Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Boards Flashcards > Fracture Mgt > Flashcards

Fracture Mgt Flashcards

1
Q
  1. Stage of fracture healing in which there is (+) blood clot

a. Stage 1
b. Stage 2
c. Stage 3
d. Stage 4

A

a. Stage 1

B: Callus formation
C: Lamella formation
D: Does not exist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q
  1. Osteoclast function/s:

a. Bone resorption
b. Bone formation
c. Bone remodeling
d. A and C
e. B and C
f. AOTA

A

d. A and C

Osteoclast = C for crush

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q
  1. Osteoblast function/s:

a. Bone resorption
b. Bone formation
c. Bone remodeling
d. A and C
e. B and C
f. AOTA

A

e. B and C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q
  1. Osteoporosis

a. BMD is 2.0 SD
b. BMD is 2.7 SD
c. BMD is 1.0 SD
d. NOTA

A

b. BMD is 2.7 SD

> 2.5 SD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q
  1. Osteopenia

a. BMD is 2.0 SD
b. BMD is 2.7 SD
c. BMD is 1.0 SD
d. NOTA

A

a. BMD is 2.0 SD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q
  1. Normal Bone Mass Density

a. BMD is 2.0 SD
b. BMD is 2.7 SD
c. BMD is 1.0 SD
d. NOTA

A

c. BMD is 1.0 SD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q
  1. Abnormal increase in bone resorption and formation.

a. Paget’s disease
b. Osteoporosis
c. Osteopetrosis
d. NOTA

A

a. Paget’s disease

Code: PAnGET na yung bone kasi sobra na

B: Increase osteoclast
C: Decrease osteoclast

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q
  1. All of the following are non-modifiable risk factor of osteoporosis, EXCEPT:

a. Gender
b. Age
c. History of low calcium intake
d. Genetics
e. Low calcium intake

A

e. Low calcium intake

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q
  1. Which of the following are OT interventions strategies for edema control?

a. Elevation
b. Compression
c. Movement
d. AOTA
e. NOTA

A

d. AOTA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q
  1. Usually, mobilization of UE fractures starts with AROM. With the exception of shoulder fractures that starts with PROM.

a. First statement is correct
b. Second statement is correct
c. Both statements are correct
d. Neither statements are correct

A

c. Both statements are correct

(SH fx) Starts with PROM: For stability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q
  1. During immobilization phase of UE fracture management, strengthening begins with isometric exercises. Strengthening exercises should be approved by a physician first.

a. First statement is correct
b. Second statement is correct
c. Both statements are correct
d. Neither statements are correct

A

b. Second statement is correct

1st: Isotonic dapat muna
2nd: Aggressive exercises should be approved by physician

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q
  1. The following happens in the reparative phase of fracture healing, EXCEPT:

a. Radiographs shows apparent fracture line
b. Callus is resorbed
c. Temporary callus surrounds the fracture site
d. AOTA
e. NOTA

A

b. Callus is resorbed

Callus is present in stage 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q
  1. The following happens in the remodeling phase of fracture healing, EXCEPT:

a. Callus is no longer present
b. Radiograph showed complete healing
c. Callus replaces lamella bone
d. AOTA
e. NOTA

A

c. Callus replaces lamella bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q
  1. The following are OT evaluation recommendations during the early mobilization phase of fracture rehabilitation, except:

a. OT adapts some ax of the px during the temporary period of restricted movement
b. OT measures ROM of adjacent joints
c. Assessment of ROM of the injured joint based on the recommendation of the orthopedic surgeon
d. AOTA
e. NOTA

A

a. OT adapts some ax of the px during the temporary period of restricted movement

OT Evaluation –> Early stage of healing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q
  1. The following are OT evaluation recommendation during the early consolidation phase of fracture rehabilitation:

a. An activity analysis can be performed to identify whether the injured area can participate in occupational tasks
b. In cases of shoulder fracture. AROMs are measured at the initial start of the phase
c. Grip and pinch strengths are measured based on the recommendation of the surgeon
d. AOTA
e. NOTA

A

d. AOTA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q
  1. The following are OT management strategies during the early mobilization phase of fracture rehabilitation, except:

a. Movement starts with early gravity eliminated motions to gravity assisted motion to AAROM to PROM
b. For an intra-articular elbow fracture, isometric contraction of elbow flexors should be facilitated
c. Provision of sling for protection
d. AOTA
e. NOTA

A

e. NOTA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q
  1. The following are true about shoulder fracture healing:

a. AROM begins as soon as acute pain diminishes
b. Isometrics of rotator cuff should stat immediately after surgery upon the recommendation of the surgeon
c. Finger ladder exercises can start 6 weeks post-operative
d. AOTA
e. NOTA

