. Nelson has big headphones on/sensorineural deafness. /common presentation = syncope in an otherwise healthy person. Arthur spinning/can predispose to torsades de pointes + sudden cardiac death. /thought to result from mutations in a K+ channel protein that contributes to the delayed rectifier current (Ik) of the cardiac action potential.
3
Q
Brugada syndrome
A
Tuong: he’s being whipped by a FEMDOM/autosomal dominant disorder most common in Asian males. Huge bundle of sticks in the right corner + mountains on backwall with hat bone on left and hambone on right/ECG pattern of pseudo-right bundle branch block + ST elevations in V1-V3. Jonny kenser dead on the floor + /increased risk of ventricular tachyarrhythmias + SCD (sudden cardiac death). He has an implanted cardioverter-defibrillator/prevent SCD with implantable cardioverter-defibrillator (ICD).
4
Q
Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome
A
o Parker from woodlands. Electric shock to the chest and lightning bolt that has down wall and across floor and up to Parker/very common ventricular pre-excitation syndrome. Abnormally fast accessory conduction pathway from atria to ventricle bypasses the rate-slowing AV node ventricles begin to partially depolarize earlier. May result in reentry circuit SVT. Camouflaged delta commanders coming out of the ground that have suffered strokes and are slurring their words + a morbidly obese Q from James bond (QRS complex code) + a midget media crew shooting photos on left/ECG = characteristic delta wave, described as “slurred upstroke of the QRS complex” + widened QRS complex + shortened PR interval on ECF. Amy young riding her hippo is there + vera wing in the back + Aidan Melville juggling in front of door/treatment = amiodarone + adenosine + verapamil. Tigger firing rocket launcher at parker/digoxin is contraindicated (can enhance transmission of impulses through accessory pathways by reentry or possible triggered membrane activity) extremely fast ventricular rate OR Vfib.
5
Q
Potassium channel problem in romano-ward
A
DELAYED rectifier potassium channel.
6
Q
truncus arteriosus gives rise to…
A
ascending aorta + pulmonary trunk
7
Q
bulbus cordis gives rise to
A
smooth parts (outflow tract) of left and right ventricles
8
Q
endocardial cushions give rise to
A
1) atrial septum
2) membranous inter ventricular septum
3) AV and semilunar valves
9
Q
AV valves
A
mitral and tricuspid
10
Q
semilunar valves
A
aortic + pulmonary valves
11
Q
Primitive atrium gives rise to…
A
Trabeculated part of left and right atria
12
Q
Primitive ventricle gives rise to
A
trabeculated part of left and right ventricles
13
Q
Primitive pulmonary vein gives rise to…
A
smooth part of left atrium
14
Q
Left horn of sinus venosus gives rise to…
A
coronary sinus
15
Q
Right horn of sinus venosus gives rise to…
A
Smooth part of right atrium (sinus venarum)
16
Q
What is SVC derived from
A
right common cardinal vein + right anterior cardinal vein
17
Q
When does cardiac looping begin?
A
Week 4
18
Q
Dextrocardia etiology
A
Defect in left-right dynein (dynes are involved in L/R asymmetry)
19
Q
PFO etiology
A
Failure of septum premum and septum secundum to fuse.
20
Q
underlying etiology of paradoxical emboli
A
1) ASD
2) VSD
3) PFO
21
Q
Separation of cardiac chambers
A
1) septum primum grows toward endocardial cushions, narrowing foramen primum.
2) Foramen secundum forms in septum premum (foramen premium disappears)
3) Septum secundum develops as foramen secundum maintains right-to-left shunt.
4) septum secundum expands and covers most of the foramen secundum. Residual foramen is foramen ovale.
5) Remaining portion of septum premum forms valve of foramen ovale.
22
Q
Most common location of VSD
A
membranous septum
23
Q
Ventricle formation/morphogenesis
A
1) Muscular inter ventricular septum forms. Opening is inter ventricular foramen
2) Aorticopulmonary septum rotates and fuses with muscular ventricular septum to form membranous inter ventricular septum, closing inter ventricular foramen.
3) Growth of endocardial cushions separates atria from ventricles and contributes to both atrial septation and membranous portion of interventricular septum.
24
Q
Outflow tract formation
A
Neural crest and endocardial cell migrations lead to truncal and bulbar ridges that spiral and fuse to form aorticopulmonary septum. Lead to ascending aorta and pulmonary trunk.
25
Persistent truncus arteriosus etiology
Failed neural crest migration
26
Tetralogy of fallot etiology
failed neural crest migration
27
transposition of great vessels etiology
failed neural crest migration
28
aortic/pulmonary valve origin
derived from endocardial cushions of outflow tract.
29
Mitral/tricuspid origin
Derived from fused endocardial cushions of the AV canal.
30
PO2 of umbilical vein blood
30 mm HG
31
umbilical vein blood saturation
80%
32
Path of most highly oxygenated blood reaching heart...
Most of the highly oxygenated blood reaching the heart via the IVC is directed through the foramen ovale and pumped into the aorta to supply the body.
33
path of deoxygenated blood from the SVC
SVC --> RA --> RV --> main pulmonary artery --> PDA --> descending aorta.
34
closing of foramen ovale mechanism
Decreased resistance in pulmonary vasculature leads to increased left atrial pressure vs. right atrial pressure --> closes.
35
Closure of ductus mechanism
Increase in O2 + decrees in prostaglandins (from placental separation)
36
Remnant of ductus arteriosus
Ligamentum arteriosum
37
What can you use to maintain the PDA?
PGE1 + PGE2
38
Median umbilical ligament derived from...
urachus
39
Remnant of ductus venosus...
ligamentum venosum
40
Remnant of foramen ovale
Fossa ovalis
41
Remnant of notochord
nucleus pulposus
42
Medial umbilical ligaments derived from
umbilical arteries
43
remnant of umbilical vein
ligamentum teres hepatis (contained in falciform ligament)
44
What supplies the SA and AV nodes usually?
RCA
45
Which circulation type is more common
Right-dominant
46
When does coronary blood flow peak?
Early diastole
47
Most posterior part of the heart
Left atrium
48
Layers of pericardium (from outer to inner)
1) Fibrous pericardium
2) Parietal layer of serous pericardium
3) Visceral layer of serous pericardium
49
Where is the pericardial cavity?
Lies between parietal and visceral layers
50
How is CO maintained in early and late stages of exercise?
Early --> increased HR + SV
| Late --> increased HR only (SV plateaus)
51
Examples of increased pulse pressure
1) hyperthyroidism
2) aortic regurgitation
3) aortic stiffening (isolated systolic hypertension in elderly)
4) OSA (due to increased sympathetic tone)
5) Exercise (transient)
52
Examples of decreased pulse pressure
1) aortic stenosis
2) cardiogenic shock
3) cardiac tamponade
4) advanced heart failure (HF)
53
Catecholamines and increased contractility mechanism
Inhibition of phospholamban leads to increased calcium entry into sarcoplasmic reticulum --> increased calcium induced calcium release.
54
What increases contractility?
1) catecholamines
2) increased intracellular calcium
3) decreased extracellular sodium (decreased activity of Na/Ca exchanger)
4) digitalis
55
digitalis mechanism
Blocks Na/K+ pump, leading to increased intracellular sodium, decreased Na/Ca exchanger activity, and increased intracellular calcium.
56
Causes of decreased contractility
1) Beta-blockade
2) HF with systolic dysfunction
3) acidosis
4) hypoxia/hypercapnia
5) non-dihydropyridine Ca2+ channel blockers
57
Wall tension (Laplace's law)
Wall tension = (pressure x radius)/(2 x wall thickness)
58
What approximates afterload?
MAP
59
Drugs that decrease both preload and after load...
ACE inhibitors and ARBs
60
Normal EF
greater than 55%
61
EF in systolic vs diastolic HF
Decreased in systolic HF, normal in diastolic HF
62
Other things that decrease contractility
1) Beta-blockers (acutely)
2) non-dihydropyridine Calcium channel blockers
3) narcotic overdose
4) uncompensated HF
63
Volumetric flow rate (Q)
Q = flow velocity (v) x cross-sectional area (A)
64
Total resistance of vessels in series
Rt = R1 + R2 + R3
65
What does viscosity depend on?
Primarily hematocrit
66
When is viscosity increased?
1) polycythemia
| 2) hyperproteinemic states (eg multiple myeloma)
67
Where is flow velocity lowest?
Capillaries
68
What is the effect of removing organs in parallel (eg nephrectomy)?
1) decreased TPR
| 2) increased CO
69
Factors that would cause a left shift in venous return graph
1) acute hemorrhage
| 2) spinal anesthesia
70
Exercise on cardiac function curve
1) increased inotropy
2) decreased TPR
* think about how this would affect graph
71
Compensated heart failure
Isotropy drops in order to maintain fluid retention and increase preload to maintain CO.
72
What will decrease TPR
1) exercise
| 2) AV shunt
73
vasopressor?
Antihypotensive meds. Anything that raises reduced blood pressure.
74
JVP: a wave
atrial contraction
75
JVP: c wave
RV contraction
76
JVP: x descent
atrial relaxation and downward displacement of closed tricuspid valve during ventricular contraction?
77
Absent x was on JVP?
tricuspid regurgitation
78
Prominent x wave on JVP indicates...
1) Tricuspid insufficiency
| 2) right HF
79
V wave on JVP
Increased right atrial pressure due to filling against closed tricuspid valve.
80
Y descent on JVP?
RA emptying into RV
81
When is y descent prominent?
Constrictive pericarditis
82
When is y descent absent?
Cardiac tamponade
83
What is S1?
Mitral and tricuspid valve closure.
84
What is S2?
Aortic and pulmonary valve closure.
85
atrial kick?
S4
86
Isovolumetric contraction?
Period between mitral valve closing and aortic valve opening.
87
When is O2 consumption highest in cardiac cycle?
Isovolumetric contraction.
88
Systolic ejection on PV loop?
Period between aortic valve opening and closing.
89
Isovolumetric relaxation on PV loop?
Period between aortic valve closing and mitral opening.
90
Rapid filling on PV loop?
Period just after mitral valve opening.
91
Reduced filling on PV loop?
Period just before mitral valve closing
92
How will increased contractility affect PV loop?
FA 270
93
How will increased afterload affect PV loop?
FA 270
94
How will increased preload affect PV loop?
FA 270
95
What causes normal splitting?
Inspiration --> drop in intrathoracic pressure --> increased venous return --> increased RV filling --> increased RV stroke volume --> increased RV ejection time --> delayed closure of pulmonic valve.
96
pulmonary impedance?
capacity of the pulmonary circulation
97
When is wide splitting seen?
Conditions that delay RV emptying.
98
What does wide splitting indicate?
Delayed pulmonic, as seen in...
1) pulmonic stenosis
2) right bundle branch block
99
Why does fixed splitting occur in ASDs?
Delay in pulmonic closure due to increased flow through pulmonic valve due to left-to-right shunt.
100
When does paradoxical splitting occur?
Conditions that delay aortic valve closure.
101
Conditions in which paradoxical splitting is seen...
1) aortic stenosis
| 2) left bundle branch block
102
What is paradoxical splitting?
Normal order of valve closure is reversed so that P2 sound occurs before delayed A2 sound. Therefore in inspiration, P2 closes later and moves closer to A2, thereby "paradoxically" eliminating the split.
103
VSD -- systolic or diastolic?
systolic (holosystolic)
104
ASD -- systolic or diastolic?
diastolic
105
Where are ASD's best auscultated?
tricuspid area
106
Where are VSD's best auscultated?
tricuspid area
107
holosystolic murmurs...
1) Tricuspid regurgitation
2) VSDs
3) mitral regurgitation
108
Affect of hand grip?
Increase afterload
109
What will hand grip increase intensity of?
1) MR + AR + VSD murmurs
110
diastolic heart sounds
1) aortic/pulmonic regurgitation
| 2) mitral/tricuspid stenosis
111
Affect of increased after load on MVP?
Later onset of click/murmur
112
What will hand grip decrease intensity of?
hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
113
Affect of Phase II valsalva?
Decreased preload
114
What will valsava decrease intensity of?
Most murmurs (including AS)
115
Affect of valsalva on MVP?
Earlier onset of click/murmur.
116
What will valsava increase intensity of?
hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
117
Affect of rapid squatting?
1) increased venous return
2) increased preload
3) increased afterload
118
Affect of squatting on HOCM?
decrease intensity
119
Affect of squatting on AS?
increase intensity
120
Affect of squatting on MVP?
Later onset of click/murmur
121
AS radiation
Loudest at base; radiates to carotids.
122
"Pulses parvus et tardus"
Pulses are weak with a delayed peak.
123
AS presentation
syncope + angina + dyspnea on exertion
124
Murmur radiating to right sternal border
tricuspid regurg
125
Rheumatic fever caveat
Can cause either MR or TR
126
MVP murmur
Late systolic crescendo murmur with mid systolic click
127
What is mid systolic click due to
Sudden tensing of chordae tendinae.
128
Most frequent valvular lesion?
MVP
129
MVP best location for auscultation?
Apex
130
When is MVP loudest?
Just before S2.
131
Some causes of MVP
1) Marfan's
2) Ehlers-Dalos
3) rheumatic fever
4) chordae rupture
132
When are PDAs loudest?
S2
133
Most common causes of PDAs
1) congenital rubella
| 2) prematurity
134
Where are PDAs best heard?
Left infraclavicular area
135
aortic regurg murmur description
High-pitched blowing early diastolic decrescendo murmur.
136
aortic regurg characteristics
1) long diastolic murmur
2) hyperdynamic pulse
3) head bobbing when severe or chronic
4) wide pulse pressure
137
Aortic regurg causes
1) aortic root dilation
2) bicuspid aortic valve
3) endocarditis
4) RF
138
What causes opening snap in mitral stenosis?
Abrupt halt in leaflet motion in diastole, after rapid opening due to fusion at leaflet tips.
139
What correlates with severity in mitral stenosis?
Decreased interval between S2 and OS.
140
Sequela of chronic mitral stenosis
LA dilatation
141
What underlies phase 1 in myocardial action potential?
1) inactivation of voltage-gated Na channels
| 2) voltage-gated K+ channels begin to open.
142
What underlies phase 2 in myocardial action potential?
Plateau..
1) Ca2+ influx through voltage-gated Ca2+ channels balances K+ efflux.
2) Ca2+ influx triggers Ca2+ release from sarcoplasmic reticulum and myocyte contraction.
143
What underlies phase 3 in myocardial action potential?
Rapid repolarization--massive K+ efflux due to opening of voltage-gated slow potassium channels and closure of voltage-gated Ca2+ channels.
144
What underlies phase 4 in myocardial action potential?
Resting potential--high K+ permeability through K+ channels.
145
What are the differences between myocardial action potential and skeletal muscle action potential?
1) Cardiac muscle action potential has a plateau, which is due to Ca2+ influx and K+ efflux.
2) Cardiac muscle contraction requires Ca2+ influx from ECF to induce Ca2+ release from sarcoplasmic reticulum (Ca2+ induced Ca2+ release).
3) electrical coupling with gap junctions.
146
Phases of pacemaker action potential...
Phase 0, phase 3, phase 4.
| *NO phase 1 or 2.
147
What underlies phase 0 in pacemaker action potential?
Upstroke--opening of voltage-gated Ca2+ channels. Results in a slow conduction velocity that is used by the AV node to prolong transmission.
148
What underlies phase 3 in pacemaker action potential?
Inactivation of Ca2+ channels + increased activation of K+ channels leading to potassium efflux.
149
What underlies phase 4 in pacemaker action potential?
Slow spontaneous diastolic depolarization due to If (funny current).
150
If channels (funny current)
Slow, mixed Na/K inward current
151
What accounts for automacity of SA and AV nodes?
If channels (funny current)
152
What determines heart rate?
Slope of phase 4 in SA node.
153
Affect of adenosine on pacemaker action potential?
Decreases the rate of diastolic depolarization and decreases HR.
154
How does sympathetic stimulation increase HR?
