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UE ORTHO Flashcards

1
Q
  1. Traumatic anterior glenohumeral dislocation frequently tears the anterior inferior glenohumeral joint capsule (e.g., the middle glenohumeral ligament and/or anterior band of the inferior glenohumeral ligament [IGHL]) and avulses the anterior inferior glenoid labrum with or without some underlying bone from the glenoid rim. The latter of these two entities is frequently referred to as a:

a. Circumflex nerve injury
b. Hill-sach’s defect
c. Bankart lesion
d. Reverse bankart lesion
e. Reverse Hill-Sachs lesion

A

c. Bankart lesion

Code: bankAI
Anterior inferior glenoid labrum

A: Axillary nerve
D: Posteroinferior
E: Compression fx of anteromedial of humeral head

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2
Q
  1. Acute anterior glenohumeral joint dislocations are also frequently associated with a compression fracture of the posterolateral aspect of the humeral head, referred to as:
    a. Circumflex nerve injury
    b. Hillsach’s defect
    c. Bankart lesion
    d. Reverse bankart lesion
    e. Reverse Hill-Sachs lesion
A

b. Hillsach’s defect

Key word: Posterolateral

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3
Q
  1. Which of the following describes SLAP lesion type II?
    a. This type involves a vertical tear of the labrum, similar to the bucket-handle tear of the knee meniscus, although the remaining portions of the labrum and biceps are intact.
    b. This type involves an extension of the buckethandle tear into the biceps tendon, with portions of the labral flap and biceps tendon displaceable into the G-H joint.
    c. This type involves a pathologic detachment of the labrum and biceps tendon anchor, resulting in a loss of the stabilizing effect of the labrum and the biceps.
    d. This type involves a fraying and degeneration of the edge of the superior labrum. The patient loses the ability to horizontally abduct or externally rotate with the forearm pronated without pain.
A

c. This type involves a pathologic detachment of the labrum and biceps tendon anchor, resulting in a loss of the stabilizing effect of the labrum and the biceps.

CHECK SLAP LESION TYPES:
I. Labral Fraying + (+) Biceps
II. Labral Fraying+ Detached
III. Bucket handle + (+) Biceps
IV. Bucket handle+ Detached

A: Type 3
B: Type 4
D: Type 1

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4
Q
  1. This refers to an intrinsic degenerative process in the structures occupying the subacromial space, which occurs when the superior aspect of the RC is compressed and abraded by the surrounding bony and soft tissues due to anatomical crowding, posterior capsular tightness, and/or excessive superior migration of the humeral head.

a. Primary impingement
b. Secondary impingement
c. Rotator cuff tendinitis
d. Bicipital tendinitis

A

a. Primary impingement

Pag a, dapat may anatomical cause

B: Underlying condition

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5
Q
  1. This acromial morphology is another factor that can predispose one to impingement and are most likely to develop rotator cuff abnormalities.
    a. Type I
    b. Type II
    c. Type III
    d. Type IV
A

c. Type III

Type I: Flat
Type II: Curved
Type III: Hook
Type IV: Upcurved

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6
Q
  1. True about fractures of clavicle, except:
    a. Fractures of the clavicle account for 5 to 10% of all fractures and 35 to 40% of shoulder girdle injuries in adults.
    b. The clavicle is the most commonly fractured bone in childhood.
    c. Fractures of the clavicle usually result from a FOOSH, a fall or blow to the point of the shoulder, or less commonly from a direct blow.
    d. Normal healing times for clavicular fracture are 6 weeks in young children and 8 weeks in adults.
    e. None of the above
A

e. None of the above

C: As long as medially directed, pwede magkaroon
D: UE (3-12 weeks) & LE (12-18 weeks)

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7
Q
  1. A thrower with this syndrome presents with an apparent dropped scapula in the symptomatic
    shoulder compared with the contralateral shoulder’s scapular position. Viewed from behind, the inferior- medial scapular border appears very prominent, with the superior medial border and acromion less prominent.
    a. SICK Scapula
    b. Snapping scapula
    c. Eulenberg deformity
    d. Sprengel’s deformity
A

a. SICK Scapula

There is malpositioning of the scapula

B, C, and D: Same condition lang silang 3. If sila, may pain and crepitus.

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8
Q
  1. The term snapping scapula has been used to describe the clinical scenario of tenderness at the superomedial angle of the scapula, painful scapulothoracic motion, and scapulothoracic crepitus. The uncommon etiologies of snapping scapula include scapular exostoses, malunited scapular or rib fractures, and Sprengel’s deformity.
    a. 1st statement is true, 2nd statement is false
    b. 1st statement is false, 2nd statement is true
    c. Both statements are true
    d. Both statements are false
A

c. Both statements are true

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9
Q
  1. This condition causes a snapping sensation in the volar surface of the digits on release of grasp. It is usually a result of trauma to the flexor tendon sheath of the fingers or thumb, producing thickened tendinous sheaths and restriction of motion.
    a. De Quervain’s
    b. Dupuytren’s
    c. Carpal Tunnel Syndrome
    d. Trigger finger
A

d. Trigger finger

“Snapping finger”
Remember: Mga rakista raw laging triggered (affected 2nd and 5th lagi parang naka rakista pose)

a: Radial wrist pain. Inflammation of APL and EPB
b: Palmar fascia of hand
c: Median n. Entrapment

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10
Q
  1. Which of the following describes Dupuytren’s contracture?

I. The hallmark of clinical evaluation is the palpable nodules and cords in the palmar fascia, most notably in the small finger.
II. Dupuytren’s contracture is a benign hypertrophy of the fascia.
III. It usually begins insidiously as small imperceptible nodules in the area of the palmar crease. It can progress to thick cords that form along the fascia tension lines of the palm.
IV. The underlying tendons, synovial sheaths, and skin layers are not affected.
V. The pathophysiology of Dupuytren’s is not fully understood; there is, however, a higher incidence in alcoholic, diabetic, and epileptic patients, and there is thought to be a correlation with tobacco use.

a. I, II, III, IV
b. I, II, III, V
c. I, II, IV, V
d. II, III, IV, V
e. I, II, III, IV, V

A

e. I, II, III, IV, V

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11
Q
  1. A 66-year-old sustained fracture of the distal radius with volar angulation. This is called:
    a. Colles fracture
    b. Smith fracture
    c. Greenstick fracture
    d. Monteggia fracture
A

b. Smith fracture

Code: PCSA
Posterior - Colles
Smith - Anterior

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12
Q
  1. The 14-year-old male patient came into the clinic with a referral from the orthopedic service. His diagnosis is a Galeazzi fracture. What does this comprise?

a. Fracture of the ulna with ulnar subluxation
b. Fracture of the ulna with radial head subluxation
c. Fracture of the radius with radial head subluxation
d. Fracture of the radius with subluxation of the ulna

A

d. Fracture of the radius with subluxation of the ulna

Code: MUGR
Monteggia - Ulna + radial sublux
Galeazzi- Radius + ulna sublux

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13
Q
  1. Most commonly fractured segment of the clavicle:
    a. Between the junction of the inner and middle thirds
    b. Between the junction of the outer and middle thirds
    c. Lateral thirds
    d. Medial thirds
A

b. Between the junction of the outer and middle thirds

Lateral thirds 15%
Middle 80%
Medial thirds: 5%

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14
Q
  1. The structure most commonly damaged in Volkmann’s ischemic contracture:
    a. Femoral artery
    b. Abdominal artery
    c. Brachial artery
    d. Ulnar nerve
A

c. Brachial artery

Complication of the supracondylar fracture of humerus

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15
Q
  1. Avascular necrosis of the lunate is also known as:
    a. Panner’s disease
    b. LCPD
    c. Kienböck’s disease
    d. Preiser’s disease
A

c. Kienböck’s disease

A: Capitulum
B: Femoral head in children
D: Preiser’s dse

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16
Q
  1. The 27 year old male patient with an elbow fracture undergoing rehabilitation for the past 2 weeks has new-onset pain, hematoma and swelling of the elbow, with note of increased limitation of motion of the elbow joint. He is diagnosed to have a possible case of myositis ossificans. What is the immediate treatment that should be done?
    a. Rest for the elbow in a sling
    b. Aggressive ROM and stretching
    c. Icing and bandaging
    d. Heat, CPM and massage
A

a. Rest for the elbow in a sling

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17
Q
  1. (+) Popeye’s sign
    a. Subacromial impingement
    b. SLAP lesion
    c. Bicipital tendinitis
    d. Supraspinatus tendinitis
A

