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NPTE > Random Review MUSCULOSKELETAL > Flashcards

Random Review MUSCULOSKELETAL Flashcards

1
Q

spondylolisthesis

A

the forward displacement of one vertebra upon the stationary vertebra beneath it

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2
Q

Spondylolysis

A

a stress fracture through the pars interarticularis of the lumbar vertebrae

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3
Q

Pes cavus

A

high-arched foot

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4
Q

Clubfoot

A
  • talipes equinovarus
  • a congenital deformity (environmental and genetic) that includes components of forefoot adductus, hindfoot varus, and ankle equinus
  • The primary distinguishing factor is the equinus component
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5
Q

Calcaneovalgus

A
  • an intrauterine “packaging” deformity
  • The ankle is in excessive dorsiflexion, the forefoot is curved out laterally, and the hindfoot is in valgus
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6
Q

Metatarsus adductus

A
  • an intrauterine “packaging” deformity
  • The hindfoot is in valgus, and the forefoot is in varus
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7
Q

What purpose does performing radial nerve glides serve?

A

treat symptoms related to shoulder girdle depression, radial nerve distribution, and disorders such as tennis elbow (lateral epicondylalgia) and de Quervain syndrome

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8
Q

Sever disease

A

a calcaneal apophysitis

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9
Q

Treatment for Sever disease

A

benefit from stretching to improve flexibility of the gastrocnemius and soleus and use of a heel wedge to decrease the stress and traction of the Achilles insertion

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10
Q

Marked ulnar drift is a hallmark sign of what?

A

rheumatoid arthritis

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11
Q

Why might patients with RA need cervical stabilization exercises?

A

Because cervical spine ligaments can be affected in this population

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12
Q

ROM recommendation 4-6 weeks post-op for meniscal repair

A

Limit knee flexion to 90 degrees to limit shear stress

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13
Q

The clinical presentation of anterior acetabular labral tears most often includes pain on which movements?

A

passive adduction, flexion, and medial (internal) rotation

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14
Q

What is Scheuermann disease?

A
  • AKA Scheuermann kyphosis, juvenile kyphosis, or juvenile discogenic disease, - a condition of hyperkyphosis
  • involves the vertebral bodies and discs of the spine
  • identified by anterior wedging of >/= 5 degrees in 3+ adjacent vertebral bodies
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15
Q

Scheuermann disease usually affects which spinal segments?

A

T7-T10

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16
Q

Structural scoliosis

A

when the patient’s spine actually has a physical curve

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17
Q

Functional scoliosis

A

when the spine appears to be curved, but the apparent curvature is actually the result of an irregularity elsewhere in the body (e.g. different leg lengths)

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18
Q

arthrogryposis

A
  • children develop severe contractures.
  • It is unlikely that a child with arthrogryposis would be able to stand, and, if so, joint stiffness and lack of muscle development would affect the joints of the foot and hip most.
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19
Q

Sever disease

A
  • AKA calcaneal apophysitis
  • an overuse syndrome caused by microtrauma at the insertion of the Achilles tendon at the calcaneal apophysis
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20
Q

Freiberg disease

A

an idiopathic segmental avascular necrosis of the head of a metatarsal

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21
Q

Symptoms of spondylolisthesis include

A

low back pain, sciatic type pain, hamstring tightness, local tenderness, and, in severe cases, torso shortening,

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22
Q

The purpose of humeroulnar distraction is to

A

increase flexion (or extension) of the elbow joint

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23
Q

High Fowler position

A

a position in which the head of the patient’s bed is raised 80° to 90° with knees flexed

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24
Q

Posterior hip precautions after a total hip arthroplasty

A

avoiding hip flexion greater than 90°, medial (internal) rotation of the hip, and adduction of the hip

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25
Q

Symptoms of sacroiliac joint dysfunction

A
  • pain with walking, ascending or descending stairs
  • hopping or standing on the involved leg
  • pain with transitional movements such as rising to standing position from a sitting position or getting in and out of a car
  • pain that is worsened with long periods of sitting or standing if lumbar lordosis is not maintained
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26
Q

The diaphragm is innervated by which nerve?

A

the phrenic nerve (C3–C5)

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27
Q

Is trunk flexion or extension contraindicated in patients with spondylolisthesis?

A

Trunk extension

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28
Q

High-velocity manipulation is contraindicated for patients who have which LBP diagnoses?

A
  • herniated disc
  • spondylolisthesis
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29
Q

active trunk flexion is contraindicated for patients who have which LBP diagnosis?