Increases the chance that If channels are open and thus increases HR.
155
Conduction pathway in heart
SA node --> atria --> AV node --> bundle of His --> right and left bundle branches --> Purkinje fibers --> ventricles.
156
Why is the SA node the dominant pacemaker?
slow phase of upstroke
157
AV node location
Posteroinferior part of intertribal septum.
158
Pacemaker rates
SA, AV, bundle of His/Purkinje/ventricles
159
Speed of conduction
Purkinje, atria, ventricles, AV node
160
PR interval
Time from start of atrial depolarization to start of ventricular depolarization
161
Normal PR interval
Less than 200 msec
162
Normal QRS
less than 120 msec
163
What does QT interval represent?
ventricular depolarization + mechanical contraction of the ventricles + ventricular depolarization.
164
What does T wave represent?
Ventricular repolarization
165
What does a T-wave inversion indicate?
Recent MI.
166
What is the J point?
Junction between end of QRS complex and start of ST segment.
167
What does the ST segment represent?
Isoelectric period in which ventricles are depolarized.
168
When is a U wave prominent?
1) hypokalemia
| 2) bradycardia
169
treatment for torsades de pointes?
magnesium sulfate
170
What causes torsades de pointes?
1) long QT syndromes
2) drugs
3) hypokalemia
4) hypomagnesemia
171
Drugs causing torsades de pointes?
1) antiarrhythmics (class IA, III)
2) macrolides
3) haloperidol
4) TCAs
5) ondansetron
172
Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome etiology
Abnormal fast accessory conduction pathway from atria to ventricle (bundle of Kent) bypasses rate-slowing AV node. This causes ventricles to depolarize early.
173
What is a delta wave?
shortened PR interval (due to early depolarization)
174
Wolff-Parkinson-White sequela
Reentry circuit leading to SVT.
175
Most common RF's for afib
1) HTN
| 2) CAD
176
definitive treatment for atrial flutter
catheter ablation
177
1st degree AV block
Prolonged PR interval. Benign and asymptomatic condition that doesn't require treatment.
178
Mobitz type I (wenckebach)
Type of 2nd degree heart block. Progressive lengthening of PR interval until a beat is "dropped" (a P wave not followed by a QRS complex). Variable RR interval with a pattern (regularly irregular)
179
Mobitz type I prognosis
usually asymptomatic
180
Mobitz type II
Form of second degree that block. Dropped beats that aren't preceded by a change in length of PR interval.
181
Mobitz type II sequela
Can progress to 3rd degree block.
182
Mobitz type II management
Often treated with a pacemaker.
183
3rd degree heart block pathophys
atria and ventricles beat independently of each other.
184
3rd degree heart block on ECG
P waves and QRS complexes not rhythmically associated.
185
3rd degree heart block management
pacemaker
186
ANP effects
1) vasodilation
2) decreased Na+ reabsorption at *collecting tubule
3) dilates afferent arterioles + constricts efferent arterioles, promoting diuresis and contributing to aldosterone escape.
187
Difference between ANP and BNP?
BNP has a longer half-life.
188
nesiritide
recombinant BNP
189
Diagnostic relevance of BNP?
Blood test used for diagnosing HF (very good negative predictive value)
190
aortic chemoreceptor pathway
Transmits via vagus nerve to solitary nucleus of medulla.
191
Carotid sinus pathway
Transmits via glossopharyngeal nerve to solitary nucleus of medulla.
192
Carotid massage mechanism
Increased pressure on carotid sinus leads to increased stretch --> increased afferent baroreceptor firing --> increased AV node refractory period --> decreased HR.
193
Cushing reaction setting
Triad of HTN + bradycardia + respiratory depression
194
Cushing reaction pathophys
Increased ICP constricts arterioles leading to cerebral ischemia leading to increased PCO2 and decreased pH --> central reflex sympathetic increase in perfusion pressure (HTN) --> increased stretch --> increased peripheral reflex baroreceptor-induced bradycardia.
Better explanation:
With increased ICP, cushing reflex increases MAP in an attempt to restore cerebral perfusion pressure. Bradycardia occurs because baroreceptors in the carotid and aortic arch don't know what's going on in brain and just ease hypertension.
195
What triggers peripheral chemoreceptors?
1) decreased Po2
2) increased PCO2
3) decreased pH
196
What triggers central chemoreceptors?
Changes in pH and pCO2 of brain interstitial fluid (which are influenced by arterial CO2).
197
How do you determine mitral stenosis from cardiac pressures?
PCWP greater than LV EDV.
198
Normal cardiac pressures
FA 280
199
cardiac pressures from codebook
o Code: covered in ivy/right atrium = 0,8. Covered in hair + nails pounded in everywhere/right ventricle = 4,25. Nails + big hoops/pulmonary artery = 9,25. Hens + walls made out of tin cans/left atrium = 2,12. Hoops on walls + mice drinking mimosas/left ventricle = 9,130. Mice drinking mimosas + carrying briefcases/aorta = 70,130. Wedge of tissue sitting in middle of road covered in tin cans/wedge pressure = 12 (remember that wedge pressure is an indication of left atrial pressure).
o Location: Intersection of montview and colorado
200
what determines auto regulation in the heart?
Local vasodilatory metabolites: adenosine, NO, CO2, decreased O2.
201
What determines auto regulation in the brain?
CO2 (pH)
202
What determines auto regulation in the kidney?
Myogenic + tubuloglomerular feedback
203
Tubuloglomerular feedback
just macula dense and RAAS mechanism
204
myogenic mechanism
reflex vasoconstriction that occurs when perfusion pressure increases
205
what determines skeletal muscle regulation with exercise?
local metabolites: lactate, adenosine, K+, H+, CO2
206
what determines skeletal muscle regulation at rest?
sympathetic tone
207
what determines auto regulation in the skin?
sympathetic stimulation most impt
208
Thing to remember about about capillary oncotic pressure
Pushes fluid into capillary.
209
Why does lymphatic blockage cause edema?
Increased interstitial fluid colloid osmotic pressure because proteins aren't drained into lymphatics
210
Managing early cyanosis
urgent surgery + maintain PDA
211
congenital heart diseases presenting with early cyanosis
```
5 Ts:
Truncus arteriosus
Transposition
Tricuspid atresia
Tetralogy of ballot
TAPVR
```
212
Persistent truncus arteriosus etiology
Truncus fails to divide into pulmonary trunk and aorta due to lack of aorticopulmonary septum formation; most patients have accompanying VSD.
213
Etiology of transposition of great vessels
Failure of aorticopulmonary septum to spiral.
214
hypoplastic RV in cyanotic newborn suggests...
tricuspid atresia
215
TOF etiology
anterosuperior displacement of the infundibular septum.
216
shunt in TOF
Pulmonary stenosis forces right-to-left flow across VSD leading to RVH
217
What are "tet spells"
characteristic of TOF. exacerbation of RV outflow obstruction.
218
Why does squatting help TOF patients?
Increased SVR, decreased right to left shunt, improves cyanosis.
219
TAPVR mechanism
Pulmonary veins drain into right heart circulation.
220
Epstein anomaly associations
Tricuspid regurgitation + right HF.
221
Relative frequency of ASD, PDA, VSD
VSD, ASD, PDA
222
difference in presentation between right-to-left and left-to-right shunts?
Right-to-Left shunts: eaRLy cyanosis.
| Left-to-Right shunts: "LateR" cyanosis.
223
Most common congenital cardiac defect
VSD
224
How does VSD present in terms of O2 saturation?
Increased in RV and pulmonary artery.
225
More common defect in ASD
Ostium secundum defects most common.
226
Difference between ASD and PFO
In ASDs, septa are missing tissue rather than unfused.
227
Increased O2 sat in RA, RV, and pulmonary artery?
ASD
228
What happens to PDA in neonatal period?
With decreased pulmonary vascular resistance, shunt becomes left to right, leading to progressive RVH and/or LVH and HF.
229
Eisenmenger mechanism
Uncorrected left-to-right shunt (VSD, ASD, PDA) leads to increased pulmonary blood flow --> pathologic remodeling of vasculature --> increased pulmonary arterial HTN and compensatory RVH --> shunt switches to become right to left.
