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step 2 uworld > june 2 > Flashcards

june 2 Flashcards

1
Q

patients with right sided heart failure are ___-dependent

A

preload

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2
Q

testicular tumours are often first noticed after…

A

a groin injury or during sexual activity

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3
Q

do spermatoceles transilluminate?

A

yes - filled with fluid

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4
Q

do varicoceles transilluminate?

A

no

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5
Q

how does candida appear in culture?

A

as pseudohyphae with budding yeasts

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6
Q

how can you prevent superinfection of a blistering sunburn?

A

topical silver sulfadiazine or mupirocin

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7
Q

do you need to give topical treatment to prevent superinfection on a non-blistering sunburn?

A

no

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8
Q

how do you treat an acute gout episode in a patient on anticoagulants?

A

colchine (NSAIDs may precipiate bleeding so avoid)

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9
Q

febuxostat MOA

A

inhibits xanthine oxidase

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10
Q

probenicid MOA

A

blocks reabsorption of uric acid in the kidneys

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11
Q

where is the most common site of intracranial hemorhage from hypertensive vasculopathy?

A

basal ganglia

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12
Q

which nerve is compressed in uncal herniation?

A

CNIII

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13
Q

presentation of uncal herniation?

A

dilated non-reactive ipsilateral pupil

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14
Q

treatment of severe hypercalcemia?

A

isotonic saline and calcitonin

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15
Q

symptoms of severe hypercalcemia

A

weakness, GI distress, neuropsychiatric symptoms

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16
Q

what prosthetic valve most commonly gets prosthetic valve thrombosis?

A

mitral valve

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17
Q

presentation of prosthetic mitral valve thrombosis?

A

similar to mitral valve stenosis - dyspnea, etc.

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18
Q

what creatinine level is considered a marker of severe preeclampsia?

A

> 1.1

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19
Q

when should a patient with severe preeclampsia deliver?

A

if they are past 34 weeks - IMMEDIATELY

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20
Q

the ‘five whys’ are used in…

A

root cause analysis

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21
Q

flowcharts are used in which type of analysis?

A

failure mode and effects analysis

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22
Q

lambert eaton syndrome is associatd with…

A

small cell lung cancer

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23
Q

having ‘good days and bad days’ is characteristic of which type of dementia?

A

dementia with lewy bodys

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24
Q

what is the most common dermatologic sign in antiphospholipid syndrome?

A

livedo reticularis

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25
Q

a calcium-phosphorous product > 55 increases the risk of…

A

soft tissue calcification

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26
Q

extreme preterm delivery is a risk factor for which peripartum complication?

A

retained placenta

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27
Q

hordeolum =

A

bacterial infection of eyelash follicle

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28
Q

hordeolum AKA

A

stye

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29
Q

chalazion cause

A

obstruction of meibomian tear gland

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30
Q

onion skinning of bone =

A

ewing sarcoma

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31
Q

which usually occurs in the metaphysis, ewing sarcoma or osteosarcoma?

A

osteosarcoma

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32
Q

where does ewing sarcoma usually occur?

A

long bone diaphysis and pelvic bones

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33
Q

does plasmodium falciprum have a dormant phase?

A

no

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34
Q

which are is plasmodium falciprum found?

A

africa

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35
Q

does plasmodium vivax have a dormant phase?

A

yes

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36
Q

where is plasmodium vivax found?

A

non-african countries

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37
Q

which drug targets the dormant phase of plasmodium vivax ?

A

primaquine

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38
Q

chloroquine treats malaria infection in what stage?

A

erythrocyte stage

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39
Q

Presentation of microscopic colitis?

A

frequent watery bowel movements, fecal urgency, nightime diarhea WITHOUT systemic symptoms (fever, weihgt loss)

40
Q

does microscopic colitis present with systemic symptoms (weight loss, fever)?

A

NOO

41
Q

biopsy findings of microscopic colitis?

A

mononuclear infiltrate

42
Q

patients with microscopic colitis should avoid…

A

NSAIDS and smoking

43
Q

what is the best way to prevent HSV transmission to a sexual partner?

A

consistent condom use

44
Q

can HSV spread when there is no outbreak?

A

yes - asymptomatic viral shedding causes infection of partner as well

45
Q

rifaximin MOA

A

antibiotic that reduces ammonia production by colonic bacteria

46
Q

carbamazepine is associated with which renal complication?

A

SIADH

47
Q

is the urinary Na concentration high or low in SIADH?

A

high

48
Q

sonohysterography =

A

saline infusion ultrasonography

49
Q

what test is best to diagnose uterine fibroids?

A

sonohysterography

50
Q

chronic bicarb loss from diarrhea is a risk factor for which type of kidney stone?

A

uric acid kidney stones (bicarb loss acidifies urine)

51
Q

which patients receive ultrafiltration?

A

those with massive volume overload that dont respond to diuretics

52
Q

t wave inversion in leads v1-v3 indicates

A

right ventricular heart strain

53
Q

which type of lung cancer most commonly causes large cavitary lesions?

A

squamous cell lung cancer

54
Q

acute cerebellar ataxia may occur after…..

A

a viral illness

55
Q

prognosis of acute cerebellar ataxia (acute postinfectious cerebellar ataxia)?

A

resolves in 1-3 weeks

56
Q

acute cerebellar ataxia (acute postinfectious cerebellar ataxia) most commonly follows which infections?

A

coxsackie, herpesvirus

57
Q

delerium accelerates the process of…

A

dementia

58
Q

delerium increases the risk of…

A

cognitive decline

59
Q

which type of aortic dissection requires emergent surgical intervention?

A

TYPE A (those involving the ascending aorta)

60
Q

TYPE B aortic dissections require emergent surgical intervention if…

A

they are decreasing organ perfusion

61
Q

are IV antibiotics used as infection prophylaxis in burn patients?

A

no. -topical are used

62
Q

why does early removal of eschar through excision and grafting help decrease bacteiral infections?

A

eschar is an avascular protein rich substrate for bacterial and fungal proliferation

63
Q

XRAY findings of inhaled foreign body?

A

hyperinflated lung on effected side and mediastinal shift towards unaffacted side

64
Q

why may hypotension in acute adrenal insuffiency not improve with epinephrine?

A

cortisol is needed as well to potentiate the effects

65
Q

which nerves are spared in anterior spinal cord syndrome?

A

the dorsal columns

66
Q

syringomeliia is associated with…

A

chiari I malformation

67
Q

pathophys of a post-amputation neuroma?

A

local inflammatory reaction where nerves were cut leads to tangle of unmyelinated fibers

68
Q

no left foot movement upon sqeeuzing the gastrocnemius indicates…

A

achilles tendon rupture

69
Q

can active plantar flexion stilll be present in someone with an achilles tendon rupture?

A

yes - because of accessory muscles

70
Q

chest wall clicking or instability is a symptom of.?

A

sternal dehiscence

71
Q

can sternal dehiscence be managed conservatively?

A

NO ITS A SURGICAL EMERGENCY

72
Q

why is sternal dehiscence a sugrical emergency?

A

the sternum requires fixation to prevent cardiac damage from loose wires or bone fragments

73
Q

which two pathogens commonly cause deep infection following puncture wounds?

A

staph aureus and pseudomonas aeruginosa

74
Q

chronic alveolar airway destruction in COPD leads to formation of…

A

large alveolar blebs

75
Q

complication of alveolar blebs in COPD?

A

rupture -> air leak -> pneumothorax

76
Q

what are the risk factors for upper extremity deep vein thrombosis

A
  • central venous catheters
  • repetitive arm motions
  • weight lifting
77
Q

what type of nutriotional support should burn patients receive?

A

high calorie enteral nutrition

78
Q

severe complication of succinocholine?

A

life threatening cardiac arythmia due to hyperkalemia

79
Q

which anesthetic can lead to adrenal insufficiency?

A

etomidate

80
Q

neurotoxicity due to B12 inactivation is an adverse effect of which anesthetic?

A

nitrous oxide

81
Q

treatment of IBD induced toxic megacolon?

A

IV corticosteroids (methylprednisosone)

82
Q

what is the most common cause of death from infective endocarditis?

A

acute heart failure

83
Q

surgical indications in infectious endocarditis?

A
  • acute heart failure
  • persistent bacteriema/abscess/fistula
  • heart block
  • large vegetation
84
Q

how do the kidneys compensate in response to acidosis?

A
  • increases bicarb reabsoprtion (meaning more Cl extretion)

- increase NH4 excretion (which removes H)

85
Q

which testicular neoplasm produces excessive testosterone or estrogen?

A

Leydig cell tumour

86
Q

lung nodules < ___ are unlikely to be malignant

A

0.8 cm

87
Q

treatment of symptomatic meningioma?

A

surgical resection

88
Q

which heart murmur is associated with ankylosiing sponylitis?

A

aortic regurgitation

89
Q

breathing effects of ankylosing spondylitis?

A

decreased chest wall expansion

90
Q

tendon related complication of ankylosing spondylitis?

A

enthesitis (tenderness at joint insertion sites)

91
Q

which receptors may be activated during CO2 insufflation during laparoscopy?

A

peritoneal stretch receptors

92
Q

effects of peritoneal stretch receptors?

A

increase vagal tone -> bradycardia

93
Q

how do you treat an air embolus?

A

put patient in left lateral position and give high flow oxygen

94
Q

why is the left lateral position important in a patient with suspected air embolus?

A

traps embolus at lateral part of right ventricle (instead of the outflow tract or going into the pulmonary arteries)

95
Q

why is high flox oxygen used to treat air embolus?

A

promotes reabsorption of nitrogen (major component of air embolus)

96
Q

why are veins susceptible to air emboli?

A

relatively low hydrostatic pressure

step 2 uworld (57 decks)

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