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Physdys Eval and Mgt Flashcards

1
Q

The ability to accurately use the concepts of right and left:

a. RL Identification
b. RL Discrimination
c. RL Quantification
d. RL Recognition

A

b. RL Discrimination

Key words: Right and left

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2
Q
  1. Refers to the visual distortion of objects, such as the physical properties of size and weight:

a. Simultanagnosia
b. Metamorphopsia
c. Prosopagnosia
d. Position in space

A

b. Metamorphopsia

Code: Morph –> distortion
Key words: Size and weight

A: Inability to recognize and interpret a visual array as a whole (Simultaneous)
C: Inability to recognize and identify familiar faces (Face-so pagnosia)
D: Position of object to the self

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3
Q
  1. The following are adaptive approaches to addressing problems in Figure-Ground perception, except:

a. Organize objects
b. Challenge client to localize objects of similar color in a disorganized visual array
c. Decrease complexity of visual array
d. Marking objects with colored tape

A

b. Challenge client to localize objects of similar color in a disorganized visual array

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4
Q
  1. Your client was not able to identify the cup in the dishwasher filled with many objects, as it was placed upside down. You might suspect that he has problems with:

a. Agnosia
b. Aphasia
c.. Figure ground
d. Visual closure
e. Form constancy

A

e. Form constancy

Key word: upside down

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5
Q
  1. You asked your client to identify a set of small objects on the table that are positioned close to him and afterwards another set of objects that are positioned farther away from him. You are assessing:

a. Form constancy
b. Visual closure
c. Depth Perception
d. Spatial relations
e. Position in space

A

c. Depth Perception

AKA “Stereopsis”
Inability to perceive distance in relation to self or objects in envt.

D: Object to object (ex: notebook is situated on top of the book)
E: Peron to object

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6
Q
  1. The normal value for wrist extension ROM is:

a. 0-70 deg
b. 0-80 deg
c. 0-120 deg
d. 0-180 deg

A

a. 0-70 deg

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7
Q
  1. The normal value for DIP flexion ROM of the fingers is:

a. 0-25 deg
b. 0-80 deg
c. 0-90 deg
d. 0-110 deg

A

b. 0-80 deg

Additional:
DIP: 0-80 deg
MCP Flexion: 0-90 deg
PIP Flexion: 0-110 deg

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8
Q
  1. The normal value for forearm supination ROM is:

a. 0-70-80 deg
b. 0-80-90 deg
c. 0-90-100 deg
d. 0-100-110 deg

A

b. 0-80-90 deg

Additional:
FA Supination: 0-80-90
FA Pronation: 0-80-90

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9
Q
  1. The normal value for wrist flexion ROM is:

a. 0-70 deg
b. 0-80 deg
c. 0-30 deg
d. 0-20 deg

A

b. 0-80 deg

a: Wrist extension
c: UD
d: RD

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10
Q
  1. The normal for ankle inversion ROM is:

a. 0-20 deg
b. 0-25 deg
c. 0-30 deg
d. 0-35 deg

A

d. 0-35 deg

Additional
Ankle inversion: 0-35
Ankle eversion: 0-20
Ankle DF: 0-15
Ankle PF: 0-50

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11
Q
  1. The axis of the goniometer when measuring forearm supination:

a. Proximal to ulnar styloid
b. Distal to ulnar styloid
c. Head of the 3rd metacarpal
d. Proximal to radial styloid
e. Distal to radial styloid

A

a. Proximal to ulnar styloid

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12
Q
  1. The axis of the goniometer when measuring wrist radial deviation:

a. Capitate
b. Hamate
c. Lunate
d. Pisiform
e. Triquetrum

A

a. Capitate

Dorsum of the wrist of the base of the 3rd metacarpal over the capitate bone

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13
Q
  1. During MMT measurement, after providing resistance to the extremity being tested, the next step is to:

a. Position
b. Observe
c. Palpate
d. Grade
e. Resist

A

d. Grade

Position –> Stabilize –> Palpate –> Observe –> Resist –> Grade

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14
Q
  1. Compute for TAM with MCP: 20-50; PIP: 40-140; DIP: 30-70:

a. 150
b. 160
c. 170
d. 180
e. NOTA

A

c. 170

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15
Q
  1. Compute for TAM with MCP: 10-40; PIP: 25-150; DIP: 50-60:

a. 125
b. 135
c. 145
d. 155
e. NOTA

A

e. NOTA

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16
Q
  1. “Contraction can be observed or felt, but there is no motion”:

a. Fair
b. Poor
c. Trace
d. Zero

A

c. Trace

A: 3
B: 2
D: Absent

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17
Q
  1. “Lifting objects from a flat surface”:

a. Lateral prehension
b. Palmar prehension
c. Tip prehension
d. NOTA

A

b. Palmar prehension

AKA “Tripod grasp/ Three-jaw chuck”