A

d. AOTA

C: Non-resistive exercises can start 6 week post op

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q
  1. The recommended exercise for elbow fracture rehabilitation is performing pronation and supination with the patient’s elbow flexed at 90 degrees. The movement should be limited by pain.

a. First statement is correct
b. Second statement is correct
c. Both statements are correct
d. Neither statements are correct

A

c. Both statements are correct

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q
  1. Restricted motions after hip arthroplasty, except:
    i. Hip flexion of 45 degrees
    ii. Rotation of the hips
    iii. Adduction until soft end feel

a. I and II
b. II and III
c. I and III
d. AOTA
e. NOTA

A

c. I and III

i: you can flex until 90
ii: prohibited

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q
  1. During, your patient with right above knee amputation says he is independent in all aspects of dressing. You would: (Cabatan, p26)

a. Report that he has no problem in dressing
b. Observe how the px dresses
c. Tell the px he is lying
d. Give a problem-solving task

A

b. Observe how the px dresses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q
  1. What injury would require a person to transfer sit to stand with his hip in slight abduction and extended out in front? (NBCOT, p11)

a. Total Hip Replacement
b. Total Knee Replacement
c. Total Shoulder Replacement
d. Hip Reconstruction

A

a. Total Hip Replacement

22
Q
  1. Which of the following is the LEAST beneficial modality for a subluxed shoulder? (Cabatan, p38)

a. Hot moist pack
b. Electrical stimulation
c. Passive exercises
d. EMG biofeedback

A

c. Passive exercises

Active dapat

23
Q
  1. Patients with below-knee amputation should avoid the following positions, except: (Cabatan, p50)

a. Pillows under knees
b. Pillows under hips
c. Prone position
d. Dangling of stump while seated

A

c. Prone position

Prescribed: knee extension

24
Q
  1. What FOR should an OT use when treating a fracture?

a. SI
b. NDT
c. Motor control
d. Biomechanical

A

d. Biomechanical

25
Q
  1. What is not a precaution for a total knee replacement? (NBCOT, p69)

a. No IR
b. No ER
c. No forced extension
d. No forced flexion

A

c. No forced extension

Extension is promoted in THR

26
Q
  1. All of the following statements are true concerning phantom sensation following limb loss in adults, except: (Sladyk, p82)

a. Almost all adults experience phantom sensation following limb loss
b. 60% of all patients experience phantom pain
c. Phantom pain is considered a disturbance in body image
d. The existence of neurological scheme ends with the actual physical loss of the limb

A

d. The existence of neurological scheme ends with the actual physical loss of the limb

+ neurological and psychological adjustment

27
Q
  1. Your client has an above elbow amputation. He is fearful and hesitant to don his prosthetic device. What approach would be most helpful to the client? (Sladyk, p101)

a. Wait until the cx is ready to learn
b. Work on strengthening program instead
c. Repetitive donning and removal of the prosthesis
d. Work on stump care

A

c. Repetitive donning and removal of the prosthesis

This will help him realize that he can don or doff the prosthesis

28
Q
  1. A patient with recent hip replacement must avoid all of the following, except: (Sladyk, p101)

a. Bending while sitting
b. Walking outside
c. Crossed legs
d. Crossed ankles

A

b. Walking outside

As long as done properly + could be beneficial to the px

29
Q
  1. The most important goal in teaching ADLs to a patient with LE, above knee amputation is: (Sladyk, p110)

a. Use of adaptive equipment
b. How to supervise others who help with home management
c. Energy conservation and work simplification
d. Cognitive retraining

A

c. Energy conservation and work simplification

30
Q
  1. The most important area of OT intervention for a person with LE, above knee amputation is: (Sladyk, p113)

a. Adaptive equipment assessment
b. Instruction in donning and doffing the prosthetic device
c. Gait training
d. Teaching the client skin inspection of the stump

A

d. Teaching the client skin inspection of the stump

Preventive measures first
B: 2nd after skin inspection

31
Q
  1. All of the following are effective in reducing hand edema for the post surgery client, except: (Sladyk, p127)

a. Cold, wet packs
b. Massage
c. Elevation
d. Isotoner brand gloves

A

a. Cold, wet packs

Contrast bath dapat. Not just cold, wet pack.

