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Year 2 Pharmacology > Antibiotics IIb > Flashcards

Antibiotics IIb Flashcards

1
Q

which antibiotic is highly associated with c. diff infection?

A

clindamycin

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2
Q

does chloramphenicol exert a bacteriostatic or bacteriocidal effect?

A

bacteriostatic

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3
Q

chloramphenicol is mainly used for what infections?

A

typhus

rocky mountain spotted fever

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4
Q

what is the MOA of chloramphenical?

A

binds to 50S subunit and prevents transpeptidation or peptidyl bond formation

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5
Q

what are the key adverse effects of chloramphenicol?

A

blood - suppression of RBC production

gray baby syndrome

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6
Q

what is gray baby syndrome? what causes it?

A

infants lack glucuronic acid conjugation

chloramphenicol

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7
Q

linezolid is effective against what type of bacteria?

A

gram positive

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8
Q

what antibiotic is effective against organisms resistant to penicillin, methicillin, and vancomycin? why?

A

linezolid

check recording

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9
Q

what is the MOA of linezolid?

A

binds to P site of 50S subunit and inhibits formation of ribosomal-fMet-tRNA complex (step 1)

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10
Q

what is the key adverse effect of linezolid?

A

blood - myelosuppression

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11
Q

what is the only protein synthesis inhibitor agent that is not broad spectrum?

A

clindamycin

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12
Q

why dont the sulfonamides affect mammalian cells?

A

they depend upon exogenous folate and do not synthesize folate

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13
Q

what is the MOA of the sulfonamides?

A

structural similarity to PABA - precursor to dihydrofolic acid

compete with PABA for dihydropterase synthase and block dihydrofolate synthesis and thus DNA synthesis

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14
Q

what is the key adverse effect of sulfonamides?

A

skin

hypersensitivity
photosensitivity
steven johnson syndrome

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15
Q

trimethoprim agents target what type of bacteria?

A

gram negative

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16
Q

what is the MOA of trimethoprim?

A

inhibitor of BACTERIAL DHFR - impaired DNA synthesis

17
Q

what is the key adverse effect of trimethoprim?

A

blood

bone marrow suppression
megaloblastic anemia
leukopenia

18
Q

what combination of DNA synthesis inhibitor agents is used to treat UTIs and prostatitis?

A

trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMX)

19
Q

what is the MOA of TMP-SMX?

A

synergistic

20
Q

ciprofloxacin and levofloxacin are what class of abx?

A

fluoroquinolones - DNA synthesis inhibitor

21
Q

what is the MOA of fluoroquinolones?

A

disrupt winding of DNA and separation of DNA strands during transcription and replication

specifically inhibit topoisomerase II (DNA gyrase) and topoisomerase IV

22
Q

what are the key adverse effects of fluoroquinolones (eg cipro)?

A

GI - nausea, vomiting, diarrhea

drug nutrient interactions - bind divalent cations, prevent absorption (calcium)

CV - QT prolongation

23
Q

what are the targets of group 2 fluoroquinolones? what are the group 2 fluoroquinolones?

A
  1. work well against gram negatives
  2. some activity against gram positive

ciprofloxacin, levofloxacin, ofloxacin

24
Q

metronidazole is active against bacteria and what other type of organism?

A

protozoa

25
Q

metronidazole is effective against bacteria with what property?

A

anaerobic

26
Q

what is the MOA of metronidazole?

A

prodrug - undergoes activation inside organism - reaction metabolites bind to DNA and cause damage

27
Q

what are the key adverse effects of metronidazole?

A

GI

metabolism - disulfiram effect (avoid alcohol)

28
Q

what is the MOA of daptomycin? what is required for this action?

A

causes depolarization of membrane - bacteriocidal

calcium dependent

29
Q

what are the key adverse effects of daptomycin?

A

musculoskeletal system - myopathy

30
Q

what type of antibiotic is polymyxin B?

A

detergent

31
Q

polymyxin B is typically combined with what other drug? for what purpose?

A

bacitracin

topical

32
Q

why is polymyxin B effective?

A

sticks to LPS (gram negative)

33
Q

what is the MOA of polymyxin B?

A

binds to phospholipids in the cell membrane and disrupts structure (punches holes), specifically LPS

Year 2 Pharmacology (70 decks)

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