A: Keys, pens
C: Pins, coins

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18
Q
  1. Position of the patient when assessing shoulder external rotation:

a. Prone
b. Supine
c. Sidelying
d. Sitting

A

d. Sitting

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19
Q
  1. Position of the extremity when using the JAMAR Dynamometer:

a. SH adducted, 90 deg elbow flexion, FA in neutral, wrist neutral to slight RD
b. SH adducted, 90 deg elbow flexion, FA in neutral, wrist neutral to slight UD
c. SH abducted, 90 deg elbow flexion, FA in neutral, wrist neutral to slight RD
d. SH abducted, 90 deg elbow flexion, FA in neutral, wrist neutral to slight UD

A

b. SH adducted, 90 deg elbow flexion, FA in neutral, wrist neutral to slight UD

20
Q
  1. Maximal allowed wrist extension value when using the JAMAR dynamometer:

a. 0-10 deg flexion
b. 0-20 deg flexion
c. 0-30 deg flexion
d. 0-40 deg flexion
e. NOTA

A

e. NOTA

0-30 degrees extension dapat

21
Q
  1. All of the following prehension patterns are assessed using the B&L Engineering pinch meter, except:

a. Tip to tip
b. Pad to pad
c. Lateral
d. Tripod
e. NOTA

A

b. Pad to pad

Hindi tinetest ang pad to pad

22
Q
  1. Palmar pinch refers to what position:

a. Thumb to index finger
b. Thumb to lateral side of index finger
c. Thumb to tips of index and middle fingers
d. Thumb to tips of index and tips of middle fingers
e. NOTA

A

c. Thumb to tips of index and middle fingers

Tripod

23
Q
  1. For screening the radial nerve, one should test the:

a. Thumb web space
b. Distal end of the small finger
c. Tip of the thumb
d. Dorsal side of the hand

A

a. Thumb web space

B: Ulnar nerve
C: Median nerve

23
Q
  1. Sensory recovery after peripheral neuropathy proceed in:

a. Light touch, cold, heat, pain
b. Light touch, heat, cold, pain
c. Pain, cold, heat, light touch
d. Pain, heat, cold, light touch

A

d. Pain, heat, cold, light touch

A: Nawawala kapag may peripheral neuropathy

24
Q
  1. You are evaluating a 25-year old client who has sustained a brain injury from an MVA. During your motor evaluation of the client’s elbow, the client demonstrated non-voluntary repetitive contraction of the biceps. This is described as:

a. Synergy
b. Flaccidity
c. Clonus
d. Spinal hypertonia

A

c. Clonus

25
Q
  1. This is a motor disorder characterized by a velocity-dependent increase in tonic stretch reflexes with exaggerated tendon jerks resulting from hyperexcitability of the stretch reflex:

a. Hypertonicity
b. Rigidity
c. Spasticity
d. AOTA

A

c. Spasticity

26
Q
  1. An OT is working with a client who exhibits deficits in upper extremity coordination. During a cooking activity, the OT might recommend that the individual:

a. Use lightweight utensils, pots, and pans
b. Place items within easy reach for greater control
c. Use on-extremity at a time
d. Use heavy-weighted utensils, pots, and pans

A

d. Use heavy-weighted utensils, pots, and pans

Heavy: More snesory feedback –> help stabilize

27
Q
  1. A client has a 3-year history of multiple sclerosis. One of the client’s disabling symptoms is a persistent and severe diplopia which leaves the client frequently nauseated and unable to complete desired activities. Which adaptive strategy is most effective for the occupational therapist to recommend the client use during BADL and IADL?

a. Magnifying glasses
b. Prism glasses
c. Shaded glasses
d. Eye-patch on one eye

A

d. Eye-patch on one eye

28
Q
  1. Following medical treatment for a brain tumor, a client is referred to OT home care services for functional evaluation. During the initial interview, the client reports difficulty locating desired items. For example, at lunch time the client could not find a can of soup in the pantry. Based upon this self-report, which functional ability should the occupational therapist evaluate?

