LE 2 Flashcards
Functions of the patella, except:
a. Improve the efficiency and increases the torque of the knee extensors
b. Contribute to the overall stability of the knee
c. Provide bony protection from the direct trauma to the femoral condyles when the knee is flexed
d. Provide a smooth gliding to increase compression and friction forces during activities such as knee bends
e. NOTA
d. Provide a smooth gliding to increase compression and friction forces during activities such as knee bends
Observing a patient in a standing position, the therapist notes that an angulation deformit of the right knee causes it to be located medially in relation to the left hip and foot. This condition is commonly referred to as:
a. Genu Varum
b. Genu Valgum
c. Pes Cavus
d. NOTA
b. Genu Valgum
What is the tautest position of the MCL of the knee?
a. Extension and Medial Rotation
b. Flexion and Lateral Rotation
c. Extension and Lateral Rotation
d. Flexion and Medial Rotation
c. Extension and Lateral Rotation
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Contents of the Popliteal Fossa from the deepest to the most superficial:
a. Posterior Tibial Nerve, Popliteal Vein, Popliteal Artery
b. Popliteal Artery, Popliteal Vein, Posterior Tibial Nerve
c. Popliteal Vein, Popliteal Artery, Posterior Tibial Nerve
d. Posterior Tibial Nerve, Popliteal Artery, Popliteal Vein
e. Popliteal Vein, Posterior Tibial Nerve, Popliteal Artery
b. Popliteal Artery, Popliteal Vein, Posterior Tibial Nerve
A terminal lateral rotation of the tibia is said to “lock” the joint when the knee is fully extended. The key is the ____
a. Piriformis
b. Gastrocnemis
c. Soleus
d. Popliteus
d. Popliteus
Which of the following mobilization techniques is not appropriate for increasing knee flexion?
a. Inferior glide of the patella
b. Posterior glide of the tibia on the femur
c. Anterior glide of the femur on the tibia
d. Anterior glide of the tibia on the femur
e. NOTA
d. Anterior glide of the tibia on the femur
If the angle is less than 170 degrees on the lateral side of the knee on weight bearing on one leg, the condition is referred to as: Valateral
a. Genu varum
b. Genu valgum
c. Genu recurvatum
d. none of these
b. Genu valgum
Terminal rotation of the knee is observe during ___
a. last 20 degrees of extension
b. last 20 degrees of flexion
c. first 20 degrees of extension
d. first 20 degrees of flexion
a. last 20 degrees of extension
The Q- angle is considered excessive if its is over:
a. 20 degrees
b. 15 degrees
c. 10 degrees
d. 18 degrees
a. 20 degrees
Why is the lateral meniscus injured less often than the medial meniscus?
a. It is longer in diameter
b. It is thinner
It is stabilized by the hamstrings
d. It is more mobile
d. It is more mobile
The Cinema sign which is pain on the knee increased on stair climbing, and relief on standing
is observed in patients with:
a. Patellar subluxation
b. Chondromalacia patella
c. Patellar dislocation
d. Osteoarthritis of patella
b. Chondromalacia patella
The knee is the largest joint in the body and it is among the most frequently injured joints within athletic and industrial environments. The following statements apply correctly to this joint, EXCEPT:
I. It is a complex joint with three bones, two degrees of freedom of motion, and three articulating surfaces.
II. The medial tibiofemoral, lateral tibiofemoral, and patellofemoral articulations are enclosed by a common joint capsule.
III. The knee can support the body weight in the erect position without muscle activity.
IV. In walking and running, the normal knee requires vertical and lateral oscillations of the center of gravity of the body while sustaining vertical forces equal to 4 to 6 times the body
weight.
V. The relatively shallow joint provides for limited motion, but the joint configuration means that the knee must rely on soft tissue structures for its primary support and stability.
a. All of these
b. I, II and III
c. II, III, IV
d. IV and V
e. Only IV
d. IV and V
All are causes of PFPS, EXCEPT:
a. Femoral anteversion
b. Foot pronation
c. Genu valgum
d. External tibial torsion
e. None of these
e. None of these
A terminal lateral rotation of the tibia is said to “lock” the joint when the knee is fully extended. The key is the:
a. Biceps femoris
b. Popliteus
c. Piriformis
d. Gastrocnemius
e. Soleus
b. Popliteus
A client with confirmed PCL tear is able to return
to full dynamic activities following rehabilitation.
Which of the following does not serve as secondary restrain to PCL?
a. ITB
b. Popliteus
c. LCL
d. MCL
a. ITB
The following statements are true of the patella, EXCEPT:
a. Decreases pressure and distribute forces on
the femur.
b. It is unable to prevent damaging forces on the quadriceps tendon in resisted knee flexion.
c. Increases the leverage of the quadriceps femoris.
d. When the knee is flexed, it provides bony protection to the distal joint surfaces of the
femoral condyles.
b. It is unable to prevent damaging forces on the quadriceps tendon in resisted knee flexion.
A predisposing factor to recurrent knee dislocation is:
a. Marked genu varum
b. Deep patellar groove
c. Weak vastus medialis
d. Lateral capsule laxity
c. Weak vastus medialis
Medial rotators of the tibia include the following:
I. Gracilis
II. Semitendinosus
III. Sartorius
IV. Popliteus
a. All of these
b. I, II, and III
c. I and III
d. II and IV
e. Only IV
a. All of these
The following statements are true of the collateral ligaments, EXCEPT:
a. Lateral collateral ligament connects the femur and the fibula.
b. These ligaments may be easily injured when force is applied to the knee while a person’s leg is extended with his foot firmly planted
on the ground.
c. Medial collateral ligament connects the femur to the tibia.
d. Prevent side-to-side movement by tightening during leg extension.
e. The collateral ligaments can tear when the femur is externally rotated on the tibia.
e. The collateral ligaments can tear when the femur is externally rotated on the tibia
The following describe the lateral meniscus, EXCEPT:
a. There is an area of no point attachment to the tibia from under the anterior cruciate
ligament to the anterior margin of the tibia.
b. May move anteriorly-posteriorly as the condyle does.
c. The lateral meniscus is much less secure than the medial of movement by the lateral
femoral condyle over the lateral plateau of the tibia.
d. Has considerably less mobility than the medial meniscus and by its shape and
contour tends to be controlled much more by the femoral condyle.
d. Has considerably less mobility than the medial meniscus and by its shape and
contour tends to be controlled much more by the femoral condyle.
More mobile dapat
The aponeurotic insertion of the large extensor muscle of the knee largely provides the fibrous capsule for the front and sides of the joint. In the
tendon of this powerful muscle, a sesamoid bone
developed and became articular. Name this bone:
a. Tibia
b. Femoral condyle
c. Patella
d. Lateral condyle
c. Patella
The bursa that is affected in Baker’s cyst:
a. Prepatellar bursa
b. Suprapatellar bursa
c. Infrapatellar burse
d. Popliteal bursa
e. Pes anserine bursa
d. Popliteal bursa
Although knee motion occurs primarily in one plane, tibial rotation is possible when the knee is positioned in 90 degrees or more of flexion
because in this position:
a. Tension of the ligaments is decreased.
b. Patella deviates inferiorly.
c. Hamstrings act as a rotating force.
d. Condyles of the femur glide posteriorly on the condyles of the tibia.
a. Tension of the ligaments is decreased.
A therapist positions a patient in prone to measure knee flexion. Range of motion may be limited in this position due to:
a. Passive insufficiency of the knee extensors
b. Passive insufficiency of the sacrospinalis group
c. Active insufficiency of the knee extensors
d. Passive insufficiency of the knee flexors
e. Active insufficiency of the knee flexors
a. Passive insufficiency of the knee extensors
Your patient suffered from a patellar dislocation. What is the most common direction of
dislocation?
a. Superior
b. Inferior
c. Medial
d. Lateral
e. Anterior
d. Lateral
The compression reaction force on the patella is
highest in:
a. Crossed leg position
b. Straight-leg raising exercise
c. Squatting
d. Crawling
c. Squatting
Which of the following is true of the hamstring?
a. All of these
b. None of these
c. They extend the hip and/or flex the knee.
d. Rotates the knee joint when the joint is fully
c. They extend the hip and/or flex the knee.
Course of the anterior cruciate ligament:
a. Upward, backward, medial
b. Upward, forward, lateral
c. Upward, forward, medial
d. Upward, backward, lateral
d. Upward, backward, lateral
Which of the following structures form the angle
of the Q-angle?
a. ASIS, mid patella, tibial tubercle
b. AIIS, mid patella, tibial tuberosity
c. PSIS, ligamentum patellae, tibial tubercle
d. PIIS, ligamentum patellae, tibial tuberosity
a. ASIS, mid patella, tibial tubercle
Quadriceps muscle paralysis occurs with severance of the femoral nerve from a gunshot or other trauma. Various compensations can be used so people with quadriceps weakness can walk and function in a safe manner without a noticeable limp. Which of these compensations
is/are applicable?