c. Bicipital tendinitis

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18
Q
  1. A patient diagnosed with Adhesive Capsulitis stage 2 was referred to you for treatment. She has decreased ROM of the shoulder with severely restricted glenohumeral joint motions. She probably has had the symptoms for the past how many months?
    a. 1-3 mos
    b. 4-9 mos
    c. 3-9 weeks
    d. 9-12 mos
    e. 15-24 mos
A

b. 4-9 mos

A: Pre-adhesive
C: Dapat months
D: Frozen
E: Thawing

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19
Q
  1. A patient with De Quervain’s Tenosynovitis has involvement of the following structures. Which structure is NOT involved?
    a. Abductor pollicis longus
    b. Tendon sheath
    c. Opponens pollicis
    d. Extensor pollicis brevis
A

c. Opponens pollicis

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20
Q
  1. Lateral epicondylitis may be prevented with corrective strategies for tennis players. Which of the following should be advised?
    a. Flexible and lightweight frame
    b. Use the largest comfortable grip
    c. Use of a softer ball
    d. All of the answers are correct
A

d. All of the answers are correct

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21
Q
  1. Impingement Syndromes of the shoulder affect the following structures. Which of these is NOT commonly affected?
    a. Bursae
    b. Superior aspect of the rotator cuff
    c. Biceps tendon
    d. Coracoclavicular joint
A

d. Coracoclavicular joint

22
Q
  1. True about Dinner Fork Deformity, except:

I. (+) distal radial fracture
II. caused by FOOSH Injury
III. aka Smith’s Fracture
IV. ventral displacement of wrist and hand

a. II, III, IV
b. I and IV
c. II only
d. III and IV

A

d. III and IV

Code: dinner forC (Colles fracture)

23
Q
  1. True about Swan Neck Deformity:
    a. Hyperextension of PIP
    b. Extension of DIP
    c. Flexion of PIP
    d. NOTA
A

a. Hyperextension of PIP

+ Flexion of DIP

24
Q
  1. The mother indicates that she pulled the child from a seated position by grasping the wrists. The child then experienced immediate pain at the right elbow. The physician’s orders are for right elbow range of motion and strengthening. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
    a. Radial head fracture
    b. Nursemaid’s elbow
    c. Erb’s palsy
    d. Ulnar coronoid process fracture
A

b. Nursemaid’s elbow

AKA: Pulled elbow

Position ng child: Pronated, extended

25
Q
  1. True about mallet finger:
    a. Rupture of FDP
    b. Flexed PIP joint
    c. Baseball finger
    d. AOTA
A

c. Baseball finger

A: EDC
B: DIP

26
Q
  1. True about medial winging:

I. CN 11 affectation
II. Sliding door
III. Radical Mastectomy
IV. Serratus Anterior affectation

a. Only I
b. I and II only
c. III and IV only
d. III only

A

c. III and IV only

Code: SMB
Serratus Anterior
Medial winging
Book

27
Q
  1. Your patientcomplains of waking up several times at night from severe “pins and needles” in the right hand. On awakening, her hand feels numb for half an hour and fine hand movements are impaired. The therapist’s examination reveals sensory loss and paresthesias in the thumb, index, middle, and lateral half of the ring finger, and reduced grip and pinch strength. Some thenar atrophy is present. Based on these examination findings, what is the MOST appropriate diagnosis?
    a. Pronator teres syndrome
    b. Ulnar nerve entrapment
    c. Thoracic outlet syndrome
    d. Carpal tunnel syndrome
A

d. Carpal tunnel syndrome

28
Q
  1. Boxer’s fractures involve a fracture of which metacarpal bone?
    a. First metacarpal
    b. Second metacarpal
    c. Third metacarpal
    d. Fifth metacarpal
A

d. Fifth metacarpal

A: Bennet’s finger

29
Q
  1. Partial absence of a limb:
    a. Amelia
    b. Hemimelia
    c. Achalalia
    d. Meromelia
A

d. Meromelia

Code: Meron pero parang wala

A: Absent upper limb
B: Absence of half of the limb
C: does not exist

30
Q
  1. Most common location of calcific tendinitis:
    a. Supraspinatus
    b. Infraspinatus
    c. Subscapularis
    d. Biceps tendon
A

a. Supraspinatus

A: 80%
B: 15%
C: 5%

31
Q
  1. What causes Boutonnière deformity?
    a. Ruptured flexor digitorum profundus (FDP) tendon
    b. Thickening and nodule formation in the flexor tendon sheath
    c. Median nerve entrapment
    d. Rupture of the central slip and volar migration of lateral bands
A

d. Rupture of the central slip and volar migration of lateral bands

A: Jersey finger
B: Trigger finger
C: CTS

32
Q
  1. Most common tendon affected in Tennis Elbow:
    a. ECU
    b. ECRL
    c. ECRB
    d. EDC
A

c. ECRB

33
Q
  1. Your patient is complaining of pain in the left shoulder region. The examination of the shoulder elicits pain in the last 30 degrees of shoulder abduction range of motion. This finding is most congruent with which diagnosis?
    a. Calcific supraspinatus tendinitis
    b. Subacromial bursitis
    c. Acromioclavicular (AC) sprain
    d. Thoracic outlet syndrome
A

c. Acromioclavicular (AC) sprain

Anything daw na end range

34
Q
  1. The following options may be associated to posterior dislocation, except:
    a. Circumflex nerve injury
    b. Hillsach’s lesion
    c. Bankart lesion
    d. AOTA
A

d. AOTA

Lahat associated sa ant DL

35
Q
  1. It is the damage of FDP that results to inability to flex the DIP
    a. Charley finger
    b. Jersey Finger
    c. baseball finger
    d. AOTA
A

b. Jersey Finger

A: Does not exist
C: Mallet finger

36
Q
  1. Heberden’s nodes are usually seen in which joints?
    a. 3rd MCP
    b. 2nd PIP
    c. 3rd DIP
    d. NOTA
A

c. 3rd DIP

Code: heberDIP

37
Q
  1. Site of impingement of costoclavicular syndrome:
    a. Between the scalenes
    b. Between the clavicle and 1st rib
    c. Between the coracoid process and the pecs minor
    d. NOTA
A

b. Between the clavicle and 1st rib

A: Scalenus Anticus
C: Hyperabduction syndrome/ Pectoralis syndrome

38
Q
  1. MOI for tennis elbow:
    a. Repetitive pronation of the forearm
    b. Repetitive wrist extension
    c. Repetitive supination of the forearm
    d. Repetitive wrist flexion
A

b. Repetitive wrist extension

39
Q
  1. Tendons affected in intersection syndrome:
    a. APL
    b. EPB
    c. ECRL
    d. AOTA
A

d. AOTA

+ ECRB

40
Q
  1. A therapist evaluates a patient with bicipital tendinitis. These clinical findings are expected to be identified, EXCEPT:
    a. None of the above
    b. Isometric resistance to the biceps increases subjective pain level
    c. A painful arc is noted with active range of motion to the involved shoulder
    d. Tenderness to palpation exists over the bicipital tendon
A

a. None of the above

41
Q
  1. The following statements describe carpal tunnel syndrome, EXCEPT:
    a. Weakness of the hand.
    b. The pathophysiology remains unknown although mechanical and vascular factors can play a major role.
    c. Often seen as the cause of progressive numbness or paresthesia of the fingers in the median nerve distribution.
    d. Numbness or pain that can radiate distally.
    e. Nocturnal burning pain or hypesthesia.
A

d. Numbness or pain that can radiate distally.

Proximally dapat

42
Q
  1. The therapist examines a patient diagnosed with adhesive capsulitis. The examination reveals the patient has a significant capsular tightness in the anterior-inferior aspect. The most likely resultant range of motion limitation is
    a. Adduction and internal rotation
    b. Extension and external rotation
    c. Flexion and internal rotation
    d. abduction and external rotation
    e. flexion and external rotation
A

d. abduction and external rotation

ER > AB > IR

43
Q
  1. A general term for a repetitive-induced tendon injury involving the synovial sheath:
    a. Epicondylitis
    b. Tenosynovitis
    c. Cystitis
    d. tendinitis
    e. stenosis
A

b. Tenosynovitis

D: Inflammation + calcium deposits

44
Q
  1. During which phase of throwing is the elbow joint placed under the most valgus stress?
    a. Follow-through
    b. Wind-up
    c. Early cocking
    d. Late cocking
    e. NOTA
A

