General anesthesia Flashcards

1
Q

what does general anesthesia do to respiration and BP?

A

lowers respiration and BP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what is the triad of anesthesia?

A

asleep, pain free, still

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

which anesthesia adjuvants relieve anxiety?

A

benzodiazepines (midolazam)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

which anesthesia adjuvants prevent allergic reactions?

A

antihistamines (diphenhydramine, ranitidine)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

which anesthesia adjuvants prevent nausea and vomiting?

A

antiemetics (dexamethasone, scopolamine)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

which anesthesia adjuvants provide analgesia?

A

opiods (fentanyl, morphine, hydromorphone)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

which anesthesia adjuvants prevent bradycardia and secretion?

A

atropine, glycopyrrolate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what kind of clinical conditions might be important to know about when a patient is to undergo anesthesia?

A

prior anesthetic history of patient and blood relatives:

malignant hyperthermia
CV problems
respiratory disease
allergies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what are the four phases of general anesthesia?

A
  1. induction
  2. maintenance
  3. emergence
  4. recovery
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

which route of anesthesia is usually used for maintenance?

A

inhalable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

which route of anesthesia is usually used for induction in pediatric patients?

A

inhalable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

which route of anesthesia is usually used for induction and short surgical procedures in adults?

A

IV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what are the general mechanisms of action for general anesthetics?

A
  1. depress spontaneous and evoked neuronal activity

2. alter ion channel function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

how do general anesthetics depress spontaneous and evoked neuronal activity?

A
  1. induce neuronal hyperpolarization
  2. increase firing threshold (lessen activity)
  3. inhibit synaptic transmission and response to released NTs
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

which ion channels are altered under general anesthetics?

A
  1. increase GABAa receptor chloride activity
  2. activate voltage gated potassium channels
  3. inhibit glutamate NMDA receptors
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what are the stages of general anesthesia with respect to effects on the brain?

A
  1. analgesia
  2. excitement
  3. surgical anesthesia
  4. medullary depression
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

which stage of general anesthesia do anesthesiologists want to avoid?

A

stage 2 (excitement)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what does ketamine do?

A

inhibits glutamate NMDA receptors - decreases excitatory neurotransmission

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what are the advantages to inhalable anesthetic agents?

A
  1. easy to control depth of anesthesia
  2. readily reversible
  3. minute to minute control
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what are the disadvantages to inhalable anesthetic agents?

A

induction not as fast or smooth as with fixed agents

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

which pharmacokinetic factors affect the rate of anesthetic onset and recovery?

A
  1. concentration in inspired air
  2. ventilation rate
  3. solubility in blood and lipid
  4. lung blood flow
  5. arteriovenous concentration gradient
  6. elimination
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

the partial pressure of anesthetic with higher solubility are affected by what physiological process?

A

ventilation rate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what is the ostwald coefficient?

A

blood - gas partition coefficient - solubility in blood

lower coefficient means lower solubility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

how does low solubility in blood affect equilibration with brain and induction?

A

less solubility leads to a rapid rise in partial pressure in blood and a faster equilibration with brain and induction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
what does the brain-blood partition coefficient describe? what is it related to?
solubility in lipid related to anesthetic potency
26
which solubility factor relates to anesthetic potency?
solubility in lipid
27
how does high blood flow affect onset? low flow?
high flow - slow onset low flow - fast onset
28
how does alveolar and arterial concentration affect onset?
the greater the uptake of agent, the difference between inspired and alveolar concentrations - slower rate of induction
29
elimination is dependent on what solubility coefficient? why?
blood - gas partition coefficient: ostwald less soluble - faster elimination
30
what is the minimum alveolar concentration? what does a low MAC value mean? high MAC value?
concentration of anesthetic (%) in inspired air at equilibrium when there is no response to noxious stimulus in 50% of patients low MAC - more potent high MAC - less potent
31
how does lipid solubility related to minimum alveolar concentration (MAC)?
high lipid solubility - more potent (lower MAC)
32
when is anesthesia produced, as related to partial pressure in brain and MAC?
when partial pressure of drug is equal to or exceeds the MAC
33
is MAC affected by age, height, sex, or weight?
no
34
MAC values for inhaled anesthetics have what property?
additive
35
what is the gaseous inhalable anesthetic?
nitrous oxide
36
what is the major limitation of nitrous oxide?
incomplete anesthetic insufficient potency for surgical anesthesia due to low potency (110% MAC value)
37
what is the second gas effect?
reduces induction time for primary agents - carrier agent reduced induction time reduced requirement concentration of primary agent reduced toxicity of primary agent
38
what are the advantages of nitrous oxide?
1. 2nd gas effect 2. minimal effects on CVS, respiratory, liver, kidney, GI 3. minimal toxicity
39
what are the disadvantages of nitrous oxide?
1. lack of potency 2. diffuse hypoxia 3. increased risk of spontaneous abortion
40
what are the uses for nitrous oxide?
1. general anesthesia | 2. analgesic for minor procedures
41
can nitrous oxide be used as sole anesthetic agent?
no
42
what is the general use for halogenated agents?
maintenance of anesthesia
43
what are the properties of halothane?
1. complete anesthetic 2. poor analgesia 3. muscle relaxant
44
what is the toxicity of halothane?
post-op hepatitis
45
what are the systemic effects of halothane?
decreased CO and hypotension
46
why is enflurane not as popular?
CNS stimulation effects - EEG convulsion pattern, jerking, twitching
47
isoflurane is used for what phase of anesthesia?
maintenance
48
what are the primary advantages of desflurane?
fastest onset and recovery, excellent minute to minute control
49
what are the advantages of sevoflurane?
1. rapid onset and recovery 2. very potent 3. excellent controllability due to low solubility and high potency 4. low airway irritation - USED FOR MASK INDUCTION AND THOSE WITH AIRWAY IRRITATION
50
thiopental is used for what phase of anesthesia?
induction
51
propofol is what class of anesthetic?
barbiturate
52
what are the advantages of propofol?
1. can be used as IV drip | 2. excellent quality of recovery
53
propofol is used for what phase of anesthesia?
induction
54
ketamine produces what type of anesthesia?
dissociative anesthesia
55
what is dissociative anesthesia?
intense analgesia, catalepsy, and amnesia
56
what is the MOA of ketamine?
NMDA receptor antagonist
57
what is an adverse effect of ketamine?
emergence phenomenon
58
what is emergence phenomenon?
unpleasant dreams, hallucinations, disorientation
59
ketamine is ideal for what situation?
compromised cardiac status - tamponade, bleeding GSW, GI bleed
60
midazolam is used for what adjunctive purposes?
sedation for painful procedures, induction