A

an acute disc lesion, such as a herniated disc

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30
Q

Capsular patterns for the shoulder

A

ER –> abduction –> IR

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31
Q

Position for gastroc MMT of poor (2/5) or less

A

Prone

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32
Q

Gastroc MMT fair (3/5)

A

1 heel raise correctly

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33
Q

Gastroc MMT good (4/5)

A

2-24 correct heel raise

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34
Q

Gastroc MMT normal (5/5)

A

25 correct heel raise

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35
Q

Pain associated with disc herniations

A

acute pain in the back and leg (unilaterally)

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36
Q

Pain associated with spinal stenosis

A

insidious, not acute, onset as well as bilateral, not unilateral, symptoms

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37
Q

Pain location for central disc herniation during SLR

A

In the back

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38
Q

The symptoms associated with calcific tendinopathy

A

generally very severe subacromial lateral shoulder pain with more sudden onset in patients who are middle aged

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39
Q

A boggy end-feel is produced by

A

fluid or blood in the joint

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40
Q

Meniscal displacement would bring about a __ end-feel

A

springy

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41
Q

The symptoms of vertebral artery compression include

A

dizziness, slurred speech, and confusion

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42
Q

The push-up against a wall works which muscle?

A

serratus anterior

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43
Q

Abduction in the scapular plane works to strengthen which muscle?

A

deltoid and supraspinatus

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44
Q

Normal IR during Craig test

A

8-15 degrees

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45
Q

Calcaneal apophysitis

A
  • Inflammation of the growth plate at the calcaneus in growing children
  • Caused by repetitive stress to the heel
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46
Q

Legg-Calve-Perthes disease

A
  • Avascular necrosis to the femoral head due to lack of blood supply
  • Occurs in children, not adults
  • Can be seen w/ radiograph
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47
Q

Labral tear of the hip presents w/

A
  • Difficulty w/ WB
  • Associated click
  • MOI: excessive extension + ER
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48
Q

Movements occurring in the sagittal plane

A
  • Flexion
  • Extension
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49
Q

Movements occurring in the frontal plane

A
  • Abduction
  • Adduction
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50
Q

Windswept deformity

A
  • Fixed deformity of the LE
  • One LE is adducted + IR
  • Other LE is abducted + ER
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51
Q

Dupuytren’s contracture

A
  • Thickening of the palmar fascia in the hand
  • Contracture pulls fingers into flexion
  • Restricts finger extension
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52
Q

Effects of superficial heat

A
  • Analgesia
  • Increased cell activity
  • Increased blood flow
  • Increased tissue flexibility
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53
Q

first cmc joint type

A

Saddle

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54
Q

Which muscles are the primary muscles of expiration?

A

Abdominals and internal intercostals

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55
Q

Which muscles are the primary muscles of inpiration?

A

Diaphragm and external intercostals

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56
Q

Normal TMJ motion

A
  • Opening: 40-50 mm (functional is 25-35)
  • Protrusion: 7 mm
  • Retrusion: 3-4 mm
  • Lateral deviation: 8-11 mm
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57
Q

At the SC joint, which is concave and which is convex?

A
  • Clavicle –> concave
  • Sternum –> convex
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58
Q

What sensations will a patient feel with cryotherapy, and in what order?

A

1) intense cold
2) burning
3) aching
4) numbness/analgesia

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59
Q

Limited ROM and a hard end feel are consistent with which diagnosis?

A

Impingement

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60
Q

Which bone is just distal to the navicular?

A

Medial cuneiform

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61
Q

If the goal is to get deeper muscle stimulation, how should electrodes be placed for estim?

A

Wider spacing

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62
Q

What is genu recurvatum?

A
  • Hyperextension of the knee
  • Can occur in standing or during gait
  • If ankle’s can’t dorsiflex tibia angulates posteriorly to get heels on the ground
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63
Q

Lisfranc fracture

A
  • Fracture or dislocation of any part of the tarsometatarsal complex
  • Pain will likely be present in the midfoot
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64
Q

What is the procedure for the passive lumbar extension test?

A
  • Pt lies prone
  • PT holds both legs, applies gentle traction
  • PT extends hips to 30 cm while maintaining knee extension
  • Pain or heavy feeling in low back is positive and suggests spinal instability
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65
Q

Plumb line for posture relative to important landmarks

A
  • Through ear lobe
  • Through shoulder joint
  • Midway through trunk
  • Posterior to hip AXIS, but through greater trochanter
  • Anterior to knee axis
  • Anterior to lateral malleolus
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66
Q

Ely test

A
  • AKA prone knee flexion test
  • Pt lies prone and PT flexes knee
  • Anterior pelvic tilt indicates short rectus femoris
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67
Q

Galeazzi fracture

A
  • Fracture of the middle to distal 1/3 of the radius
  • Associated w/ the dislocation or subluxation of the distal radioulnar joint
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68
Q

Counterforce bracing

A
  • An arm band that provides compression distal to elbow laterally on the proximal extensor musculature
  • Has been shown to help manage symptoms w/ lateral epicondylalgia
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69
Q

The coracohumeral ligament becomes most taut with

A

an inferiorly directed force with the humerus by the side

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70
Q

The inferior glenohumeral ligament becomes most taut with

A

an anteriorly directed force with the shoulder abducted 90 degrees

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71
Q

Oswestry Disability Questionnaire (ODQ)

A
  • 10-item self-report outcome measure on how LBP impacts functional activities
  • Asks about changing levels of pain
  • Higher score –> more difficulty and pain
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72
Q

Ehlers-Danlos Syndrome

A
  • Associated w/ congenital hyperlaxity
  • Cervical manip contraindicated
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73
Q

Signs of developmental dysplasia of the hip

A
  • Asymmetric thigh folds
    • Galeazzi sign
    • Barlow sign
    • Ortolani sign
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74
Q

What is a positive Galeazzi sign?

A

One femur appears shorter when the pt is in hook lying (knees and hips bent in supine)

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75
Q

What is a positive Barlow sign?

A
  • Hip is flexed to 90 degrees w/ pt in supine
  • Gentle adduction of the hip + posteriorly directed force through femur
  • Palpate for femur head falling out the back of the acetabulum
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76
Q

What is a positive Ortolani sign?

A
  • Hip is flexed to 90 degrees w/ pt in supine
  • Gentle abduction + upward force through greater trochanter
  • Palpable clunk as femur is reduced into the acetabulum
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77
Q

Signs of Osgood-Schlatter syndrome

A
  • Pain and swelling at the tibial tubercle
  • Patella alta
  • Occurs during a growth spurt
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78
Q

Patella alta

A

an abnormally high patella in relation to the femur

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79
Q

Patella baja

A

an abnormal low-lying patella that remains distal in relation to the femoral trochlea

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80
Q

Typical post-op protocol for Bankart repair week 1

A
  • Hand and elbow ROM
  • Pendulums
  • Shoulder shrugs
  • Wear sling
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81
Q

Typical post-op protocol for Bankart repair weeks 1-2

A
  • AAROM flexion and abduction to 90
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82
Q

Typical post-op protocol for Bankart repair weeks 2-4

A
  • AAROM flexion and abduction to ~110
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83
Q

Typical post-op protocol for Bankart repair weeks 4-6

A
  • AAROM flexion and abduction >120
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84
Q

Typical post-op protocol for Bankart repair weeks 6-9

A
  • Begin working on full AROM in all directions
  • Discontinue the sling
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85
Q

Typical post-op protocol for Bankart repair weeks 9-12

A
  • Strengthen rotator cuff
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86
Q

Typical post-op protocol for Bankart repair weeks 12-16

A

Begin running and doing push-ups

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87
Q

Typical post-op protocol for Bankart repair weeks 16-24

A
  • Resume all activities
  • No contact sports until ~6 months post-op
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88
Q

Common complication for glenohumeral dislocation

A

Axillary nerve injury, can lead to deltoid atrophy

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89
Q

What movement is used to test for acromioclavicular joint dysfunction?

A

Passive horizontal adduction

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90
Q

What sequence should be used with a reciprocating gait orthosis?

A

1) Shift wt R
2) Extend upper trunk to tuck pelvis
3) Push on crutches to unweight L leg
4) Swing through w/ L leg
5) Repeat with switched legs for next step

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91
Q

Symptoms associated w/ spinal stenosis

A
  • Pain decreases w/ flexion, increases w/ extension, ipsilateral side bend/rotation
  • Numbness, tightness, or cramping
  • Walking usually brings on symptoms
  • Positive quadrant test to affected side
  • Positive bicycle test of van Gelderen
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92
Q

Common symptoms of facet dysfunction

A
  • Stiffness upon rising
  • Pain usually eases in a few hours
  • Loss of ROM accompanied by pain that is sharp w/ certain movements
  • Stationary position usually increase symptoms
  • Quadrant test will have pain occurring with side bending and rotating different directions
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93
Q

Symptoms of lumbar disc herniation

A
  • Pain w/ flexion, eased w/ extension
  • Increased pain w/ sitting, lifting, and bending
  • Radicular symptoms w/ nerve compression
  • Pain w/ spinal loading
    • slump and/or SLR tests
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94
Q

Role of the lower traps w/ shoulder abduction

A
  • To assist w/ scapular upward rotation, both upper and lower traps conract
  • If lower traps are weak, the upper traps may excessively elevate as the arm abducts
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95
Q

ODI score interpretation

A
  • 0-20 –> minimal disability
  • 21-40 –> moderate disability
  • 41-60 –> severe disability
  • 61-80 –> crippled
  • 81-100 –> bed-bound
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96
Q

Where does the tendon for the flexor digitorum superficialis insert? What is its action:

A
  • On the base of the middle phalanx
  • Flexes the PIP
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97
Q

Action of the flexor digitorum profundus

A

Flexion of the DIP

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98
Q

How is scoliosis named right or left?