a. Visual scanning
b. Visual acuity
c. Spatial relations
d. Topographical orientation

A

a. Visual scanning

29
Q
  1. Provide the best sources of bright illumination with minimum glare and are generally recommended over standard incandescent lighting for both room and task illumination, except:

a. Full spectrum lights
b. Fluorescent lights
c. Incandescent lights
d. Halogen lights

A

c. Incandescent lights

30
Q
  1. A condition that can cause double vision or mental suppression of one of the images that affect the development of visual perception is:

a. Strabismus
b. Phoria
c. Myopia
d. Astigmatism

A

a. Strabismus

31
Q
  1. A ___________ is a movement of the eye toward an object of interest in the environment. Its purpose is to focus on the object with the fovea, the area of the retina with the greatest ability to process detail:

a. Nystagmus
b. Strabismus
c. Saccade
d. NOTA

A

c. Saccade

32
Q
  1. The first step in the visual assessment of a 50-year old client who has sustained a brain injury would be:

a. Visual history
b. Visual tracking
c. Visual field confrontation testing
d. Convergence testing

A

a. Visual history

33
Q
  1. A good example of a prospective memory is:

a. Remembering the name of your future spouse
b. Remembering how to drive a car
c. Remembering to take your medication
d. Remembering to tie your shoes before going out

A

c. Remembering to take your medication

Future si prospective

34
Q
  1. Tying your shoes involves what kind of memory:

a. Episodic memory
b. Semantic memory
c. Prospective memory
d. Implicit memory
e. Explicit memory

A

d. Implicit memory

Ability how to perform without conscious awareness

E: Knowledge/facts
A and B are under E

35
Q
  1. Attending to a game of chess involves:

a. Selective attention
b. Sustained attention
c. Divided attention
d. Alternating attention

A

b. Sustained attention

36
Q
  1. “A person who needs groceries for the week and is aware that busy environments present a greater challenge to existing memory and attention deficits decides to defer shopping until 07 p.m. when the local store is not busy”

a. Anticipatory compensation
b. Recognition compensation
c. Situational compensation
d. External compensation

A

a. Anticipatory compensation

37
Q
  1. An occupational therapist receives a referral to evaluate an individual’s executive functioning following a mild CVA. Which are the most relevant foci for this evaluation?

a. The person’s initiation and planning
b. The person’s attention and memory
c. The person’s job interest and efficacy
d. The person’s spatial relations and praxis

A

a. The person’s initiation and planning

38
Q
  1. The OT is working on balancing a checkbook with a client that has TBI. When the client becomes visibly agitated, the OT should:

a. Change the activity to redirect attention
b. Stop treatment and refer to the physician
c. Suggest that medication be given
d. Wait a little while and then try again

A

a. Change the activity to redirect attention

39
Q
  1. An activity of daily living that enables well-being through the engagement in “activities that result in sexual satisfaction and/or meet relational or reproductive needs”

a. Sexual health
b. Sexual functioning
c. Sexual activity
d. Sexuality

A

c. Sexual activity

40
Q
  1. “Breathing, heart rate, and blood pressure continue to increase”

a. Excitement
b. Plateau
c. Orgasm
d. Resolution

A

b. Plateau

a. phase 1
c. phase 3
d. phase 4

41
Q
  1. This is the climax of the sexual response cycle:

a. Excitement
b. Plateau
c. Orgasm
d. Resolution

A

c. Orgasm

a. phase 1
b. phase 2
d. phase 4

42
Q
  1. The recovery time after an orgasm, during which an individual cannot reach orgasm again:

a. Retirement period
b. Resting period
c. Recovery period
d. Refractory period

A

d. Refractory period

43
Q
  1. Refers to allowing the client to feel new feelings and experiment with new thoughts or ideas regarding sexual functioning:

a. Permission
b. Limited information
c. Specific suggestions
d. Intensive therapy

A

a. Permission

PLISSIT MODEL

44
Q
  1. “Positioning, unique practices, roles and routines, subsequent activity analysis and joint problem solving”:

a. Permission
b. Limited information
c. Specific suggestions
d. Intensive therapy

A

c. Specific suggestions

PLISSIT MODEL

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