Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

step 2 uworld > april 2 > Flashcards

april 2 Flashcards

1
Q

complications of RSV in an infant?

A

apnea

respiratory failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

infants <2 months are at high risk of developing _____ from RSV

A

apnea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

prophylaxis of RSV for young babies?

A

Palivizumab

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

patients with a cleft palate have increased risk of…

A

middle ear disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

no p waves and sine wave pattern on ECG =

A

hyperkalemic emergency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what do you give patients with hyperkalmeic emergency?

A

CALCIUM GLUCONATE

then insulin + glucose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

triad of symptoms in invasive pulmonary aspergillosis?

A

fever, pleuritic chest pain, hemoptysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

CT findings of invasive aspergillosis

A

nodules with surrounding ground glass opacities (and halo sign)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

treatment of invasive aspergillosis?

A

voriconazole + echinocandin (eg. capsofungin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

presentation of meckels diverticulum

A

painless lower GI bleeding (but can also present with intusseception, volvulus, obstruction)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

diagnostic test for meckels?

A

technetium-99 scan (meckel scan)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

will you see milk induced proctocolitis in a 2 year old?

A

NOOOO only occurs in infants prior to age 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Treating neuropathic pain wiht amitryptine should be AVOIDED in which patients?

A

those >65 and those with cardiac disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

why should amitryptilline be avoided in those >65?

A

antimuscarinic side effects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

why should amitryptilline be avoided in those wtih cardiac disease?

A

can cause cardiac conduction abnormalities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

path of leukocyte adhesion deficiency

A

reduced CD18 antigen (component of integrins) on white neutrophils -> impaired neutrophil migration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

first step in management of hypospadias?

A

urological evaluation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what causes AV nodal reentry tachycardia?

A

2 distinct conduction pathways

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

when should you be vaccinated with the meningococcal vaccintation?

A

11-12 years old and then receive booster at age 16

20
Q

white granular buccal lesion that doestn scrape off =

A

leukoplakia

21
Q

chest XRAY findings in acute hypersensitivity pneumonitis?

A

scattered micronodular interstitial opacities

22
Q

chest XRAY findings in chronic hypersensitivity pneumonitis?

A

diffuse reticular interstitial opacities

23
Q

does hypersensitivity pneumonitis cause a restrictive or obstructive pattern ?

A

RESTRICTIVE

24
Q

which patients receive chest physiotherapy?

A

those with bronchioectasis

25
Q

is chest therapy used for patients wtih a COPD exacerbation?

A

no

26
Q

syringomyelia is associated with..

A

Chiari I malformation

27
Q

rickets is caused by a deficiency in..

A

vitamin D

28
Q

path of minimal change disease

A

t cell mediated injury to podocytes

29
Q

treatment of minimal change disease?

A

corticosteroids

30
Q

should all patients with RA receive disease modifying agents?

A

yess

31
Q

should you manage RA with NSAIdS?

A

NO - DISEASE MODIFYING AGENTS (plus NSAIDS for symptom releif)

32
Q

what kind of antibodies are seen in drug induced lupus?

A

anti histone antibodies

33
Q

Name 3 drugs that are commonly associated with drug induced lupus

A

Hydralazine, procainamide, penicillamine

34
Q

clinical features of drug induced lupus

A

Acute onset of

  • constitutional symptoms (fever, night malaise)
  • arthralgias
  • serositis (pleuritis, pericarditis)
  • rash
35
Q

compared to SLE, drug induced lupus onset is more…

A

ACUTE

36
Q

what type of drug is cyclophosphamide?

A

alkylating agent

37
Q

what is the toxic metabolite of cyclophosphamide?

A

acrolein

38
Q

Effects of acrolein on the bladder?

A

acute hemorhagic cystitis, bladder carcinoma, sterility and myelosuppression

39
Q

GI fluid is rich in…

A

HCl and KCl

40
Q

MOA of the tetanus neurotoxin?

A

binds peripheral nerve terminals, travels retrograde on axons and then blocks the release of inhibitory neurotransmitters at CNS synapses

41
Q

Classic findings seen in henoch-schonlein purpura (igA vasculitis)

A
  • palpable purpura/petechia
  • arthritis/arthralgias
  • abdominal pain/intussesception
  • renal disease
  • scrotal swelling/pain
42
Q

where is chloroquine resistance common?

A

Africa, Asia and Oceania

43
Q

what prophylaxis is given to travellers to chloroquine resistant areas?

A

Mefloquine, doxycycline, atovaquone-proguanil

44
Q

patients with high myopia are at increased risk for…

A

retinal detachment and macular degeneration

45
Q

A health care worker without previous Hep B vaccination gets a needle prick from an infected patient. Prophylaxis ?

A

Full Hep B vaccine course (3 doses)

Hep B immunoglobulin

46
Q

genetics of myotonic dystrophy?

A

autosomal dominant CTG repeat

step 2 uworld (57 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions