june 4 Flashcards

1
Q

occlusion of the ___ leads to lateral medullary syndrome

A

PICA

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2
Q

livedo reticularis and peripheral edema are side effects of which parkinsons drug?

A

amantidine

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3
Q

is bupivicaine a long acting or short acting local anesthetic?

A

long acting

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4
Q

Respiratory symptoms in patients wtih ALS are often more prominent at…

A

night time (when gravity isn’t helping with chest expansion)

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5
Q

blood findings in a patient with systemic juvenile idiopathic arthritis?

A

leukocytosis

thrombocytosis

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6
Q

electrolyte disturbance caused by acetelzolamide?

A

hypokalemia

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7
Q

major manifestation of chronic lung transplant rejection?

A

bronchiolitis obliterans

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8
Q

should you use tocolytics in PPROM?

A

NO - premature contractions often indicate something is wrong

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9
Q

can nitrufurantion treat pyelonephritis?

A

no - poor penetration of kidney. Better for UTI

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10
Q

treatment of bacillary angiomatosis?

A

oral erythromycin

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11
Q

endometrial cells on pap smear are an abnormal finding in women aged >….

A

45

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12
Q

should a patient with chronic hep C be vaccinated against hep B and hep A?

A

yes - unless already immune

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13
Q

churg strauss AKA

A

eosinophilic granulomatosis with polyangitis

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14
Q

presentation of churg strauss?

A

-asthma
-eosinophilia
-poly/mononeuropathy
-pulmonary infiltrates
-

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15
Q

what antibodies are seen in churg strauss syndrome?

A

p-ANCA

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16
Q

all men and women over age 35 should be screened for…

A

lipid disorders

17
Q

number 1 risk factor for stroke =

A

hypertension

18
Q

acute sinusitis is most commonly…

A

VIRAL

19
Q

how to treat stable pericarditis?

A

antiinflammatories (NSAIDS, colchicine)

20
Q

do you need to do pericardiocentesis in a patient with a small effusion pericarditis?

A

no

21
Q

a child with FS has…

A

sickle cell disease

22
Q

a child with FAS has…

A

sickle cell trait

23
Q

all children under 5 years old with sickle cell disease require…

A

penicillin prophylaxis

24
Q

progressive lengthening of the PR interval preceeding a dropped beat =

A

Mobitz Type I heart block

25
Q

Consistent PR interval before a dropped beat =

A

Mobitz Type II heart block

26
Q

ascites wiht neutrophil count over ___ is consistent with spontaneous bacterial peritonitis

A

250

27
Q

treatment of choice for spontaneous bacterial peritonitis?

A

third gen cephalosporin

28
Q

presentation of MSG symptom complex?

A

chest tightness, facial flushing, nausea, giddiness, sweating, urticaria

29
Q

treatment of catatonia?

A

benzos

30
Q

common complication of bacterial meningitis?

A

hearing loss

31
Q

bicarb levels in HHS?

A

normal or mild decrease

32
Q

spasticity of the lower extremities is seen in the advanced form of which neuro complication of toxo?

A

chronic hydrocephalus

33
Q

which antiseizure medication is associated with acute pancreatitis?

A

valproic acid

34
Q

does esophageal spasm cause ECG changes?

A

NOOOOOO

35
Q

most common cardiac defect in edwards syndrome?

A

VSD

36
Q

is CK elevated in polymyalgia rheumatica?

A

no

37
Q

is ESR elevated in polymyalgia rheumatica?

A

yes

38
Q

uncontrolled epilepsy is a contraindication for which vaccine?

A

TDAP