a. Momentum from the hip can be used to straighten the knee in walking.
b. Use the gluteus maximus to extend the knee in closed chain motion.
c. The hand on the side of the weak quadriceps is used to push on the anterior
thigh.
d. A slight forward lean from the hips to place the center of gravity of HAT in front of the
knee’s axis of motion in the sagittal plane
e. All of these
e. All of these
Contents of the popliteal fossa from the deepest to the most superficial:
a. Posterior tibial nerve, popliteal vein, popliteal artery
b. Popliteal artery, popliteal vein, posterior tibial nerve
c. Popliteal vein, popliteal artery, posterior tibial nerve
d. Posterior tibial nerve, popliteal artery, popliteal vein
e. Popliteal vein, posterior tibial nerve, popliteal artery
a. Posterior tibial nerve, popliteal vein, popliteal artery
The attachments of this structure can be palpated
and identified by placing the index finger on the lateral epicondyle of the femur and middle finger on the head of the fibula:
a. Lateral collateral ligament
b. None of these
c. Medial meniscus
d. Medial collateral ligament
a. Lateral collateral ligament
n screw-home mechanism, at the last 20 degrees of knee extension on open kinematic chain, the tibia:
a. Externally rotates.
b. Internally rotates.
c. Moves variably.
d. Is immobile.
e. None of these
a. Externally rotates.
Possible causes of genu recurvatum:
I. Quadriceps weakness
II. Quadriceps spasticity
III. Plantarflexor spasticity
IV. Plantarflexor weakness
a. I, II, and III
b. I and III
c. II and IV
d. All of these
e. None of these
a. I, II, and III
In squatting, knee flexion is produced by:
a. Gravity with concentric contraction of hamstrings
b. Gravity with eccentric contraction of quadriceps
c. Gravity with concentric contraction of quadriceps
d. Gravity with eccentric contraction of the iliopsoas
b. Gravity with eccentric contraction of quadriceps
Medial collateral ligament rupture in the knee is due to excessive:
a. Varus
b. External rotation
c. Internal rotation
d. Valgus
d. Valgus
What part of the meniscus of the knee is poorly vascularized?
a. Peripheral outer 1/3
b. Peripheral 2/3
c. Inner 2/3
d. Inner 1/3
c. Inner 2/3
The following statements are true of the terminal rotation of the knee, EXCEPT:
a. Allows humans with an energy-efficient mechanism a mechanical stability to stand
erect without quadriceps muscle contraction.
b. Terminal rotation is seen as internal rotation of the femur on the fixed tibia in a closed
chain motion.
c. In the last 20 degrees of knee extension, the tibia externally rotates about 20 degrees on the fixed femur.
d. It is a mechanical event that occurs only in active knee extension and can voluntarily be prevented
d. It is a mechanical event that occurs only in active knee extension and can voluntarily be prevented
A therapist observing a patient complete a leg curl exercise notices 2 prominent tendons visible on the posterior surface of the patient’s knee. The visible tendons are most likely associated with the:
a. Semimembranosus and semitendinosus
b. Semitendinosus and biceps femoris
c. Popliteus and semitendinosus
d. Semimembranosus and biceps femoris
b. Semitendinosus and biceps femoris
False about screw home mechanism:
a. Occurs on the last 20 degrees of knee extension
b. IR of tibia in closed kinematic chain motion
c. IR of femur in closed kinematic chain
motion
d. ER of tibia in open kinematic chain motion
a. Occurs on the last 20 degrees of knee extension
Partial tearing to this ligament occurs at its femoral or tibial attachment and is a result of forced abduction of the tibia in the femur:
a. Lateral collateral ligament
b. Anterior cruciate ligament
c. Medial collateral ligament
d. Posterior cruciate ligament
c. Medial collateral ligament
Patient X landed with his knees hyperextended. A maneuver yields excessive anterior translation of
the tibia on the femur. The patient shows apprehension upon doing this maneuver. The ruptured ligament is:
a. ACL
b. PCL
c. LCL
d. MCL
e. Normal
a. ACL
The most common knee deformity seen in patients with degenerative osteoarthritis is:
a. Genu valgum
b. Genu varum
c. Tibial torsion
d. Genu recurvatum
b. Genu varum
A patient’s severe knee sprain resulted from medial rotation of the femur on the tibia with simultaneous application of valgus force while the foot was placed on the ground. Which structures are most likely to be involved?
