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d b review > 8. Skeletal Part II: Joints > Flashcards

8. Skeletal Part II: Joints Flashcards

1
Q

Part of the palatine bone that forms the palate

A

Horizontal plate

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2
Q

Part of the palatine bone that forms part of the FLOOR OF THE ORBIT

A

Perpendicular plate

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3
Q

True or False. Palatine bones form the Floor of the Orbit

A

True

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4
Q

Most common congenital orofacial defect

A

Cleft lip

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5
Q

Other name for cleft lip

A

Cheiloschisis

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6
Q

Syndrome or trisomy assoc with cleft lip or palate

A

Trisomy 13 or Patau Syndrome

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7
Q

Cleft lip tx follows RULE OF 10

A

10 weeks
10 lbs
10 g/dL Hemoglobin
>10,000 wbc

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8
Q

Cleft lip is more common to what gender

A

Male (Lip-Lalaki)

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9
Q

Cleft in the midline is aka

A

Hare lip or Median cleft lip

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10
Q

Cleft palate occurs between _ to _ of development

A

8 to 10 WEEKS

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11
Q

Cleft palate is treated in what age

A

12 to 18 MONTHS (delayed for speech dev)

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12
Q

Cleft palate is more common on what gender

A

Females (Palate-Pemale)

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13
Q

Clefts are common on what side

A

Left (cLEFT)

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14
Q

Cleft of the HARD Palate

A

Uranoschisis

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15
Q

Cleft of the SOFT Palate

A

Staphyloschisis

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16
Q

Primitive backbone

A

Notochord

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17
Q

Vertebrae was developed from what MESODERMAL embryonic structure

A

Somites

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18
Q

Total number of vertebrae in ADULTS

A

26

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19
Q

Total number of vertebrae in CHILDREN

A

33

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20
Q

Vertebra / Joint assoc with “YES”

A

C1 and Occipital bone = Atlantooccipital joint

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21
Q

Vertebrae / Joint involved with “NO”

A

C1 and C2 (Dens) = atlantoaxial joint

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22
Q

Vertebra with most prominent spinous process

A

C7

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23
Q

Vertebrae that has transverse foramen

A

C1 to C6

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24
Q

What passes through the transverse foramen

A

Vertebral artery

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25
Q

Vertebral artery is a branch of what artery

A

Subclavian artery

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26
Q

5 branches of Subclavian artery (VIT CD)

A 
Vertebral
Internal thoracic
Thyrocervical
Costocervical
Dorsoscapular
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27
Q

3 branches of the ARCH OF THE AORTA

A

Brachiocephalic artery (R)
Left subclavian artery
Left common carotid artery

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28
Q

Branches of the Brachiocephalic artery

A

Right common carotid artery

Right subclavian artery

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29
Q

Left and right vertebral artery forms what artery

A

Basilar artery

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30
Q

Left common carotid artery branches of into

A

Internal carotid

External carotid

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31
Q

Terminal Branches of internal carotid artery

A

Anterior cerebral artery

Middle cerebral artery

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32
Q

Most common artery assoc with stroke (from what artery)

A

Lenticulostriate artery (branch of the middle cerebral artery)

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33
Q

Terminal branches of external carotid artery

A

Superficial temporal artery

Maxillary artery

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34
Q

Blood supply for ALL teeth (Mx and Mn)

A

Maxillary artery

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35
Q

Heart shaped vertebra

A

Thoracic vertebrae

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36
Q

Kidney or bean shaped vertebrae

A

Lumbar

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37
Q

Largest and strongest UNFUSED vertebra

A

Lumbar

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38
Q

STRONGEST VERTEBRA

A

Sacrum

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39
Q

How many sacrum in children

A

5

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40
Q

How many coccyx in children

A

4

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41
Q

Circle of willis is located in what part of the brain

A

Cerebrum

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42
Q

5 Arteries that form the circle of willis

A 
Anterior cerebral artery
Anterior communicating artery
Internal carotid artery
Post communicating artery
Post cerebral artery (optional)
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43
Q 
All of the ffg are arteries of circle of willis except:
Ant cerebral
Ant communicating
Int carotid
Post cerebral
Post communicating
A

Posterior cerebral artery*(optional)

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44
Q

Inflation of a vessel, specifically arteries

A

Aneurysm

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45
Q

Inflation of an artery specifically in circle of willis

A

Berry aneurysm

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46
Q

Infants have a single curvature which is concave anteriorly

A

Primary curvature

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47
Q

Adults have _ curvatures

A

Two - primary and secondary

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48
Q

Concave anteriorly

A

Primary curvature

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49
Q

Concave posteriorly

A

Secondary curvature

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50
Q

Vertebrae that remained as PRIMARY CURVATURES

A

Thoracic and Sacrum

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51
Q

Secondary curvatures

A

Cervical and Lumbar

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52
Q

3 structural classifications of joints

A

Fibrous (Fiss)
Cartilagenous (Cass)
Synovial

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53
Q

3 types of fibrous joints (Fiss)

A

Interosseous membrane
Sutures
Syndesmoses

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54
Q

-“desmo” meaning

A

Ligaments

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55
Q

Struc class: tibia and fibula

A

Fibrous joint: Interosseous membrane

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56
Q

Struc class: radius-ulna

A

Fibrous joint: Interosseous membrane

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57
Q

Struc class: skull

A

Fibrous joint: sutures

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58
Q

Formation of bony joint by bone apposition

A

Synostosis

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59
Q

Incomplete synostosis (frontal bone) = triangular head

A

Metopic suture (metopic synostosis)

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60
Q

Arrange in bundles of ligaments

A

Syndesmoses

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61
Q

Struc class: PDL

A

Syndesmoses — GOMPHOSIS

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62
Q

Gomphosis that undergo synostosis results to

A

Ankylosis of tooth

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63
Q

Struc class: epiphyseal plate

A

Cartilagenous: Synchondroses

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64
Q

Struc class: CRANIAL BASE

A

Cartilagenous: synchondroses

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65
Q

Bones that make up the cranial BASE (“Toes”)

A

Temporal (Petrous)
Occipital (Basilar)
Ethmoid
Sphenoid

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66
Q

Struc class: ribs

A

Cartilagenous: synchondroses

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67
Q

4 cartilagenous: symphses

A

Pubic symphysis
Symphysis menti
Sternum
Intervertebral joints

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68
Q

Hyaline cartilage on the surface of bone and fibrocartilage sandwiched between the hyaline cartilage

A

Symphyses

69
Q

Struc class: elbow

A

Synovial

70
Q

Struc class: tmj

A

Synovial

71
Q

Suture between right and left frontal bone

A

Metopic suture

72
Q

How many synovial cavity in tmj

A

2 synovial cavities (inf:hinge movts; sup)

73
Q

Non movable joints

A

Synarthroses

74
Q

Slightly movable

A

Amphiarthroses

75
Q

Freely movable

A

Diarthroses

76
Q

Bone adjacent to tooth

A

Alveolar bone proper

77
Q

Other name of ABP

A

Bundle bone or cribriform plate

78
Q

Rx for abp

A

Lamina dura

79
Q

Loss of lamina dura

A

Hyperparathyroidism

80
Q

Dental manifestation of hyperparathyroidism

A

Periodontitis

81
Q

Type of joint movt of sutures of skull

A

Synarthroses

82
Q

Type of joint movt of vertebrae

A

Amphiarthroses

83
Q

Type of joint movt of teeth/gomphosis

A

Amphiarthroses

84
Q

Type of joint movt of shoulder joint

A

Diarthroses-ball and socket

85
Q

Vit D def or Ca def AFTER epiphyseal closure (adult)

A

Osteomalacia

86
Q

4 tmj ligaments

A

Lateral temporomandibular ligament
Articular Capsular ligament
Sphenomandibular ligament
Stylomandibular ligament

87
Q

Vit D def or Ca def BEFORE epiphyseal closure (CHILD)

A

Rickets

88
Q

Characteristic feature of rickets

A

Bowlegs

89
Q

Excessive GH after epi closure (adult) bones widen only

A

Acromegaly

90
Q

Dental malocc in acromegaly

A

Skeletal class III

91
Q

Excessive gh before closure of epi plate (child)

A

Gigantism

92
Q

Malocc in gigantism

A

Skeletal class III

93
Q

Dwarfism due to decrease cartilage dev in the body

A

Achondroplastic dwarfism

94
Q

Normal torso short limbs

A

Achondroplastic dwarfism

95
Q

Dwarfism due to decrease growth hormone

A

Pituitary dwarfism

96
Q

Ossification affected in achondroplastic dwarfism

A

Endochondral ossification only

97
Q

Easiest bone to fracture or break

A

Clavicle

98
Q

Bone fracture with no penetration (di naexpose sa ext envt)

A

Close or simple

99
Q

Bone fracture with penetration (exposed)

A

Open or compound

100
Q

Bone fracture: crushed

A

Comminuted

101
Q

What type of bone fracture in GUNSHOT

A

Comminuted

102
Q

Bone fracture similar to twig, one side broken, one side bent

A

Greenstick

103
Q

Type of bone fracture common in children

A

Greenstick fracture

104
Q

Treatment for fractures

A

Reduction and fixation

105
Q

Fracture repair steps (sequence)

A

Hematoma
Fibrocartilagenous callus formation (soft)
Bony callus formation (hard)
Bone remodelling

106
Q

How long is bone remodelling

A

6 months

107
Q

Graft donor and recipient is the same

A

Autografts

108
Q

4 autografts (FIST)

A

Fibula
Ilium
Scapula
Tuberosity

109
Q

Most common donor site in autografts

A

Ilium or iliac crest

110
Q

Most common intraoral donor site (autografts)

A

Tuberosity

111
Q

Gold standard of grafting materials

A

Autografts

112
Q

Gold standard/baseline of narcotics

A

Morphine

113
Q

Gold standard of shade guides

A

Vita

114
Q

Gold standard of mouthwashes

A

Chlorhexidine

115
Q

Gold standard of resto materials

A

Amalgam and gold

116
Q

Gold standard of cements

A

Zinc phosphate

117
Q

Donor and recipient is genetically identical(twins)

A

Isograft

118
Q

Donor and recipient is part of the same species (cadaver)

A

Allograft

119
Q

Donor and recipient is not part of the same species

A

Xenograft

120
Q

Most common xenograft

A

Bovine

121
Q

Synthetic grafts

A

Alloplastic graft

122
Q

Excessive porosity of bone due to rapid resorption of bone

A

Osteoporosis

123
Q

Most common bone disorder more common to females due to dramatic LOSS OF ESTROGEN during menopausal stage

A

Osteoporosis

124
Q

Drug of choice for osteoporosis

A

Bisphosphonates

125
Q

Bisphosphonates are antiresorptive drugs that make bones denser. What complication can arise?

A

BIOJ

126
Q

Densed bone due to radiation exposure. Destroys IAA = no blood supply =

A

Osteoradionecrosis

127
Q

Abnormal or defective collagen resulting to hyperflexible joints

A

Ehlers-danlos syndrome

128
Q

Other name for ehlers danlos syndrome

A

Rubberman syndrome

129
Q

Most common form of arthritis due to ageing

A

Osteoarthritis

130
Q

Wear and tear arthritis

A

Osteoporosis

131
Q

Wear and tear pigment

A

Lipochrome or lipofuschin

132
Q

Autoimmune disorder wherein immune cells attacks articular cartilage

A

Rheumatoid articular cartilage

133
Q

Excessive uric acid that builds up in the blood

A

Gouty arthritis

134
Q

Uric acid + sodium =

A

Crystallization

135
Q

What nitrogen bases involved in uric acid formation

A

Purines: adenine and guanine

136
Q

Pathognomonic sign of gout

A

Tophi bodies

137
Q

Uric acid crystals in nephron are called

A

Nephroliths or kidney stones

138
Q

Thoracic curvature

A

Kyphosis

139
Q

Hunchback

A

Kyphosis

140
Q

Lumbar curvature

A

Lordosis

141
Q

Swayback or hollowback

A

Lordosis

142
Q

Lateral curvature or S shape spine

A

Scoliosis

143
Q

Extraoral headgear for scoliosis and developing skeletal class III

A

Milwaukee brace

144
Q

Arthritis of the spine

A

Ankylosing spondylitis

145
Q

Ankylosing spondylitis is aka

A

Marie-Strumpell Disease

146
Q

2nd most common bone disorder: px complains denture or hat doesnt fit anymore

A

Pagets disease of the bone

147
Q

Other name for pagets disease

A

Osteitis deformans

148
Q

Doc for paget’s dse or osteitis deformans

A

Bisphosphonates

149
Q

Rx of pagets dse

A

Cotton wool appearance

150
Q

Hx of pagets dse

A

Jigsaw puzzle or mosaic bone pattern

151
Q

Blood chem of pagets dse

A

Increase serum alkaline phosphatase

152
Q

2 dses assoc with increase serum alkaline phosphatase

A

Pagets dse

Multiple myeloma

153
Q

Malignancy of plasma cells

A

Multiple myeloma

154
Q

Function of plasma cells

A

Secretes antibodies or immunoglobulins

155
Q

Nucleus with cartwheel pattern

A

Plasma cells

156
Q

Rx app of multiple myeloma

A

Punched out rx app

157
Q

2 dses assoc with PUNCHED OUT RX APP

A

Multiple myeloma

Hand-Schuller-Christian Disease

158
Q

Dse with histological app of CHINESE CHARACTERS

A

Fibrous dysplasia

159
Q

3 dses with GROUND GLASS Radiographic app

“HAF GLASS”

A

Hyperparathyroidism
Albers- Schonberg
Fibrous dysplasia

160
Q

Other names for Albers-Schonberg

A

Osteopetrosis

Marble bone disease

161
Q

In board exam: other term for osteopetrosis go for typo =

A

Albrights

162
Q

Bone infection due to staphylococcus aureus

A

Osteomyelitis

163
Q

Abscess assoc with osteomyelitis

A

Brodie’s

164
Q

Abscess assoc with Psoriasis

A

Monroe’s abscess

165
Q

3 dses with Moth eaten rx appearance

A

Osteomyelitis
Ext root resorption
Ewings sarcoma

166
Q

2 radiographic appearance of ewings sarcoma

A

Moth eaten rx app

Onion skin rx app

167
Q

Onion shaped mechanoreceptor

A

Pacinian corpuscles

168
Q

Dse with intracellular cholesterol accumulation with punched out rx appearance

A

Hand-Schuller-Christian disease

169
Q

L shaped paired bone

A

Palatine bones

d b review (38 decks)

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