march 31 Flashcards

1
Q

nonpharmicological treatment of tourettes?

A

habit reversal training (behavioural therapy)

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2
Q

medical management of tourettes?

A

dopamine blockers, alpha 2 agonists

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3
Q

anti mitochondrial antibodies are seen in…

A

primary biliary cholangitis

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4
Q

anti smooth muscle antibodies are seen in…

A

autoimmune hepatitis

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5
Q

antitopoisomerase antibodies are associated with….

A

systemic sclerosis

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6
Q

anti neutrophilic cytoplasmic antibodies are associated with…

A

granulomatous with polyangitis (wegeners)

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7
Q

by 12 months, an infants weight shoudl have…

A

tripled

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8
Q

by 12 months, an infants height shouldve increased by…

A

50%

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9
Q

which bacteria most commonly cause acute bacterial sinusitis?

A

H. influenza, S. pneumonia, M. catarrhalis

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10
Q

most common cause of acute bacterial sinusitis?

A

H influenza

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11
Q

a patient with SEVERE penicillin allergy has syphilis. What drug do you give them?

A

doxycycline

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12
Q

where does the abscess occur in entemeba histolytica?

A

right lobe of the liver

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13
Q

An infant has meningococcal meningitis and develops hypotension. What are you worried about?

A

Waterhouse Friderichsen syndrome

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14
Q

which cancers occur in lynch sydnrome?

A
  • colorectal
  • endometrial
  • ovarian
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15
Q

cauda equina syndrome presentation?

A
low back radicular pain 
\+ one or more of the following:
-motor deficits
-patchy sensory loss
-rectal sphincter
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16
Q

what is the glucose level in viral meningitis?

A

40-70

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17
Q

what is the protein level in viral meningitis?

A

<150

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18
Q

what is the glucose level in TB meningitis?

A

<45

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19
Q

what is the protein level in TB meningitis?

A

100-500

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20
Q

what type of meningitis may cause a cranial nerve palsy?

A

TB meningitis

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21
Q

is TB meningitis onset sudden or progressive?

A

progressive

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22
Q

pathophys of transient tachypnea of the newborn?

A

inadequate alveolar fluid clearance at birth

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23
Q

clinical features of transient tachypnea of the newborn?

A

tachypnea shortly after birth

resolves by day 2 of life

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24
Q

pathophys of respiratory distress syndrome

A

surfactant deficiency -> alveolar collapse

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25
Q

clinical features of respiratory distress syndrome?

A

-premature infant with severe respiratory distress and cyanosis

26
Q

XRAY findings in severe respiratory distress syndrome

A

diffuse ground glass appearance on XRAY

27
Q

pathophys of persistant pulmonary hypertension?

A

high pulmonary vascular resistance

right to left shunt

28
Q

clinical features of persistant pulmonary hypertension?

A

tachypnea and severe cyanossis

29
Q

CXRAY findings of persistant pulmonary hypertension

A

clear lungs wtih decreased pulmonary vascularity

30
Q

at what CD4 level are patients at risk for PCP ?

A

<200

31
Q

patients with PCP are often treated with both TMP-SMX and…

A

corticosteroids

32
Q

why are steroids given to patients being treated for PCP?

A

hypoxia often worsens at first when antibiotics are given due to the release of proinflammatory cytokines

33
Q

what are the indications for someone with PCP to receive steroids along with TMP-SMX?

A

PaO2 <70
A-a gradient >35
Pulse ox <92% on room air

34
Q

of ethylyne glycol and methanol, which one can cause vision loss?

A

methanol

35
Q

of ethylyne glycol and methanol, which one can causes kidney damage?

A

ethylene glycol

36
Q

what is the red cell distribution width in iron deficiency anemia?

A

increased

37
Q

what is the red cell distribution width in thalasemia?

A

NORMAL

38
Q

what is the MCV in thalasemia?

A

decreased

39
Q

Hordeolum AKA

A

stye

40
Q

when is CVID commonyl diagnosed?

A

As an adult - age 20-40

41
Q

chronic disease manifestations associated with CVID?

A
  • autoimmune diseases
  • pulmonary disease (bronchiectasis, fibrosis)
  • GI (chronic diarrhea, IBD like conditions)
42
Q

increased TRH stimulates the release of which hormones from the anterior pituitary?

A

TSH and prolactin

43
Q

what are the prolactin levels in hypothyroidism?

A

increased

44
Q

what are the FSH and LH levels in hypothyroidism?

A

decreased (due to increased prolactin release -> inhibition)

45
Q

what a transient synovitis?

A

a self limited inflammatory condition that occurs in children aged 3-8

46
Q

presentation of a child with transient synovitis?

A

hip pain or referred knee pain. May limp but can often bear weight

47
Q

ultrasound findings in transient synovitis?

A

small unilateral or bilateral effusions

48
Q

treatment of transient synovitis?

A

convservative (NSAIDS)

49
Q

are the hips commonly invovled in juvenile idiopathic arthritis?

A

no

50
Q

would you have a + blood on urinalysis of someone with rhabdomyolisis?

A

yes (not actually blood- myoglobin)

51
Q

would you see blood on urine microscopy of someone with rhabdomyolisis?

A

no

52
Q

if a patient with infective endocarditis has persistant bacteremia what should you suspect?

A

perivalvular abscess

53
Q

if a patient with infective endocarditis develops cardiac conduction abnormalities (AV block) what should you suspect?

A

perivalvular abscess

54
Q

what kind of murmur is heart in aortic valve disease?

A

late diastolic murmur

55
Q

what kind of murmur is heart in aortic ROOT disease?

A

early diastolic murmur

56
Q

ECG findings of hyperkalemia?

A

peaked t waves, widened QRS complex, conduction delay

57
Q

manifestations of hyperkalemia?

A

muslce weakeness, bradycardia, hypotension

58
Q

why may bradycardia, hypotension occur in hyperkalemia?

A

impaired neuromuscular transmission due to potassium imbalance

59
Q

what is the immediate treatment for hyperkalemia?

A

IV calcium to stabilize cardiac myocyte membranes

60
Q

why is maternal diabetes a risk factor for RDS?

A

hyperglycemia -> fetal hyperinsulinemia -> antagonism of cortisol and prevention of the maturation of sphingomyelin

61
Q

why can constipation lead to UTIs in children?

A

fecal retention leads to rectal distention which compresses the bladder and leads to incomplete empything & urinary stasis