a. MCL, PCL, and lateral meniscus
b. MCL, LCL, and PCL
c. LCL, ACL, and medial meniscus
d. MCL, ACL, and medial meniscus
d. MCL, ACL, and medial meniscus
In acute patellar dislocation, this muscle is usually disrupted or impaired:
a. Vastus intermedius
b. Rectus femoris
c. Vastus lateralis
d. Vastus medialis
d. Vastus medialis
You have a patient with a knee flexion
contracture. Your goal is to increase knee extension by doing a stretching exercise. Which of the following does not need to be stretched?
a. Hamstring muscle
b. Gastrocnemius muscle
c. Infrapatellar tendon
d. None of these
c. Infrapatellar tendon
Position of the knee where ACL is taut:
a. Full flexion
b. 30-degree flexion
c. Extension and IR
d. Full extension and ER
e. 90 degrees flexion
d. Full extension and ER
The following statements are true of the knee joint, EXCEPT:
a. Limitation by the two-joint rectus femoris muscle decreases knee flexion ROM when the hip is in flexion.
b. End-feel for extension or hyperextension is firm.
c. End-feel for passive knee flexion is soft.
d. It possesses two degrees freedom and range of flexion is from 120 to 150 degrees.
a. Limitation by the two-joint rectus femoris muscle decreases knee flexion ROM when the hip is in flexion.
A stab wound to the popliteal fossa will primarily injure which structure:
a. Posterior tibial nerve
b. Popliteus
c. Common peroneal nerve
d. Popliteal artery
a. Posterior tibial nerve
“Charley horse” is the contusion and tearing of muscle fibers resulting into the muscle from damaged vessels. Its most common site is the:
a. Pectineus
b. Adductors
c. Pes anserinus
d. Quadriceps
d. Quadriceps
A 14-year-old athletic boy has a painful bump in the anterior tibial tubercles. He experiences pain during running and jumping. X-ray findings are
normal except for soft tissue swelling over the tubercles. He may be suffering from:
a. Osgood-Schlatter disease
b. Osteogenesis imperfecta
c. Sinding-Larsen-Johansson disease
d. Jumper’s knee
e. Osteochondritis dissecans
a. Osgood-Schlatter disease
With the subject sitting and the knee relaxed in 90 degrees of flexion, these distal enlargements of the femur can be felt anteriorly on both sides of the patella:
a. None of these
b. Condyles
c. Epicondyles
d. Medial collateral ligaments
b. Condyles
In actions such as jumping with knees bent, the femur has a marked tendency to slide forwards off the plateau-like tibial surface. This ligament resists this tendency:
a. Posterior cruciate ligament
b. Lateral collateral ligament
c. Medial collateral ligament
d. Anterior cruciate ligament
a. Posterior cruciate ligament
The mechanism of injury for the posterior cruciate ligament is:
a. A forceful landing on the anterior tibia with the knee hyperflexed.
b. An anterior force to the tibia while the foot is fixed.
c. Internal rotation of the leg with external rotation of the body.
d. A valgus force to the knee while the foot is fixed.
a. A forceful landing on the anterior tibia with the knee hyperflexed.
The joint capsule of the knee is supported superiorly by the oblique popliteal ligament. This is an expansion of what muscle?
a. Semitendinosus
b. Semimembranosus
c. Biceps femoris
d. Gastrocnemius
b. Semimembranosus
A therapist observes a patient complete full active knee flexion ROM. Which of the following is not a
component of knee flexion?
a. Medial rotation of the tibia on femur
b. Superior movement of the patella
c. Inferior movement of the fibula
d. Posterior glide of tibia on femur
b. Superior movement of the patella
The following statements describe the cruciate ligaments of the knee, EXCEPT:
a. The PCL is attached to the lateral meniscus.
b. The ACL moves upward and backward to attach to the lateral femoral condyles.
c. The PCL prevents anterior displacement of the tibia.
d. The ACL prevents hyperextension of the knee.
c. The PCL prevents anterior displacement of the tibia.
The Q-angle is considered excessive if it is over:
a. 20 degrees
b. 15 degrees
c. 10 degrees
d. 0 degrees
a. 20 degrees
Meniscal tears in the knee joint usually result from:
a. Hyperextension
b. Hyperflexion
c. Rotation in full extension
d. Rotation in partial flexion
d. Rotation in partial flexion
Why is the lateral meniscus injured less often than the medial meniscus?
a. It is more mobile.
b. It is thinner.
c. It is longer in diameter.
d. It is stabilized by the hamstrings.
a. It is more mobile.