d. Late cocking

45
Q
  1. A 24-year-old man presents to you with right forearm pain. He states that the pain began 6 months ago, after an elevator door closed on his right forearm. On exam, the right forearm has shiny skin, with decreased hair growth, and the area is very tender to touch. You make a presumptive diagnosis of:
    a. Cellulitis
    b. Scleroderma
    c. Complex regional pain syndrome
    d. Synovitis
A

c. Complex regional pain syndrome

autonomic dysfunction

46
Q
  1. A patient is referred to physical therapy after an anteroinferior dislocation of the right shoulder. A possible positive examination finding as the result of this trauma would be:
    a. Weak rhomboids
    b. Positive drop arm test
    c. Weak deltoids
    d. Positive neer’s test
A

c. Weak deltoids

47
Q
  1. Which of the following adjunct activities should be used to treat the acute symptoms of tennis elbow?
    a. PROM, weight bearing, and mobilization
    b. resistive exercises, heat application, and work simulation.
    c. heat application, PROM and strengthening
    d. Ice application, immobilization and splinting
A

d. Ice application, immobilization and splinting

PRICE

48
Q
  1. Lateral winging of the scapula is caused by which of the following nerve injuries?
    a. Weakness of serratus anterior due to spinal accessory nerve injury
    b. Trapezius weakness due to long thoracic nerve injury
    c. Serratus anterior weakness due to long thoracic nerve injury
    d. Trapezius weakness due to thoracodorsal nerve injury
    e. NOTA
A

e. NOTA

Code: SLT
Sliding door
Lateral winging
Trapezius

49
Q
  1. The most objective test for the diagnosis of Carpal Tunnel Syndrome is:
    a. Tinel’s test
    b. Phalen test
    c. Sensory Test
    d. EMG-NCV test
A

d. EMG-NCV test

Objective test so need ng diagnostic tool

50
Q
  1. Which of the following describes a type IV acromioclavicular (AC) joint injury?
    a. An obvious gap is visible between the acromion and the clavicle. All active motions are painful, especially abduction. A-C and C-C ligament are disrupted. A-C joint dislocated and the shoulder complex displaced inferiorly. Coracoclavicular interspace 25–100% greater than normal shoulder. Deltoid and trapezoid muscles are usually detached from the distal end of the clavicle. Piano key phenomenon is present.
    b. A-C and C-C ligaments are disrupted. A-C joint dislocated and the clavicle anatomically displaced posteriorly into or through the trapezius muscle. Coracoclavicular interspace may be displaced but may appear normal. Deltoid and trapezoid muscles are detached from the distal end of the clavicle. Surgery already indicated.
    c. A-C and C-C ligaments are disrupted. A-C joint dislocated and gross disparity between the clavicle and the scapula (300–500% greater than normal). Deltoid and trapezoid muscles are detached from the distal end of the clavicle. There is a large distance between the clavicle and coracoid process and there is tenderness to palpation over the entire lateral half of the clavicle.
    d. Tenderness and mild pain at the A-C joint. Sometimes there is a high, painful arc (160–180 degrees), and resisted adduction is painful. Passive A-P joint gliding is painful, especially in patients over 50 years of age.
    e. Moderate to severe local pain with tenderness in the coracoclavicular space. The clavicle may appear to be slightly higher than the acromion, although in reality the opposite is true. All passive motions are painful at the end of ROM, and usually both resisted adduction and abduction are painful. Passive posteroanterior translation at the A-C joint is greater than that of the opposite joint.
A

b. A-C and C-C ligaments are disrupted. A-C joint dislocated and the clavicle anatomically displaced posteriorly into or through the trapezius muscle. Coracoclavicular interspace may be displaced but may appear normal. Deltoid and trapezoid muscles are detached from the distal end of the clavicle. Surgery already indicated.

A: Type III
C: Type V
D: Type I
E: Type II

ROCKWOOD CLASSIFICATION:
I. AC sprained
SC intact
II. AC torn
SC sprained
III. AC torn
SC torn
IV. 3 + Clavicle posterior
V. 3 + Deltotrapezial fascia tear
CC Space increased 100
VI. 3 + Clavicle inferior

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