A

The apex of the curve points in the direction of the name

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99
Q

In order to create a left pointing curve with functional scoliosis, what needs to take place?

A
  • R LE needs to be longer than the L LE
  • L LE needs to be shorter than the R LE
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100
Q

When is NMES appropriate to use for strengthening?

A

When weakness is limited to a few muscles

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101
Q

In addition to winging, injury to the long thoracic nerve can present with what functional deficit?

A

Inability to flex the shoulder, because the shoulder flexors do not have a stable base to work with, the scapula against the thorax

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102
Q

Use for a Jewett thoracolumbar orthosis

A

Provides sagittal-coronal control by controlling thoracic flexion

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103
Q

Use of the cruciform anterior spinal hyperextension (CASH) brace

A

Places the pt into hyperextension to prevent thoracic flexion

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104
Q

Use of a custom-molded thoraco-lumbar spinal orthosis (TLSO)

A

Provides total contact to restrict motion in all planes

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105
Q

Use of a halo vest immobilizer

A
  • A cervicothoracic-level orthosis
  • Surgically attached to the cranium
  • Restricts cervical motion in all planes
  • Appropriate for upper cervical injuries
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106
Q

Use of a Minerva cervical thoracic orthosis

A
  • Provides aggressive control of gross and intersegmental motion of cervical and upper thoracic spine
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107
Q

Use of a sternoccipitomandibular immobilizer (SOMI)

A
  • For pts w/ instability at or above C4 vertebral level
108
Q

Use of an Aspen cervicothoracic orthosis

A

For pts presenting w/ instability or injury below the C4 vertebral level

109
Q

Use of a Philadelphia collar

A
  • Cervical-level orthosis
  • Limits cervical flexion and extension
  • Allows for rotation
110
Q

What can happen if an orthosis is in 5 degrees of fixed DF?

A

The knee can buckle

111
Q

Long sitting test

A
  • Used to ID dysfunction of SI joint that might be caused by functional leg length discrepancy
  • Pt lies supine w/ legs straight, clinician assesses medial malleoli symmetry
  • Pt moves to long sitting, medial malleoli symmetry is reassessed
  • Asymmetry in long-sitting indicates functional leg length discrepancy
112
Q

How to test the anterior talofibular ligament (ATFL)

A

Anterior drawer test of the ankle

113
Q

How to test the anterior tibiofibular ligament

A
  • Squeeze the tibia and fibula together firmly and slowly, hold and then quickly release
  • pain upon release at the area of the anterior tibiofibular ligament, then a sprain of that ligament is highly suspected
114
Q

How to test the calcaneofibular ligament

A

Ankle inversion w/ talocrural joint in neutral

115
Q

How to test the deltoid ligament

A

Lateral tilt test

116
Q

When strengthening the hamstring w/o weights, like with early hamstring tear rehab, why does knee flexion in standing provide an advantage compared to knee flexion in supine?

A

During standing, the entire ROM has the tibia moving against gravity

117
Q

Grade I Mobilization

A
  • Small amplitude movement performed at the beginning of range
  • Think w/in first 50% of the range
118
Q

Grade II Mobilization

A
  • Large amplitude movement performed w/in the range
  • Not reaching limit of the range and not returning to the beginning of range
  • Think w/in first 50% of the range
119
Q

Grade III Mobilization

A
  • Large amplitude movement performed up to the limit of range
120
Q

Grade IV Mobilization

A

Small amplitude movement performed at the limit of range

121
Q

Grade V Mobilization

A

Small amplitude, high velocity thrust technique performed to snap adhesions at the limit of range

122
Q

Plica syndrome

A
  • The knee capsule might have additional folds of tissue called plica at the anteromedial side of the knee joint
  • These folds can irritate the medial femoral condyle with excessive knee flexion and extension
123
Q

How to modify a stretch to the posterior shoulder via horizontal adduction when the pt cannot control scapular protraction

A

Have the pt perform the stretch in sidelying w/ the trunk rolled posteriorly 30 degrees to stabilize the scapula

124
Q

How to isolate the hip flexors in pt’s w/ a positive Thomas test

A
  • Maintain knee extension
  • Supine static stretch to psoas
125
Q

Purpose of the active straight leg raise (ASLR) test

A
  • Used primarily to diagnose pregnancy-related pelvic pain
126
Q

Procedure for the ASLR test

A
  • Grade the difficulty of ASLR
  • Repeat the test while compression is applied in either an anterior or posterior direction to assist force closure
127
Q

Implication of ASLR is easier w/ anterior pelvic compression

A

Transversus abdominis is targeted

128
Q

Implication of ASLR is easier w/ posterior pelvic compression

A

Multifidis is targeted

129
Q

How long can TENS be used for relieving chronic low back pain?

A

Can be used up to 24 hrs/day if necessary

130
Q

How intense should TENS be?

A

Comfortable sensation only

131
Q

Parameters for conventional TENS

A
  • 50-80 microseconds pulse duration
  • 100-150 pulses/second for pulse frequency
132
Q

In kids, which is more likely to fail, the bone or the ligament?

A

The bone

133
Q

Which bones are broken with a boxer’s fracture?

A

Fracture of the neck of the 5th metacarpal

134
Q

Which modality should be used for patients w/ localized pain?

A

Pulsed ultrasound w/ lidocaine

135
Q

Impact of heat via continuous ultrasound on tissue w/ active inflammation

A

Further heat and possible irritation

136
Q

Salter-Harris Classification Types for Fractures

A
  • Type I
  • Type II
  • Type III
  • Type IV
  • Type V
137
Q

Salter-Harris Classification Type Type I Description

A

fracture line through the physis only (zone of hypertrophy)

138
Q

Salter-Harris Classification Type Type I Significance

A
  • low chance of growth disturbance
  • occurs most commonly in the hypertrophic zone of physis
139
Q

Salter-Harris Classification Type Type II Description

A

fracture line through the physis and extending to include a portion of the metaphysis

140
Q

Salter-Harris Classification Type Type II Significance

A
  • most common type
  • variable growth disturbance (depends on location)
141
Q

Salter-Harris Classification Type Type III Description

A

fracture line through the physis and exiting through the epiphysis into a joint

142
Q

Salter-Harris Classification Type Type III Significance

A
  • variable growth disturbance
  • anatomic reduction important as fracture involves the joint
143
Q

Salter-Harris Classification Type Type IV Description

A

vertical fracture line through the epiphysis, physis, and metaphysis

144
Q

Salter-Harris Classification Type Type IV Significance

A
  • physeal bar formation possible as fracture line traverses cartilage reverse zone of physis
  • anatomic reduction important as fracture involves the joint
145
Q

Salter-Harris Classification Type Type V Description

A

crush injury to the physis

146
Q

Salter-Harris Classification Type Type V Significance

A
  • rare, hard to distinguish from non-displaced Salter-Harris type 1
  • high chance of growth disturbance
147
Q

Salter-Harris Mnemonic (in relation to the growth plate)

A

S –> straight across (type I)
A –> above (type II)
L –> lower (type II)
TE –> through everything (type IV)
R –> cRush (type V)

148
Q

Best spacing for biofeedback

A

1-2 cm allows for less noise to be recorded and increases the specificity of the muscle

149
Q

Can biofeedback be used with home training?

A

Yes

150
Q

Biofeedback vs manual palpation for teaching pelvic floor muscle contractions

A

Manual palpation is the gold standard

151
Q

Can biofeedback indicate which muscle is being contracted?

A

No, this is why initial education and palpation by the clinician is important

152
Q

Why is 100% duty cycle a bad idea w/ mild redness, swelling, and tenderness over a surgical scar?

A

Thermal effects are achieved w/ 100% duty cycle, which should not be used on inflamed tissue

153
Q

Supraspinatus and deltoid’s respective role in shoulder abduction

A
  • Initiated by supraspinatus for about 15 degrees
  • Deltoid then has ideal line of pull for continued abduction
  • All of this requires the rest of the rotator cuff to work to keep humerus in the glenoid
  • Test all RC muscles
154
Q

Normal lowering of the arch during navicular height testing

A

When the foot goes from non-weight-bearing to weight-bearing, there should be some lowering of the arch

155
Q

March fracture

A
  • a fracture of a metatarsal due to repetitive stress such as prolonged hiking or marching
  • frequently the second metatarsal
156
Q

Where will sesamoid pain be felt in the foot

A

at the location of the sesamoid bones at the first metatarsal head

157
Q

Demographics common to slipped capital femoral epiphysis (SCFE)

A
  • 10-14 years old
  • Male > female
  • Obesity
158
Q

Waveform for NMES

A

Russian current (biphasic pulsed current or burst-modulated alternating current)

159
Q

Pulse duration for NMES

A

200–600 µsec

160
Q

Frequency for NMES

A

200–100 pps (burst per second)

161
Q

Amplitude for NMES

A

Obtain a strong muscle contraction (*at least 50% of MVC)

162
Q

Ramp-up time for NMES

A

1–5 seconds

163
Q

Ramp-down time for NMES

A

1–2 seconds

164
Q

Duty cycle for NMES

A

1:3 to 1:5

165
Q

Treatment time/duration for NMES

A

Minimum of 10 contractions
3–5 times/week
4–8 weeks

166
Q

Antalgic gait

A
  • Painful gait
  • Pt avoids WB on involved extremity
167
Q

Arthrogenic gait

A
  • seen due to abnormal joint motion, which may or may not be accompanied by pain
  • Elevated pelvis and circumduct involved side
  • Non-involved side will show increased PF
168
Q

Equinus gait

A

Characterized by forefoot strike to initiate gait cycle
- AKA “toe-walking” gait

169
Q

Hip extensor gait

A
  • AKA lurching gait
  • Posterior leaning of the trunk at heel strike
  • Keeps hip extended during stance
  • Caused by weakness of glute max
170
Q

Cathode

A

Negative lead (attracts positive ions, or cations)

171
Q

Anode

A

Positive lead (attracts negative ions, or anions)

172
Q

Effective drug delivery dosages for iontophoresis

A

40-80 mA-min

173
Q

What neurological deficit can cause leaning forward during initial contact?

A
  • Weakness of quads
  • Leaning forward produces knee extension moment
  • Damage to L3/L4 and/or the femoral nerve
174
Q

Best application area for ultrasound

A

2-4x effective radiating area

175
Q

Recommended aerobic exercise intensity for individuals w/ asthma

A

Moderate (40-59% heart rate reserve)

176
Q

Restrictions post meniscal repair

A

2 weeks of toe touch WB and limited knee flexion to 90 degrees

177
Q

Swan-neck deformity

A
  • Increased PIP ext
  • DIP flexion
178
Q

Mallet finger

A
  • Neutral PIP
  • Flexed DIP
179
Q

Boutonnière deformity

A
  • Increased PIP flexion
  • Increased DIP extension
180
Q

Cotton test

A
  • For high ankle sprain
  • Widening syndesmosis via lateral pull on fibula
181
Q

AC resisted extension test is

A
  • Designed to provoke the AC joint via pain reproduction.
  • raise the patient’s arm up to 90° flexion + IR and a flexed elbow
  • AC joint is compressed.
  • patient isometrically horizontally ABDucts their arm against resistance
  • The test is considered positive if there is pain at the AC joint
182
Q

Most common direction of shoulder dislocation

A

Anterior

183
Q

Injuries associated w/ ANTERIOR shoulder dislocation

A
  • tearing of the rotator cuff
  • nerve or vascular injuries
  • damage to the anterior capsule or labrum
  • Bankart lesion
  • Hill–Sachs lesion
184
Q

Bankart lesion

A

During anterior dislocation of the shoulder, tearing of the anterior capsule and glenoid labrum may occur

185
Q

Hill–Sachs lesion

A

posterolateral surface of the humeral head may strike the anterior glenoid, causing a compression fracture

186
Q

Quad vs glute strengthening w/ PFP

A

targeted hip strengthening (gluteals) produces better outcomes than targeted knee (quadriceps) strengthening

187
Q

Best way to ID a stress fracture

A

MRI is able to ID the fracture PLUS it can rule out other soft tissue and bone injuries

188
Q

Areas that can accept weight w/ a prothetic for a transtibial amputation

A
  • Patella tendon
  • Medial tibial shaft and flare
  • Fibular shaft
  • Anterior compartment
189
Q

Areas that cannot accept weight w/ a prothetic for a transtibial amputation

A
  • Patella
  • Tibial tuberosity
  • Tibial crest
  • Distal end of tibia and fibula
  • Fibular head
190
Q

Medicare Functional Classification Levels for use of prosthesis

A

Functional Level 0
Functional Level 1
Functional Level 2
Functional Level 3
Functional Level 4

191
Q

Medicare Functional Classification Level 0 for use of prosthesis

A
  • Cannot ambulate or transfer without assistance
  • Prosthesis will not enhance function
192
Q

Medicare Functional Classification Level 1 for use of prosthesis

A
  • Can use a prosthesis for transfers and household ambulation
  • Can walk limited distances on level surface at a fixed cadence
193
Q

Medicare Functional Classification Level 2 for use of prosthesis

A
  • Characterizes the limited community ambulator
  • Can encounter low-level barriers like curbs and uneven surfaces
  • Ambulates with a more fixed cadence
194
Q

Medicare Functional Classification Level 3 for use of prosthesis

A
  • Characterizes the unrestricted community ambulator
  • Ambulates with varied cadence and can traverse most community barriers
  • Requires a prosthesis that can meet demands greater than simple ambulation
195
Q

Medicare Functional Classification Level 4 for use of prosthesis

A
  • Individual with the highest potential and who exceeds basic ambulatory needs
  • Characterizes those who participate in higher-impact activities like athletics
196
Q

Symptoms of patellofemoral pain syndrome

A
  • Crepitus
  • Medial knee pain
  • Difficulty w/ stairs and squatting
197
Q

What is the axial view for in radiography?

A
  • AKA Merchant view or skyline view
  • Allows for visualization of the patellofemoral joint
198
Q

What is needed to get compact privileges? (w/ the PT Compact)

A
  • Must be a member of the compact
  • Pass the other state’s jurisprudence exam (if applicable)
  • Apply and pay a fee
199
Q

Best steps for a MSK exam

A

1) PROM
2) Palpation (if needed)
3) AROM
4) MMT
5) Special tests

200
Q

Recommendations for an Appropriate Workstation Sitting Position

A
  • Top of computer screen just below eye level
  • Forearms parallel to ground or slightly tilted up
  • Wrists unsupported and in neutral position
  • Adequate low back support
  • 90-degree angles at the hips and knees
  • Feet flat on floor
201
Q

Use for pulsed diathermy

A
  • Does not generate heat
  • Reduces edema and pain
202
Q

Purpose of non-thermal ultrasound

A
  • Treat inflammation
  • Thought to accelerate the inflammatory phase of healing
203
Q

Normal end-feel

A
  • Firm (stretch)
  • Hard (bone to bone)
  • Soft (soft tissue approximation)
204
Q

Examples of a normal firm end feel

A
  • Ankle DF
  • Finger extension
  • Hip IR
  • Forearm supination
205
Q

Examples of a normal hard end feel

A

Elbow extension

206
Q

Examples of a normal Soft end feel

A
  • Elbow flexion
  • Knee flexion
207
Q

Abnormal end feels

A
  • Empty (cannot reach end-feel, usually due to pain)
  • Firm
  • Hard
  • Soft
208
Q

Examples of an abnormal empty end feel

A
  • Joint inflammation
  • Fracture
  • Bursitis
  • Unlikely when AROM and PROM is identical w/o a true restriction
209
Q

Examples of an abnormal firm end feel

A
  • Increased tone
  • Tight capsule
  • Ligament shortened
210
Q

Examples of an abnormal hard end feel

A
  • Fracture
  • Osteoarthritis
  • Osteophyte formation
211
Q

Examples of an abnormal soft end feel

A
  • Edema
  • Synovitis
  • Ligament instability/ tear
212
Q

Can a plan of care be signed by a nurse practitioner?

A

Yes

213
Q

How long does a doctor or a nurse practitioner have to sign an initial plan of care?

A

90 days or within the time the patient is still under care

214
Q

Mobilization for adhesive capsulitis

A
  • Pts may not tolerate mobilization at end-range early on
  • When pain is intermittent grade 4 can be appropriate
215
Q

Taping procedure to prevent an inversion moment

A
  • Stirrups that run from medial to lateral to prevent inversion
  • Heel locks to provide rear-foot stability
  • Figure 8 strips to provide global stability
216
Q

Single-leg stance and pregnancy

A

Exercises performed in single-leg stance can cause SIJ irritation

217
Q

2-point gait

A
  • 2 crutches or canes
  • L crutch + R foot
  • R crutch + L foot
218
Q

3-point gait

A
  • Walker or crutches
  • 1 injured LE or non-WB
219
Q

Modified 3-point gait

A
  • Partial WB
  • To help progress from 3-point gait
220
Q

Tri-compartmental knee replacement

A
  • Replaces all 3 compartments of the knee
  • The tibial plateau (bilaterally) and femoral condyles (bilaterally) are replaced and a polyethylene spacer is placed on the posterior aspect of the patella
221
Q

MMT Grade 0

A

No visible or palpable contraction

222
Q

MMT Grade 1

A

Visible or palpable contraction w/ no motion

223
Q

MMT Grade 2-

A
  • Gravity-eliminated position
  • Movement through partial test range
224
Q

MMT Grade 2

A
  • Gravity-eliminated position
  • Movement through complete test range
225
Q

MMT Grade 2+

A
  • Gravity-eliminated position (Movement through complete test range)
  • Gravity-resisted position (movement through up to 1/2 test range)
226
Q

MMT Grade 3-

A
  • Gravity-eliminated position (Movement through complete test range)
  • Gravity-resisted position (movement through more than 1/2 test range)
227
Q

MMT Grade 3

A
  • Gravity-resisted position
  • Movement through complete test range
228
Q

MMT Grade 3+

A
  • Gravity-resisted position
  • Movement through complete test range
  • Able to hold against minimum resistance
229
Q

MMT Grade 4

A
  • Gravity-resisted position
  • Movement through complete test range
  • Able to hold against moderate resistance
230
Q

MMT Grade 5

A
  • Gravity-resisted position
  • Movement through complete test range
  • Able to hold against maximum resistance
231
Q

O’Brien Test

A
  • Diagnoses AC joint injury
  • Isometric flexion of humerus while in 10 degrees adduction
  • First in IR, then in ER
  • Positive test = pain in IR and reduced during ER
232
Q

Phases of rehab

A
  • Protection phase
  • Controlled-motion phase
  • Return-to-function phase
233
Q

Protection phase of rehab

A
  • Manage and lower symptoms
  • Promote gentle ROM
  • Maintain joint integrity
234
Q

Controlled-motion phase of rehab

A
  • Acute symptoms are under good control
  • Interventions advance w/o putting too much stress on the involved structures
235
Q

Return-to-function phase of rehab

A

Goal is to increase endurance, speed, and power

236
Q

Medicare Part A

A
  • Inpatient Hospital Services
  • Short-Term Skilled Nursing Care
  • Home-Based Care
237
Q

Medicare Part B

A

Outpatient Services
- Physical Therapy
- Diagnostic Tests
- Physician Visits

238
Q

Medicare Part C

A

Medicare Advantage
- Health Maintenance Organizations (HMOs)
- Preferred Provider Organizations (PPOs)
- Health Savings Accounts (HSAs)
- Point of Service (POS)
- Provider-Sponsored Organizations (PPOs)

239
Q

Medicare Part D

A

Prescription medications

240
Q

Maximal elongation of the IT band

A
  • Knee in 30 degrees flexion
  • Adduction + extension of the hip
241
Q

Cortical bone

A
  • Dense, compact bone
  • Found all throughout the bone, prominent in the shaft of long bones
242
Q

Trabecular bone

A
  • AKA cancellous
  • Porous bone
  • Found in the distal ends (epiphysis) of long bones
243
Q

Approximation test procedure

A
  • Patient sidelying
  • Examiner applies downward pressure to patient’s upper iliac crest
244
Q

Approximation test findings

A

Increased pressure indicates SI lesion or sprain to posterior SI ligaments

245
Q

Gapping test procedure

A
  • Patient supine
  • Examiner applies outward and downward pressure to patient’s bilateral iliac crests
246
Q

Gapping test findings

A

Unilateral pain in buttock or posterior leg indicates sprain of anterior SI ligaments

247
Q

Sacral thrust test procedure

A
  • Patient prone
  • Examiner applies pressure with the base of their hand to patient’s sacral apex
248
Q

Sacral thrust test findings

A

Pain over the joint indicates an SI joint issue

249
Q

Thigh thrust test procedure

A
  • Patient supine
  • Examiner flexes patient’s hip to 90°
  • While palpating the SI joint, examiner applies a longitudinal force through patient’s femur towards hip
250
Q

Thigh thrust test findings

A

Pain in SI joint while thrusting indicates an SI joint issue

251
Q

Gaenslen test procedure

A
  • Patient sidelying, with upper leg in hip hyperextension and lower leg held in flexion against chest
  • Examiner stabilizes pelvis and extends the upper leg further into hip extension
252
Q

Gaenslen test findings

A
  • Pain indicates an SI joint lesion, hip pathology, or L4 nerve root lesion
253
Q

SI joint palpation procedure

A

Palpate the sacral sulcus medial to PSIS

254
Q

SI joint palpation findings

A

Pain with palpation indicates an SI joint issue

255
Q

Purpose of TENS

A

Pain relief, CANNOT BE USED FOR MUSCLE RE-ED

256
Q

Is Osgood-Schlatter more common in males or females?

A

males

257
Q

Is patellofemoral pain syndrome more common in males or females?

A

females

258
Q

Is an ACL rupture more common in males or females?

A

females

259
Q

Is patellar instability more common in males or females?

A

Females

260
Q

Patient safety when administering hot packs

A
  • Hot packs should be stored in water maintained at 70–75°C (158–167°F)
  • Hot packs must be covered by at least 6 layers of towels
  • Therapist should monitor patient after 5 minutes of hot pack application, for heat tolerance and skin reaction
  • Total treatment time: 15–20 minutes
261
Q

Consideration for non-weight bearing

A

Involved LE should not bear weight OR touch the floor

262
Q

Consideration for toe-touch weight-bearing

A

Toes may contact the floor for balance, but may not bear any weight

263
Q

Consideration for partial WB

A

Predetermined % of the patient’s body weight may be place through the involved LE

264
Q

Consideration for WB as tolerated

A

a patient may put as much weight as comfortable through the involved extremity

265
Q

Noble test

A
  • IT band friction syndrome
  • Examiner passively moves knee into flexion and extension, while applying pressure to the lateral IT band
266
Q

The medial and lateral pterygoids function to perform what function?

A

Contralateral mandibular deviation

NPTE (75 decks)

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