32
Q
  1. Usually, mobilization of UE fractures starts with AROM. With the exception of shoulder fractures that starts with PROM.

a. First statement is correct
b. Second statement is correct
c. Both statements are correct
d. Neither statements are correct

A

c. Both statements are correct

33
Q
  1. During immobilization phase of UE fracture management, strengthening begins with isometric exercises. Strengthening exercises should be approved by a physician first.

a. First statement is correct
b. Second statement is correct
c. Both statements are correct
d. Neither statements are correct

A

b. Second statement is correct

34
Q
  1. Which of the following patients would you allow to brush his teeth typically as he did before hip surgery?

a. NWB px
b. Touchdown WB px
c. PWB px
d. NOTA

A

c. PWB px

PWB can tolerate standing up when doing ADLs

35
Q
  1. The following patients can be advised to use a walker, except:

a. Touchdown WB
b. PWB
c. 50% WB
d. AOTA
e. NOTA

A

e. NOTA

All of them can use a walker

36
Q
  1. What is the best ambulatory device for 50% partial weight bearing patient?

a. Walker
b. Crutches
c. Cane
d. No device

A

c. Cane

37
Q
  1. The following are beneficial adaptations for post-hip replacement surgery patient, except:

a. Grab bar
b. Built-up handle
c. Sock aide
d. AOTA
e. NOTA

A

b. Built-up handle

38
Q
  1. What is the correct sequence of going in a tub for post hip surgery patient?
    i. Sit parallel to the tub with the operated near the tub.
    ii. Hold onto a grab bar for support.
    iii. Shift body weight to unoperated leg.

a. I, II, and III
b. II, III, and I
c. I, III, and II
d. III, II, and I

A

c. I, III, and II

39
Q
  1. What is the correct sequence of going in a tub for post hip surgery patient?
    i. Flex the knee of the operated leg
    ii. Abduct the operated leg
    iii. Extend the operated hip

a. III, I, and II
b. II, III, and I
c. I, II, and III
d. II, I, and III

A

a. III, I, and II

Extend to go over the tub

40
Q
  1. Vitamin C deficiency that causes fractures not to heal.

a. Ricket’s
b. Paget’s
c. Scurvy
d. Osteogenesis Imperfecta

A

c. Scurvy

41
Q
  1. Vitamin D deficiency that causes decrease calcium absorption

a. Ricket’s
b. Paget’s
c. Scurvy
d. Osteogenesis Imperfecta

A

a. Ricket’s

42
Q
  1. Females are as predisposed to Osteoporosis as men before 60 years old. After 60 years old, women are more likely to have osteoporosis.

a. First statement is correct
b. Second statement is correct
c. Both statements are correct
d. Neither statements are correct

A

c. Both statements are correct

43
Q
  1. A patient consulted you regarding his terminal device. Upon evaluation, you saw that her device remains open and closes when she pulls the cables. What is the terminal device she is most likely using?

a. Voluntary closing hook
b. Voluntary opening hook
c. Hand
d. NOTA

A

a. Voluntary closing hook

44
Q
  1. In wrapping a residual limb, tension in the bandage should decrease from distal to proximal.

a. True
b. False
c. Depends on the area of amputation

A

a. True

45
Q
  1. In case they survive birth, infants with Osteogenesis Imperfecta presents with brittle bones. Weight bearing should be avoided for patients with Osteogenesis Imperfecta.

a. First statement is correct
b. Second statement is correct
c. Both statements are correct
d. Neither statements are correct

A

a. First statement is correct

WB should not be avoided. It could benefit them.

46
Q
  1. In lifting heavy grocery paper bags without handles, the following can be recommended to avoid injury.

a. In lifting the grocery from the ground up, keep knees straight and bend forward then lift
b. Hug the grocery bags when carrying them
c. Be very independent in doing it
d. AOTA
e. NOTA

A

b. Hug the grocery bags when carrying them

47
Q
  1. Basic body mechanics assist both the patient and the therapist. All of the following are good body mechanics except: (Sladyk, p71)

a. When possible, push, pull, or slide rather than pick it up
b. Slight body twisting will provide more lift when picking up a heavy object
c. Maintain your COG close to the COG of the object you are holding
d. Widen your BOS to stabilize your vertical gravity line

A

b. Slight body twisting will provide more lift when picking up a heavy object

48
Q
  1. Joint protection techniques include all of the following, except: (Sladyk, p125)

a. Maintain joints in correct posit6ion
b. Use hands instead of shoulders
c. Bend hips and knees ut keep back straight
d. Distribute load over 2 or more joints

A

b. Use hands instead of shoulders

Use larger joints

49
Q
  1. Joint protection principles and methods:

a. Use wristlets rather than shoulder bags
b. Lift boxes by holding them at the side
c. Push rather than pull
d. AOTA
e. NOTA

A

c. Push rather than pull

50
Q
  1. The following are principles of work simplification, except:

a. Elimination tasks
b. Delegate tasks
c. Repeat tasks
d. Schedule tasks
e. AOTA

A

c. Repeat tasks

Boards Flashcards (57 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions