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Orthosis Flashcards

1
Q
  1. The therapist in an outpatient PT clinic receives an order to obtain a shoe orthotic for a patient. After evaluating the patient, the therapist finds a stage I pressure ulcer on the first MT head. Weight bearing surfaces need to be transferred posteriorly. Which orthotic is the most appropriate for this patient?

a. Scaphoid pad
b. Thomas heel
c. Metatarsal pad
d. Cushion heel

A

c. Metatarsal pad

Stage I pressure ulcer on the first MT head
Sesamoid pad or Morton’s extension

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2
Q
  1. An extension of the medial portion of the heel breast anteriorly is known as:

a. Thomas heel
b. Heel wedge
c. Reverse Thomas heel
d. Heel flare
e. A and C

A

a. Thomas heel

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3
Q
  1. This type of sole modification will evert or pronate the forefoot?

a. Medial sole wedge
b. Lateral sole wedge
c. Toe crest
d. Medial heel wedge
e. None of these

A

b. Lateral sole wedge

will evert

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4
Q
  1. A therapist attempts to trial the use of an orthosis for a patient with a steppage gait. Which of the following would be MOST appropriate for the therapist to utilize in the trial?

a. Ankle-foot orthosis (AFO)
b. Knee-ankle-foot orthosis (KAFO)
c. Hip-knee-ankle-foot orthosis (HKAFO)
d. Knee immobilizer

A

a. Ankle-foot orthosis (AFO)

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5
Q
  1. Patient is a 24-year-old male, status post ACL knee reconstruction. He will be returning to the ski team next spring and will require bracing of the knee. Which of the braces listed is made from a cast impression of the leg and provides rotational and medio-lateral stability to the knee joint?

a. Three-way knee stabilizer
b. Pro-cam brace
c. Lenox-Hill brace
d. Swedish knee cage

A

c. Lenox-Hill brace

rotational and medio-lateral stability

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6
Q
  1. A therapist evaluates a patient during gait. The patient demonstrates excessive pronation of the right heel at heel strike. Which of the following orthotic interventions is most appropriate to address the problem?

a. Forefoot medial posting
b. Rearfoot valgus posting
c. Forefoot lateral posting
d. Rearfoot varus posting

A

d. Rearfoot varus posting

heel = rearfoot
to supinate, you need varus

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7
Q
  1. A lateral buckled insert attached to an ankle-foot orthosis is used to correct:

a. Ankle valgus deformity
b. Ankle varus deformity
c. Medial longitudinal arch depression
d. Forefoot varus deformity

A

b. Ankle varus deformity

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8
Q
  1. A type of knee lock for Knee-Ankle-Foot orthosis, designed for the gradual stretching of a knee flexion contracture:

a. Offset knee joint
b. Pawl lock
c. Free motion
d. Serrated adjustable lock

A

d. Serrated adjustable lock

gradual stretching

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9
Q
  1. The most commonly used type of knee axis for Knee-Ankle-Foot Orthosis?

a. single
b. double
c. polycentric
d. none of the above

A

a. single

laging single pag may ankle

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10
Q
  1. A variation of a typical knee-ankle-foot orthosis which allows the SCI patient to stand and walk without an additional hip orthosis?

a. Fracture orthosis
b. Typical knee orthosis
c. Scott-Craig orthosis
d. Standing frame

A

c. Scott-Craig orthosis

without an additional hip orthosis

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11
Q
  1. Components of a hip-knee-ankle-foot orthosis?

I. Knee-ankle-foot orthosis
II. Hip joint
III. Pelvic band
IV. Silesian belt

a. I, II and III
b. I, II and IV
c. II, III and IV
d. I, II, III and IV

A

d. I, II, III and IV

Code: KHiPS

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12
Q
  1. Fracture orthosis is usually prescribed for which of the following conditions?

I. Fracture of the tibia
II. Fracture of tibia-fibula
III. Fracture of distal 1/3 of femur

a. I and II
b. I and III
c. II and III
d. I, II and III

A

d. I, II and III

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13
Q
  1. A hip lock type used for HKAFO that allows patient to stand and sit?

a. Drop-ring lock
b. Pawl lock
c. Two-position hip lock
d. Free motion

A

c. Two-position hip lock

0: stand
90: sit

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14
Q
  1. A non-rigid spinal orthosis that stabilizes sacroiliac joint and commonly used for post- partum and post-trauma patients?

a. Sacroiliac belt
b. Sacroiliac corset
c. Lumbosacral corset
d. None of these

A

a. Sacroiliac belt

post- partum and post-trauma patients

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15
Q
  1. Biomechanical effects of spinal orthoses:

I. Trunk support
II. Motion control
III. Spinal re-alignment
IV. Partial weight transfer of the head to the trunk when patient is upright (for neck only)

a. I, II and III
b. I, II and IV
c. II, III and IV
d. I, II, III and IV

A

d. I, II, III and IV

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16
Q
  1. A sterno-occipital-mandibular immobilizer (SOMI) is used to control what cervical motions?

a. Flexion and extension
b. Flexion, extension and rotation
c. Extension and lateral flexion
d. Flexion, extension, lateral flexion and rotation

A

b. Flexion, extension and rotation

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17
Q
  1. What is the counterpart of a Knight brace under the TLS brace?

a. Cruciform
b. Knight-Taylor
c. Plastic body jacket
d. Taylor

A

b. Knight-Taylor

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18
Q
  1. A thoraco-lumbo-sacral flexion control orthosis?

