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First Year med - dundee > 37. Microbiology > Flashcards

37. Microbiology Flashcards

1
Q

shapes- spheres

A

coccus/cocci

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2
Q

rod shaped

A

bacillus/bacilli

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3
Q

slightly curved rod

A

Vibiro

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4
Q

vibrio gram negative or positive

A

gram negative

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5
Q

antibiotics for staph aureus

A

flucloxacillin IV

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6
Q

antibiotics for staph epidermis

A

Vancomycin IV

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7
Q

antibiotics for strep pyrogenes (GAS)

A

doxycycline

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8
Q

antibiotics for Gram negatives

A

clindamycin

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9
Q

flucloxacillin IV is for what infection

A

staph aureus

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10
Q

Vancomycin IV is the drug for what infection

A

staph epidermis

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11
Q

doxycycline is the drug for what infection

A

strep pyrogenes (GAS)

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12
Q

clindamycin is the drug for what infection

A

gram negatives

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13
Q

rigid spiral bacterium

A

spirillum

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14
Q

flexible spiral bacterium

A

spirochete

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15
Q

neisseria meningitidis and neisseria gonorrhoeae are examples of what

A

gram negative cocci

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16
Q

gram negative cocci associated with the GI tract are..

A

gut commensal gut coliforms (many are part of normal bowel flora)

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17
Q

If gut commensal coliforms get into sterile environments they can cause

A

UTIs

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18
Q

what if the first line antibiotic do you use to treat coliforms

A

Gentamicin

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19
Q

Only Streptococcus can be identified by

A

Haemolyisis

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20
Q

streptococcus is gram what

A

positive

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21
Q

GAS: numerous associated diseases such as and when haemolysis is tested it is

A

scarlet fever, impetigo, beta- haemolytic

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22
Q

streptococcus pneumoniae:
Haemolysis result?
What colour does it stain

A

pneumonia,
alpha-haemolytic
Green

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23
Q

Staphylococcus epidermis and Staphylococcus aureus. which is coagulase negative and which is coagulase positive

A

Staphylococcus epidermis is negative and Staphylococcus aureus is positive

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24
Q

give an example of where Staphylococcus epidermis is contracted

A

Nosocomial

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25
Q

staph epidermis is Nosocomial because it is associated with what devices

A

foreign devices such as catheters

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26
Q

give examples of where Staphylococcus aureus is contracted

A

community and nosocomial

27
Q

Which gram positive pathogen appears golden

A

staph aureus

28
Q

staph aureus forms what shape

A

clumps

29
Q

skin, soft tissue and wound infections are most commonly caused by what pathogen (and sepsis)

A

gram positive staph aureus

30
Q

enteric infections that are y-haemolytic are…

A

enterococcus

31
Q

where is enterococcus found

A

normal bowel flora but it is a problem if it gats into sterile areas

32
Q

what else is part of normal bowel flora that produces exotoxins which cause serious tissue damage

A

Clostridium spp.

33
Q

give an example of a Clostridium spp.

A

Clostridium Difficile

34
Q

what does Clostridium Difficile cause and when would it do this

A

antibiotic associated diarrhoea especially in elderly people and proliferates in the absence of normal bowel flora

35
Q

Name the antibiotics that act on the bacterial cell wall

A

penicillin’s eg. flucloxacillin, amoxicillin
Cephalosporins eg. cefaclor, cefadroxil, cefalexin
Glycopeptides eg Vancomycin

36
Q

describe the properties of Penicillins

A

beta lactam
few side effects
range from narrow to broad spectrum
excreted rapidly from kidneys
safe in pregnancy
people can be allergic

37
Q

describe the properties of Cephalosporins

A

modified beta lactams
excreted via kidneys and urine
safe in pregnancy

38
Q

describe the properties of glycopeptides

A

not absorbed when given orally (has to be IV)
side effects - damages kidneys and occasionally causes red man syndrome (allergy)

39
Q

Name the antibiotics that inhibit protein synthesis

A

Macrolides eg erythromycin, azithromycin, clarithromycin
Aminoglycosides eg. gentamicin
clindamycin
Chloramphenicol
tetracyclines

40
Q

which antibiotic is given to those with penicillin allergy

A

clindamycin or erythromycin

41
Q

which antibiotic is given to those with topical eye infections

A

chloramphenicol

42
Q

describe the properties of macrolides

A

excreted via liver, biliary tract and into the gut
lipophilic- easily pass through cell membranes
erythromycin is safe in pregnancy

43
Q

describe the properties of aminoglycosides

A

must be IV
mainly active aginst gram -ve aerobic organisms
excreted in urine
side effects- kidney damage,deafness/dizziness

44
Q

describe the properties of Clindamycin

A

2nd line against serious staphylococcal and streptococcus infection, especially in penicillin allergic patients

45
Q

Name the antibiotics that act on bacterial dna

A

metronidazole
trimethoprim
Fluoroquinolones - ciprofloxacin, levofloxacin

46
Q

describe the properties of metronidazole

A

oral and IV
breaks strands of dna
used for infections of true anaerobes and some by protozoa
interactions with alcohol

47
Q

describe the properties of trimethoprim

A

inhibits bacterial folic acid synthesis

48
Q

describe the properties of fluoroquinolones

A

bactericidal
use is severely restricted (risk of C.difficile)
only antibiotics that can be given orally for Pseudomonas
side effects - weakens tendons, joint damage in young kids, may cause seizures
interacts with topoisomerases - bacteria can no longer replicate

49
Q

which antibiotics are mainly given to gram negative aerobic organisms

A

aminoglycosides such as gentamicin and clindamicin

50
Q

what is used as a beta lactamase inhibitor especially if amoxicillin won’t cut it

A

co-amoxiclav

51
Q

what are the 4 phases of bacterial growth in order

A

lag phase, exponential phase, stationary phase, decline phase

52
Q

Describe the cell wall of Gram-positive bacteria:

A

thick layer of peptidoglycan in cell wall retains primary Gram stain (purple)
exotoxins

53
Q

Describe the cell wall of Gram-negative bacteria:

A

thinner peptidoglycan layer, allows crystal violet to wash out and are stained by counterstain (pink)
endotoxins
LPS

54
Q

which organisms are each haemolytic section? aka
Alpha - ?
Beta - ?
Gamma - ?

A

Strep Pneumoniae
Strep Pyogenes GAS
Enterococcus

55
Q

name the 2 types of defensive structures of a bacteria

A

spore
capsule

56
Q

what are capsules made of

A

polysaccharides

57
Q

aerobes?

A

grow in O2

58
Q

Obligate aerobes

A

require O2

59
Q

facultative anaerobes

A

tolerate O2

60
Q

Obligate anaerobes

A

killed by O2

61
Q

Bacteria inside a biofilm are much more/less resistant to antimicrobial agents

A

more

62
Q

Anaerobes treated with

A

metronidazole, cotriomazol

63
Q

C diff. and the 4 Cs

A
  • Co-amoxiclav, cephalosporins, clindamycin, ciprofloxin
  • Broad spectrum agents alter nomal gut flora
  • Clostridioides difficile (CDI) proliferates → causes diarrhoea and spreads
  • Avoid if possible
64
Q

carbapenem - Betalactam or no

A

yes

First Year med - dundee (41 decks)

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