230
Eisenmenger presentation
Late cyanosis + clubbing + polycythemia.
231
aortic coarctation associations
1) bicuspid aortic valve
2) congenital heart defects
3) Turner syndrome
232
Complications of aortic coarctation...
1) HF
2) Increased risk of cerebral hemorrhage (berry aneurysm)
3) aortic rupture
4) endocarditis.
233
fetal alcohol syndrome congenital cardiac defect associations
ASDs, VSDs, PDA, TOF
234
congenital rubella congenital cardiac defect associations
1) PDA
2) pulmonary artery stenosis
3) septal defects
235
Infant of diabetic mother: congenital cardiac defect associations
transposition of great vessels
236
Marfan syndrome: congenital cardiac defect associations
1) MVP
2) aortic regurgitation
3) thoracic aortic aneurysm and dissection
237
Williams syndrome: congenital cardiac defect associations
supravalvular aortic stenosis
238
22q11 syndromes: congenital cardiac defect associations
1) truncus arteriosus
| 2) TOF
239
HTN ethnic incidence
AA, caucasian, asian
240
HTN definition
persistent systolic greater than 140 and/or diastolic greater than 90
241
most hypertension is primary (essential) and due to..
Increased CO or increased TPR
242
Classic radiologic finding in FMD
"string of beads" appearance of arteries
243
hypertensive urgency
severe (greater than 180 or greater than 120) HTN without acute end-organ damage.
244
Hypertensive emergency
Severe HTN with evidence of acute end-organ damage (eg encephalopathy, stroke, retinal hemorrhages and exudates, papilledema, MI, HF, aortic dissection, kidney injury, microangiopathic hemolytic anemia, eclampsia).
245
Post-MI murmur?
Probably mitral regurg due to papillary muscle rupture.
246
Note -- don't assume VSD with holosystolic murmur.
OK
247
Flow rate expressed in...
L/min
248
calculation note: DO NOT forgot to convert units
OK.
249
Cubic centimeter in liter
1000 cubic cm = 1 liter
250
Pericarditis presentation
Sharp pain aggravated by inspiration + relieved by sitting up and leaning forward.
251
Characteristic physical exam finding in pericarditis
Friction rub (described as harsh as scratchy sound present in both systole and diastole)
252
Pericarditis associations
1) Idiopathic (presumed viral)
2) coxsackievirus
3) neoplasia
4) SLE
5) arthritis
6) uremia
7) cardiovascular (acute STEMI or Dressler syndrome)
8) radiation therapy
253
Hagemann factor Function
part of intrinsic pathway, activates kallikrein.
254
Important complication of horseshoe kidney
Variant arterial supply. Anomalous origins of multiple renal arteries to each kidney.
255
What do xanthomas consist of ?
lipid-laden histiocytes
256
xanthelaasma?
xanthomas in the eyelids
257
corneal arcus
Lipid deposits in cornea. Looks like ring around eye. Don't confuse with Kaiser-Fleischer rings.
258
Arteriosclerosis finding in essential HTN
Hyaline arteriolosclerosis
259
Diabetes mellitus arteriosclerosis finding
hyaline arteriolosclerosis
260
Severe HTN arteriosclerosis finding and etiology
Hyperplastic arteriosclerosis (onion skinning with proliferation of smooth muscle cells).
261
Monckeberg description
medial calcific sclerosis
262
Classic radiologic finding of Monckeberg's
pipestem appearance.
263
Monckeberg etiology
Calcification of internal elastic lamina and media. ***no intimal involvement.
264
atherosclerosis epidemiology location
abdominal aorta, coronary artery, popliteal, carotid
265
nonmodifiable RF's for atherosclerosis
1) Age
2) Sex
3) Family history
266
Sex at increased risk for atherosclerosis?
Increased in men + postmenopausal women
267
claudication is a sign of...
atherosclerosis.
268
atherosclerosis pathogenesis.
Inflammation impt. endothelial cell dysfunction --> macrophage and LDL accumulation --> foam cell formation --> fatty streaks --> smooth muscle cell migration, proliferation, and ECM deposition --> fibrous plaque --> complex atheroma.
269
What causes smooth muscle cell migration in atheroma formation?
PDGF and FGF
270
If someone has abdominal and/or back pain and a bulge/aneurysm what does this indicate?
Aneurysm is leaking, dissected, or rupture is imminent.
271
AAA RF's
1) tobacco use
2) increased age
3) male sex
4) family history
272
RF's for thoracic aortic aneurysms
1) HTN
2) bicuspid aortic valve
3) connective tissue disease (Marfan's)
273
abdominal vs thoracic aneurysms?
Abdominal associated with atherosclerosis, thoracic associated with HTN and cystic medial degeneration.
274
Aneurysm type in tertiary syphilis?
thoracic aortic aneurysm
275
cystic medial degeneration?
Degenerative breakdown of collagen, elastin, and smooth muscle.
276
Where does traumatic aortic rupture most commonly occur?
Aortic isthmus
277
What is the aortic isthmus?
Proximal descending aorta just distal to origin of left subclavian
278
Aortic dissection associations
1) HTN
2) **bicuspid aortic valve
3) inherited connective tissue disorders
279
Markedly unequal BP in arms suggests....
Aortic dissection
280
CXR finding of aortic dissection
Mediastinal widening.
281
Aortic dissection:
| Stanford type A
Proximal aortic dissection; involves Ascending aorta. May extend to aortic arch or descending aorta.
282
Stanford type A treatment
surgery
283
Stanford type A complications
Acute aortic regurgitation or cardiac tamponade
284
Stanford type B aortic dissection
Distal. Involves descending aorta and/or aortic arch.
285
Stanford type B aortic dissection management.
B-blockers then vasodilators.
286
Angina caveat
No myocyte necrosis.
287
Stable angina on ECG
ST depression
288
Variant (prinzmetal) angina triggers
1) tobacco
2) cocaine
3) triptans
289
variant angina treatment
1) Ca2+ channel blockers
2) nitrates
3) smoking cessation
290
unstable angina pathophys
Thrombosis with incomplete coronary artery occlusion.
291
Unstable angina on ECG + markers
+/- ST depression and/or T wave inversion buT NO cardiac biomarker elevation.
292
How do you distinguish NSTEMI from unstable angina?
biomarker elevation with NSTEMI, none with unstable.
293
difference in presentation from stable and unstable angina
Stable usually exertion chest pain; unstable is either increase in frequency or intensity of pain or pain at rest.
294
coronary steal syndrome pathophy
Distal to coronary stenosis, vessels are maximally dilated at baseline. Administration of vasodilators dilates normal vessels and shunts blood toward well-perfused areas leading to decreased flow and ischemia in poststenotic region.
295
regadenoson
vasodilator
296
dipyridamole use and MOA
1) vasodilator, inhibits clot formation
| 2) phosphodiesterase inhibitor
297
SCD definition
death from cardiac causes within 1 hour of onset
298
large majority of cases of SCD are caused by...
CAD
299
What is chronic ischemic heart disease?
Progressive onset of HF over many years due to chronic ischemic myocardial damage.
300
STEMI pathophys
Transmural infarct. Full thickness of myocardial wall involved.
301
STEMI on ECG
ST elevation + Q waves
302
NSTEMI pathophys
subendocardial infarcts
303
commonly occluded coronary arteries
LAD, RCA, circumflex
304
finding I don't often think of with MI's
Pain in left arm and/or jaw
305
0-24 MI timeframe light microscopy
1) Early coagulative necrosis
2) release of necrotic cell contents into blood
3) edema, hemorrhage, wavy fibers.
4) neutrophils appear
306
0-24 MI etiology
Repercussion injury, associated with generation of free radicals, leads to hyper contraction of myofibrils through increased free calcium influx.
307
0-24 hr timeframe complications
1) ventricular arrhythmias
2) HF
3) cardiogenic shock
308
1-3 day timeframe complication
Postinfarction fibrinous pericarditis.
309
macroscopic appearance of heart in 1-3 day timeframe
hyperemia
310
hyperemia
increased blood flow to different tissues in body
311
1-3 day microscope chagnes
1) coagulative necrosis
| 2) *tissue surrounding infarct shows acute inflammation + neutrophils.
312
3-14 day macroscopic appearance
- hyperemic border; central yellow-born softening.
| - maximally yellow and soft by 10 days.
313
Papillary muscle rupture leads to...
mitral regurgitation
314
morphologic appearance 2 weeks to several months
- Reanalyzed artery.
| - Gray-white appearance
315
True vs false ventricular aneurysms
True occur later (after 2 weeks), false in 3-14 day timeframe.
316
complication of true ventricular aneurysm
Mural thrombus.
317
MI diagnosis and timeframe
- In the first 6 hours, ECG is the gold standard.
| - Biomarkers afterward.
318
Troponin timeframe
1) Rises after 4 hours
2) Peaks at 24 hours
3) elevated for 7--10 days
319
CK-MB timeframe
1) Rises after 6-12 hours
2) Peaks at 16-24 hours
3) Returns to baseline at 48 hours
320
CK-MB downfall and use
It's also found in skeletal muscle so not as specific, but good at diagnosing reinfarction since levels fall earlier.
321
hyperacute T waves
peak T-waves
322
Other ECG findings related to MI's
1) hyper acute T waves
2) T-wave inversion
3) new left bundle branch block
4) pathologic Q waves
5) poor R wave progression
323
What does poor R wave progression on ECG indicate?
evolving or old transmural infarct. R wave should become progressively taller, but remains low.
324
Anteroseptal leads
V1-V2
325
Anteroapical leads
V3-V4
326
Anterolateral leads
V5-V6
327
Lateral leads
I, aVL
328
What leads will be elated with an anteroseptal (LAD) infarct?
V1-V2
329
What leads will be elated with an anteroseptal (distal LAD) infarct?
V3-V4
330
What leads will be elated with an anterolateral (LAD or LCX) infarct?
V5-V6
331
What leads will be elevated with a lateral (LCX) infarct?
I, aVL
332
What leads will be elated with an inferior (RCA) infarct?
II, III, aVF
333
What leads will be elated with a posterior (PDA) infarct?
V7-V9, ST depression in V1-V3 with tall R waves
334
tall R waves suggests..
posterior infarct
335
most impt complication within first 24 hours post-MI?
arrhythmia
336
What does a friction rub post MI indicate?
post infarction fibrinous pericarditis
337
Where is papillary muscle rupture most likely to occur and why?
Posteromedially, due to single blood supply from PDA.
338
When do inter ventricular septal ruptures occur?
3-5 days post MI
339
What mediates interventricualr septal ruptures?
Macrophages
340
Complications of ventricular pseudoaneurysms...
1) decreased CO
2) increased risk of arrhythmia
3) embolus from mural thrombus
341
sequela of free wall rupture
cardiac tamponade
342
How do true ventricular aneurysms present?
Outward bulge with contraction ("dyskinesia") associated with fibrosis.
343
Sign of LV infarction?
pulmonary edema
344
Sign of papillary muscle rupture?
mitral regurg leading to pulmonary edema
345
Unstable angina/NSTEMI management
1) heparin for anticoagulation
2) anti platelet therapy (aspirin + clopidogrel)
3) beta-blocker
4) ACE inhibitor
5) statins
346
clopidogrel mechanism
ADP receptor inhibitor
347
How do you control symptoms with unstable angina/NSTEMI?
Nitroglycerin + morphine.
348
STEMI management?
Same as NSTEMI but you need repercussion therapy with PCI (preferred over fibrinolysis).
349
Most common cardiomyopathy?
Dilated cardiomyopathy
350
Common dilated cardiomyopathy etiologies
1) chronic alcohol abuse
2) wet beriberi
3) coxsackie B
4) chronic cocaine use
5) Chagas disease
6) doxorubicin
7) hemochromatosis
8) sarcoidosis
9) peripartum cardiomyopathy
351
Murmur with dilated cardiomyopathy?
Systolic regurgitant murmur.
352
hypertrophy associated with dilated cardiomyopathy?
Eccentric hypertrophy.
353
Dilated cardiomyopathy treatment?
1) Na restriction
2) ACE inhibitors
3) beta-blockers
4) diuretics
5) digoxin
6) ICD
7) heart transplant
354
Eccentric hypertrophy etiology
sarcomeres added in series.
355
Concentric hypertrophy?
There's no overall enlargement of ventricle. The walls are thickened.
356
concentric hypertrophy associations
Volume overload, such as which HTN or aortic stenosis.
357
Auscultation findings in HOCM
1) S4
2) systolic murmur
3) Mitral regurg possible due to impaired mitral valve closure.
358
HOCM management
1) no high intensity sports
2) b-blocker or non-dihydropyridine Ca-blocker (verapamil)
3) ICD if high risk
359
HOCM macroscopic findings
myofibrillar disarray + fibrosis
360
Obstructive HOCM
subtype of HOCM characterized by asymmetric septal hypertrophy + systolic anterior motion of mitral valve, leading to outflow obstruction, dyspnea and possible syncope
361
infiltrative cardiomyopathy?
restrictive cardiomyopathy
362
What are some major causes of restrictive cardiomyopathy?
1) sarcoidosis
2) amyloidosis
3) postradiation fibrosis
4) endocardial fibroelastosis
5) Loffler syndrome
6) hemochromatosis
363
endocardial fibroelastosis?
thick fibroelastic tissue in endocardium of young children.
364
Loftier syndrome
Endomyocardial fibrosis with a prominent eosinophilic infiltrate.
365
ECG and restrictive cardiomyopathy
Low-voltage ECG
366
rales?
another name for crackles
367
systolic dysfunction characteristics
Reduced EF + increased EDV + decreased contractility
368
Diastolic dysfunction characteristics
Preserved EF + *normal EDV + decreased compliance (secondary to myocardial hypertrophy)
369
Most common cause of right HF
Left HF
370
cor pumonale
Isolated right HF due to pulmonary cause
371
Drug contraindicated in acute decompensated HF?
beta-blockers
372
What decreases mortality with heart failure?
1) ACEIs
2) ARBs
3) beta-blockers (except in acute decompensated)
373
What drugs improve both symptoms in mortality in HF patients?
Hydralazine with nitrate therapy.
374
Orthopnea etiology?
Increased venous return from redistribution of blood (gravity effect)
375
paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea etiology
same as orthopnea, increased venous return from redistribution of blood
376
Rare complication of hepatomegaly?
cardiac cirrhosis
377
Causes of hypovolemic shock?
1) hemorrhage
2) dehydration
3) *burns
378
Obstructive shock
reduced CO due to cardiac tamponade or PE
379
Distributive shock and causes
Inadequate organ perfusion due to...
1) sepsis
2) anaphylaxis
3) CNS injury
380
Skin findings that distinguish distributive vs. other types of shock
Distributive shock presents with warm or dry skin. Other forms of shock present with cold, clammy skin.
381
Hypovolemic shock treatment
IV fluids
382
Cariogenic shock treatment
Inotropes + diuresis
383
Obstructive shock treatment?
Relieve obstruction
384
Sepsis, anaphylaxis, CNS injury shock treatment?
IV fluids + pressors
385
hypovolemic shock
1) PCWP
2) CO
3) SVR
1) very reduced. Remember - this is preload
2) reduced.
3) Increased. this is afterload
386
PCWP importance
= preload
387
obstructive shock
1) PCWP
2) CO
3) SVR
1) increased
2) decreased a lot
3) increased
388
SVR significance
afterload
389
cardiogenic shock
1) PCWP
2) CO
3) SVR
1) increased
2) decreased a lot
3) increased
390
Sepsis, anaphylaxis..
1) PCWP
2) CO
3) SVR
1) decreased
2) increased
3) severely decreased
391
Shock related to CNS injury..
1) PCWP
2) CO
3) SVR
1) decreased
2) **decreased
3) severely decreased
392
Skin findings with shock related to CNS injury
dry
393
Skin findings with shock related to sepsis, anaphylaxis...
warm
394
Roth spots description
Round white spots on retina surrounded by hemorrhage
395
osler nodes description
tender raised lesson on finger or toe pads
396
Janeway lesions description
Small, painless, erythematous lesions on palm or sole
397
caveat about bacterial endocarditis
You need multiple blood cultures for diagnosis.
398
vegetations in acute vs subacute endocarditis
With acute you get large vegetation on previously normal valves, with subacute you get smaller vegetations on congenitally abnormal or diseased valves.
399
Causes of nonbacterial endocarditis?
1) malignancy
2) hyper coagulable state
3) lupus
400
bugs causing tricuspid valve endocarditis
1) S aureus
2) pseudomonas
3) candida
401
bugs causing culture negative endocarditis
1) Coxiella brunette
2) bartonella
3) HACEK bugs
402
HACEK bugs
```
Haemophilus
Aggregatibacter (formerly actinobacillus)
Cardiobacterium
Eikenella
Kingella
```
403
Valves affected in RF in order
mitral then aortic then tricuspid (high-pressure valves affected most)
404
Anitschkow cells
Rheumatic fever
405
Anitschkow cell description
enlarged macrophages with ovoid, wavy, rod-like nucleus
406
rheumatic fever pathophys
Type II hypersensitivity. Antibodies to M protein cross-react with self antigens (molecular mimicry)
407
Rheumatic fever treatment
penicillin
408
joint presentation of rheumatic fever
migratory polyarthritis
409
common complication of acute pericarditis
Pericardial effusion
410
physical exam finding for pericarditis
friction rub
411
ECG for pericarditis
Widespread ST-segment elevation and/or PR depression
412
Causes of acute pericarditis
1) idiopathic (presumed viral)
2) coxsackie
3) neoplasia
4) SLE
5) RA
6) uremia
7) acute STEMI
8) dressler
9) radiation therapy
413
what happens to pressure in cardiac chambers with tamponade?
Equilibration of pressure in all 4 chambers.
414
ECG in tamponade
low-voltage QRS + electrical alternans
415
what is pulsus paradoxus?
Decrease in amplitude of systolic BP by greater than 10 mm Hg during inspiration.
416
Pulsus paradoxes seen in..
1) cardiac tamponade
2) asthma
3) OSA
4) pericarditis
5) croup
417
Most common heart tumor...
metastasis
418
What is kussmaul sign?
Increase in JVP on inspiration instead of a normal decrease.
419
JVD pathophys
inspiration --> negative intrathoracic pressure not transmitted to heart --> impaired filling of right ventricle --> blood backs up into venae cavae
420
Kussmaul sign + elevated JVP associations
1) constrictive pericarditis
2) restrictive cardiomyopathies
3) right atrial or ventricular tumors
421
Pathophys of eye injury with GCA
Ophthalmic artery can become occluded
422
What arteries are most commonly affected by GCA?
Branches of carotid
423
Takayasu affects..
Large-vessels: aortic arch and proximal great vessels
424
Takayasu presentatoin
1) "pulseless disease" (weak upper extremity pulses)
| 2) fever + night sweats + arthritis + myalgias + skin nodules + ocular disturbances
425
Takayasu treatment
corticosteroids
426
polyarteritis nodosa classic demographic
young adults
427
PAN presentation
Fever + weight loss + malaise + headache + abdominal pain + melon.
HTN + neurologic dysfunction + cutaneous eruptions + renal damage.
428
what arteries are usually involved in PAN?
Renal and visceral vessels, NOT pulmonary arteries.
429
Hypersensitivity type in PAN?
immune complex mediated
430
PAN treatment
1) corticosteroids
| 2) cyclophosphamide
431
Impt findings in PAN
1) transmural inflammation with fibrinoid necrosis
2) different stages of inflammation coexisting in different vessels
3) innumerable renal micro aneurysms and spasms on arteriogram.
432
Other name for Kawasaki
mucocutaneous lymph node syndrome
433
kawasaki presentation
conjunctival injection + rash (desquamating) + cervical adenopathy + strawberry tongue + hand foot changes + fever
434
strawberry tongue medical term
oral mucositis
435
Kawasaki treatment
IVIG + aspirin
436
Other name for Buerger's...
Thromboangiitis obliterans
437
other impt finding in Buerger's...
superficial nodular phlebitis
438
Wegener's upper respiratory presentation
1) perforated nasal septum
2) chronic sinusitis
3) otitis media
4) mastoiditis
439
mastoiditis
mastoid sits behind the ear (battle sign)
440
renal presentation of Wegener's
hematuria + red cell casts
441
wegener's triad
focal necrotizing vasculitis + necrotizing granulomas in lung and upper airway + necrotizing glomerulonephritis.
442
other term for c-ANCA
anti-proteinase 3
443
CXR in wegener's
large nodular densities
444
Wegener's treatment
Cyclophosphamide + corticosteroids
445
microscopic polyangiitis presentation
Necrotizing vasculitis commonly involved lung + kidneys + skin with pauci-immune glomerulonephritis and palpable purpura.
446
How do you differentiate microscopic polyangiitis from wagerer's?
in microscopic polyangiitsis, there's no nasopharyngeal involvement + no granulomas.
447
other name for p-ANCA
anti-myeloperoxidase
448
microscopic polyangiits treatment
cyclophosphamide + corticosteroids
449
Churn-Strauss presentation
asthma + sinusitis + skin nodules or purpura + peripheral neuropathy. Can involve heart, GI, kidneys.
450
churg-strauss path
Granulomatous, necrotizing vasculitis with eosinophilia.
451
Labs in churg-strauss
1) *increased IgE
| 2) MPO-ANCA/p-ANCA
452
HSP pathophys
IgA immune complex deposition
453
Essential HTN management
1) thiazides
2) ACEIs/ARBs
3) *dihydropyridine Ca2+ channel blockers
454
HTN with heart failure management
1) diuretics
2) ACEI's/ARBs
3) b-blockers (compensated) (to prevent cardiac remodeling)
4) aldosterone antagonists (to prevent from being fluid overloaded)
455
HTN with DM management
1) ACE/ARBs (both are protective against diabetic nephropathy)
2) Ca2+ channel blockers
3) thiazides
4) beta-blockers
456
Drugs for HTN in pregnancy?
1) hydrazine
2) labetalol
3) methyldopa
4) nifedipine
457
dihydropyridines vs nondihydropyridines
dihyropyridines act on vascular smooth muscle, non-dihydropyridines act on heart
458
dihydropyridines
all the -pines
459
non-dihydropyridines
dilimiazem + verapamil
460
Ca-channel blocker mechanism
Block voltage-dependent *L-type calcium channels of cardiac and smooth muscle leading to decreased contractility.
461
order of action of calcium channel blockers on vascular smooth muscle
Amlodipine + nifedipine, then diltiazem, then verapamil
462
order of efficacy of calcium channel blockers on heart
verapamil, diltiazem, amlodipine = nifedipine (verapamil for ventricle)
463
dihydropyridine you can't use for HTN, angina, or Raynaud's
nimodipine
464
clevidipine clinal use?
hypertensive urgency or emergency.
465
other use for non-dihydropyridines
afib/ a flutter
466
AE's of non-dihydropyridines
cardiac depression + AV block + hyperprolactinemia + constipation
467
AE's of dihydropyridines
peripheral edema + flushing + dizziness + gingival hyperplasia
468
hydrazine mechanism
increases cGMP leading to smooth muscle relaxation. Vasodilates arterioles more so than veins, leading to after load reduction.
469
when is hydralazine contraindicated?
angina/CAD (due to compensatory tachycardia)
470
hydralazine AE's
fluid retention + headache + angina + lupus-like syndrome
471
hypertensive emergency drugs
1) clevidipine
2) fenoldopam
3) labetalol
4) nicardipine
5) nitroprusside
472
Nitroprusside MOA
short acting, increases cGMP via direct release of NO.
473
Nitroprusside AE
can cause cyanide toxicity (releases cyanide)
474
Fenoldopam MOA
Dopamine D1 receptor agonist-- coronary, peripheral, renal, and splanchnic vasodilation. Decreases BP, increases natriuresis
475
What drug is commonly used postop for anti hypertension?
fenoldopam
476
Fenoldopam SE's
hypotension + tachycardia
477
nitrates effect on veins or arteries?
Dilate veins more than arteries, thus DECREASING preload
478
other use for nitrates
pulmonary edema
479
nitrates AE's
reflex tachycardia + hypotension + flushing + headache.
480
Describe Monday disease
exposure to nitrates leads to development of tolerance for the vasodilating action during the work week and loss of tolerance over the weekend. So they show up to work and become tachy, dizzy, and have a headache upon exposure.
481
MVO2
myocardial oxygen consumption
482
What beta-agonists are contraindicated in angina?
pindolol and acebutolol
483
pindolol MOA
partial B-antagonist (Only partial among nonselective)
484
B-blocker effect on EDV?
no effect or increased
485
Nitrate effect on ejection time?
decrease
486
Beta-blocker effect on ejection time?
Increase
487
Combined effect of nitrates + beta-blockers on
1) EDV
2) BP
3) contractility
4) HR
5) ejection time
6) MVO2
1) no effect or decreased
2) decreased
3) little/no effect
4) no effect or decreased
5) little/no effect
6) decreased significantly
488
**Ranolazine MOA
Inhibits the late phase of sodium current thereby reducing diastolic wall tension and oxygen consumption. *No affect on HR or contractility.
489
What is ranolazine used for?
angina refractory to other medical therapies
490
Ranolazine AE's
constipation + dizziness + headache + nausea + QT prolongation
491
Statin mechanism
HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors: inhibit conversion of HMG-CoA to mevalonate
492
Mevalonate
precursor to cholesterol
493
when is myopathy a concern with statins?
When used with fibrates or niacin.
494
Name bile acid resin drugs
1) cholestyramine
2) colestipol
3) colesevelam
495
Bile acid resins affect on...
1) LDL
2) HDL
3) triglycerides
1) decrease (2 arrows)
2) slight increase
3) slight increase
496
Bile acid AE's
1) GI upset
| 2) decrease absorption of other drugs and fat-soluble vitamins
497
Ezetimibe MOA
Prevents cholesterol absorption at small intestine brush border.
498
1) LDL
2) HDL
3) triglycerides
1) decrease (2 arrows)
2) null
3) null
499
Ezetimibe AE's
rare hepatoxicity + diarrhea
500
Fibrate affect on...
1) LDL
2) HDL
3) triglycerides
1) decrease
2) increase
3) major decrease
501
fibrate mechanism
1) up regulate LPL leading to increased TG clearance
| 2) activates PPAR-alpha to induce HDL synthesis
502
Vibrate AE
myopathy + cholesterol gallstones
503
Niacin affects on...
1) LDL
2) HDL
3) triglycerides
1) significant decrease (2 arrows)
2) significant increase
3) decrease
504
Niacin mechanism as a lipid lowering agent
1) Inhibits lipolysis (HSL) in adipose tissue. Thus this prevents FFA from getting into the bloodstream and uptake into liver where cholesterol synthesis occurs.
2) reduces hepatic VLDL synthesis
505
Other niacin AE's
hyperglycemia + hyperuricemia
506
Cholesterol synthesis pathway
Acetyl CoA --> HMG-CoA --> mevalonate --> cholesterol
507
digoxin affect on vagus nerve
Stimulates vagus nerve leading to decreased HR.
508
Factors predisposing to digoxin toxicity
1) renal failure
2) hypokalemia (this leads to increase binding at K+ binding site on ATPase because there's less potassium).
3) decreased clearance with verapamil, amiodarone, and quinidine
509
Management of digoxin toxicity
1) Slowly normalize K+
2) cardiac pacer
3) anti-dig FAB
4) Mg2+
510
Class IA antiarrhytmics
Quinine + procainamide + disopyramide
511
Class IA affects
1) Increased AP duration
2) increase effective refractory period
3) increase QT interval
512
When are class IA's used?
atrial and ventricular arrhythmias
513
Treatment for re-entrant and ectopic SVT and VT?
Class IA's
514
cinchonism
headache + tinnitus with quinidine
515
disopyramide AE
HF
516
Other 1A SE's
thrombocytopenia + torsades de pointes
517
1B drugs
Lidocaine + mexiletine + (phenytoin)
518
1B affects on action potential
Decrease AP duration.
519
1B MOA
Preferentially affect ischemic or depolarized Purkinje and ventricular tissue.
520
Best anti-arrhythmic post-MI?
IB's (IB is Best post MI)
521
Arrhythmias for digitalis induced?
1B's (lidocaine or mexiletine)
522
1B AE's
CNS stimulation/depression + cardiovascular depression
523
IC drugs
fleicanide + propafenone
524
IC mechanism
Significantly prolong ERP in AV node and accessory bypass tracts. No effect on ERP in purkinje and ventricular tissue.
- No affect on AP duration.
525
antiarrhythmics contraindicated post-MI?
IC (IC Contraindicated post MI)
526
antiarrhythmics contraindicated in structural and ischemic heart disease?
IC (IC contraindicated)
527
beta-blocker mechanism
Decrease SA and AV nodal activity by decreasing cAMP and Ca2+ currents.
528
How do beta-blockers suppress abnormal pacemakers?
Decreasing slope of phase 4.
529
esmolol caveat
very short acting
530
Why is PR interval increased with beta-blockers?
AV node particularly sensitive
531
metoprolol other AE
dyslipidemia
532
propranolol other AE
Can exacerbate vasospasm in prinzmetal angina
533
carvedilol and labetalol MOA
nonselective alpha and b-antagonists
534
Problem with giving b-blockers for cocaine toxicity or pheochromocytoma?
Cause unopposed alpha1 agonism if given alone.
535
Beta-Blocker overdose management
saline + atropine + glucagon
536
Class III antiarrhytmics mechanism
Increase AP duration + increase ERP + increase QT interval
537
Class IIIs used for V tach
amiodarone + sotalol
538
antiarrhythmics for afib
Anything except 1B or 1C
539
Sotalol AE's
torsades de pointes + excessive betablockade
540
Ibutilide AE's
torsades de pointes
541
amiodarone AE's
1) PF
2) hepatotoxic
3) hypothyroidism
4) *hyperthyroidism (amiodarone is 40% iodine by weight)
5) corneal deposits + blue/gray skin deposits resulting in photo dermatitis
6) neurologic effects
7) constipation
8) bradycardia + heart block + HF
542
What will class III look like on action potential graph?
markedly prolonged repolraization
543
Why does amiodarone cause corneal deposits and skin deposits?
Acts as a happen.
544
Caveat about amiodarone
Lipophilic and has class I, II, III, and IV effects.
545
Class IV mechanism
Decreased conduction velocity + increased ERP + increased PR interval
546
What do you use for rate control in fib?
Class IV channel blockers
547
Which anti arrhythmic can depress the sinus node?
class IV - verapamil, diltiazem.
548
adenosine
Moves K+ out of cells leading to hyper polarization of cell and decreased caclium
549
Drug of choice in diagnosing/terminating certain forms of SVT?
adenosine (very short acting)
550
Adenosine contraindications
theophylline + caffeine will blunt effects because both are adenosine receptor antagonists
551
Adenosine AE's
flushing + hypotension + chest pain + sense of impending doom + bronchospasm
552
What do you use to treat torsades de points?
Mg2+
553
Displaced PMI indicates...
cardiomegaly
554
Mixed osteolytic and blastic lesions
1) gastric
| 2) breast
555
acute decompensated heart failure
Decompensation of chronic stable heart failure. Eg from illness, MI, abnormal rhythm, uncontrolled HTN, or increased fluids.
556
Where do internal thoracics come off of?
subclavian
557
Pathophys of rib notching
with increased flow through the internal thoracic-anterior intercostal arterial system, retrograde flow through the posterior intercostal arteries develops, providing oxygenated blood to the descending aorta distal to the coarctation. /this is what causes rib notching (increased flow through the intercostals enlarges the arteries resulting in resorption of bone along the lower borders of the ribs.
558
murmur in aortic coarctation
harsh systolic ejection murmur.
559
carotid occlusion
procedure in which occlusion of the carotid results in less stretch of the carotid baroreceptors and less afferent nerve activity. Basically tricks body into thinking it has a lower blood pressure than it actually has. /thus, a baroreceptor reflex is elicited, leading to an increase in sympathetic tone increasing mean blood pressure + HR.
560
What happens to preload when CO decreases?
Increases because blood is redistributed to the veins. Blood flow ceases, and then flows from high pressure arterial system to low pressure venous system.
561
MCFP
mean circulatory filling pressure. Equilibrated pressure when pressure is equal throughout CV system.
562
Mean systemic filling pressure (MSFP)
Measure of volume of blood and compliance of vessels.
563
Relation of venous compliance to preload
Decreased compliance = increased preload.
564
Bainbridge reflex
Increase in HR due to increase in CVP.
Increased blood volume --> increased volume sensed by baroreceptors --> B-fibers reflex with heart affecting sympathetic and parasympathetic pathways --> increased HR.
565
Auto regulation of blood flow in heart?
ATP consumption increases with increased work --> increased adenosine --> vasodilation --> increased oxygen delivery.
566
What happens to arterial PO2 and arterial O2 sat at high elevation?
Low. Even with acclimatization since these are independent of hematocrit. Just depend on O2 availability.
567
Changes with acclimatization...
1) arterial PO2 and O2 sat stay low
2) systemic arterial O2 content increases to normal
3) pH normal (increased ventilation)
568
acute changes to altitude
decreased PAO2 and PaO2 + decreased PACO2 and PaCO2 + increased systemic arterial pH + decreased Hb% sat + decreased systemic arterial O2.
569
What happens to compliance and CVP with exercise?
Increased sympathetic activity causes venous smooth muscle constriction --> decreased compliance --> increased CVP --> increases CO
570
adenosine half-life
minutes
571
TPR and CO changes with dynamic, endurance exercise?
Increased CO + decreased TPR due to metabolic vasodilation.
572
static exercise changes in...
1) blood flow
2) MAP
3) ATP/ADP ratio
Contraction of skeletal muscles compress blood vessels and decreases blood flow. This increases vascular resistance + profound increase of MAP.
3) decreased.
573
What happens to blood flow with dynamic exercise?
Increased blood flow due to metabolic vasodilation of arterioles due to local vasodilator actions.
574
PV loop changes with LV dilation
Only slightly increased EDP (compliance increases but not a significant change in pressure).
575
Hypertonic contraction
Loss of hypotonic fluid
576
Hypertonic expansion
Excessive intake of sodium chloride.
577
Approach to Darrow Yannett diagrams
Just draw cell and think about osmolar effect.
578
Causes of isotonic fluid loss
1) hemorrhaging
2) diarrhea
3) vomiting
579
Affect of isotonic fluid loss on:
1) osmolarity
2) ICF volume
3) ECF volume
1) no change
2) no change (no force pushing fluid out of cell)
3) decreased
580
Causes of hypotonic fluid loss:
1) dehydration
2) DI
3) alcoholism
581
Affect of hypotonic fluid loss on:
1) osmolarity
2) ICF volume
3) ECF volume
1) Increased
2) decreased
3) decreased
582
Affect of isotonic fluid gain on:
1) osmolarity
2) ICF volume
3) ECF volume
1) no change
2) no change
3) increased
583
Causes of hypotonic fluid gain
1) hypotonic saline
| 2) water intoxication
584
Affect of hypotonic fluid gain on:
1) osmolarity
2) ICF volume
3) ECF volume
1) decreased
2) increased
3) increased
585
Premature contraction of the ventricle (PVC) on ECG
no P wave
586
Premature contraction of the ventricle (PVC)
presentation = either asymptomatic or palpitations or syncopale episodes. /can present after MIs in which tissue damage in ventricular tissue produces ectopic (non-SA node) sites of electrical activation. When these sites depolarize the ventricles contract independently and generate premature and abnormal QRS patterns seen on ECG.
587
afib on ECG
absent P waves + irregularly irregular QRS
588
premortem thrombi (lines of zahn) suggests...
afib prior to death
589
treatment of choice for V tach?
amiodarone
590
AV fistula
1) presentation
2) scenario
3) findings
1) coldness of extremity (due to lack of arterial flow)
2) post surgery
3) palpable thrill over area of wound. Continuous murmur. Diminished pulse. Doppler showing turbulence.
591
Nutmeg appearance of heart may also indicate...
right heart failure
592
Adult pressures in the cardiac chambers (minimum, maximum)
Code: covered in ivy/right atrium = 0,8. Covered in hair + nails pounded in everywhere/right ventricle = 4,25. Nails + big hoops/pulmonary artery = 9,25. Hens + walls made out of tin cans/left atrium = 2,12. Hoops on walls + mice drinking mimosas/left ventricle = 9,130. Mice drinking mimosas + carrying briefcases/aorta = 70,130. Wedge of tissue sitting in middle of road covered in tin cans/wedge pressure = 12
593
Common treatment for bradycardia?
atropine (decreases vagal influence on the SA and AV nodes).
594
valsalva maneuver pathophys
pathophys: pressure increase in chest forces blood out of pulmonary circulation into left atrium. ALSO return of systemic blood to the heart is impeded by increased pressure in chest. /effect = decreases preload + decreases afterload
595
What signifies the development of a complicated atheromatous plaque?
Calcification
596
"foci of calcification"
atherosclerotic plaque
597
ruptured free wall presentation
profound hypotension + dyspnea + muffled hear sounds and elevated JVP.
598
What does coronary sinus dilation often suggest
pulmonary hypertension.
599
bronchiolitis obliterans
lymphocytic inflammation and necrosis of bronchiolar walls, leading to scarring and progressive obliteration of small airway lumens.
600
SERCA proteins
Sarcoplasmic reticulum Ca ATPase. Pump Ca, and thus a net positive charge out of the cytosol into the sarcoplasmic reticulum (thus sequester Calcium)
601
sarcoplasmic reticulum
stores calcium
602
Ryanodine receptor functions
Mediates calcium-induced calcium release
603
When does ischemic injury become irreversible?
half hour
604
When does loss of cardiomyocyte contractility occur with ischemia?
after 60 seconds.
605
If radius of an artery decreases by 50%, what is change in blood flow?
Decreases by 1/16 (flow is proportional to radius ^ 4th power) so (1/2)^4 = 1/16
606
Systolic pressure in downstream arteries is actually slightly higher than in aorta.
So renal artery pressure is actually higher than aorta.
607
What happens with extra systolic beats?
There's more calcium in the myocyte so contractility increases. Thus, pulse pressure increases.
608
What does 2 P waves breeding each QRS complex indicate?
Only every other P wave is conducted through AV node to ventricle. Thus, conduction velocity through AV node must be decreased.
609
What determines pulse pressure?
Stroke volume
610
When is the aortic pressure highest in the cardiac cycle?
- Reduced ventricular filling (diastasis).
| - Aortic pressure reaches its highest level immediately after rapid ejection of blood during systole.
611
Affect of histamine on vasculature
1) vasodilation of arterioles, thus increasing filtration.
| 2) constriction of veins
612
Hodgkin's lytic or blastic mets?
blastic
613
What happens to TPR during exercise?
Decreases. Although there is increased sympathetic flow to blood vessels, there is an overriding vasodilation of skeletal muscle arterioles.
614
During which phase of the cardiac cycle is ventricular volume lowest?
Isovolumetric ventricular relaxation (ventricle is relaxed just before filling occurs).
615
Why does standing cause an increase in HR?
Blood pools and due to decreased venous return, baroreceptors sense this and stimulate increased HR.
616
During which phase of ventricular action potential is membrane potential closest o K+?
Phase 4
617
What receptors mediate slowing of the heart?
Muscarinic (via ACh in the SA node)
618
Other cause of decreased inotropy...
- Acetylcholine (on atria)
619
How do sympathetic stimulation and NE increase contractility?
Increasing calcium entry during the plateau phase and increasing storage of Ca by the sarcoplasmic reticulum.96
620
pulses finding in AS
"pulses parvus et tardus"-- pulses are weak with a delayed peak.