a. William brace
b. Taylor brace
c. Cowhorn brace
d. Cruciform brace

A

d. Cruciform brace

Thoraco-lumbo-sacral flexion
Jewett or Cruciform

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19
Q
  1. This orthosis is made of thermo-molded plastic anterior and posterior parts and fastened with Velcro. It is a short flexion jacket used for preventing extension in the lumbar spine and it is used in low back pain due to spondylolisthesis?

a. Rainey orthosis
b. Minerva
c. Milwaukee brace
d. Boston brace

A

a. Rainey orthosis

low back pain due to spondylolisthesis

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20
Q
  1. A patient has a diabetic neuropathy with presenting mediolateral instability of the right ankle while ambulating. The patient also has presence fluctuating edema and sensory loss in both lower extremities. Which of the following below is the most appropriate orthotic device?

a. Prefabricated plastic ankle-foot orthosis
b. Modified posterior leaf spring
c. Double upright metal ankle-foot orthosis
d. Spiral ankle-foot orthosis

A

c. Double upright metal ankle-foot orthosis

Fluctuating edema and sensory loss in both lower extremities

Metal upright: Will not touch the skin of the px

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21
Q
  1. They are often used to rest body parts during healing, to reduce tone of spastic muscles, or to decrease or to prevent deformity in upper limb orthoses?

a. Static orthoses
b. Dynamic orthoses
c. Both
d. Neither

A

a. Static orthoses

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22
Q
  1. Considerations for fitting an upper limb orthosis?

I. Bony prominences
II. Ligamentous stresses
III. Arches of the hand
IV. Alignment

a. I, II and III
b. I, II and IV
c. II, III and IV
d. All are correct

A

d. All are correct

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23
Q
  1. Indications of upper limb orthotics?

I. Nerve injuries
II. Paralysis
III. Post-joint replacement
IV. Burns

a. I, II and III
b. I, II and IV
c. II, III and IV
d. I, II, III and IV

A

d. I, II, III and IV

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24
Q
  1. It holds the arm out like a wing and it is designed to promote healing of fractures or to immobilize the shoulder in abduction after a reconstructive surgery or burn injury?

a. Volar positioning splint
b. Dorsal positioning splint
c. Airplane splint
d. Resting hand splint

A

c. Airplane splint

25
Q
  1. It is an upper limb splint used for de Quervain’s disease?

a. PIP sleeve
b. Cock-up splint
c. Plastic ring splint
d. Thumb spica

A

d. Thumb spica

26
Q
  1. This type of upper limb orthotic device is intended for CVA patient and mainly used during ambulation?

a. Humeral fracture brace
b. Hemi shoulder sling
c. Airplane splint
d. Balanced forearm orthosis

A

b. Hemi shoulder sling

CVA: Prevent subluxation

27
Q
  1. Is an old name for the dynamic shoulder orthosis called the balanced forearm orthosis, which is attached to the upright of a wheelchair and supports the forearm and commonly used for feeding the patient himself?

a. Ball-bearing feeder
b. Dynamic forearm orthosis
c. Shoulder-elbow-wrist-hand orthosis
d. A and B

A

a. Ball-bearing feeder

AKA Balance FA orthosis

28
Q
  1. A type of splint prescribed for a patient with an elbow burn injury?

a. Anterior arm splint
b. Tennis elbow support
c. Posterior arm splint
d. Humeral cuff

A

c. Posterior arm splint

Positions elbow in extension and FA supination

29
Q
  1. A static positioning device used in patients with lateral epicondylitis?

a. Anterior arm splint
b. Tennis elbow support
c. Posterior arm splint
d. Cock-up splint

A

b. Tennis elbow support

30
Q
  1. A wrist-hand orthosis:

a. Ends in the palm
b. Ends over digits
c. Extends into webspace of thumb
d. Extends just distal to PIP crease

A

b. Ends over digits

31
Q
  1. Positioning for burns using a resting hand splint?

I. 15-20 degrees wrist extension
II. 65-70 degrees MCP flexion
III. Thumb slightly adducted
IV. DIP and PIP neutral

a. I, II and III
b. I, II and IV
c. II, III and IV
d. I, II, III and IV

A

b. I, II and IV

Dapat abducted si thumb

32
Q
  1. What requirements must the patient meet in order to use an AFO effectively?

a. Knee extension strength of >3/5
b. Stable limb size without fluctuating edema for use of a plastic AFO
c. Skin pressure tolerance and patient compliance with skin checks
d. All of the above

A

d. All of the above

33
Q
  1. Purpose of dynamic splint, EXCEPT:

a. Corrective
b. Increase function
c. Strengthening
d. Immobilization
e. None of these

A

d. Immobilization

For static

34
Q
  1. An orthotic device used for swan-neck deformity:

a. Balance forearm orthosis
b. Resting hand splint
c. Mallet slipover static splint
d. Silver or plastic ring splint
e. None of the above

A

d. Silver or plastic ring splint

35
Q
  1. The patient should be wearing their orthosis for about 23 hours, with the remaining 1 hour is ideally used for the following EXCEPT:

a. Skin inspection
b. Performing stretching
c. Strengthening exercises
d. All of the above
e. None of the above

A

e. None of the above

Tama kasi lahat

36
Q
  1. When wearing an orthotic device, what are some of the guidelines when performing an exercise?

a. Exercises should be done step by step
b. Perform stretching for 10-12 seconds
c. Exercise should relieve tension in the ligaments and muscles
d. A and B only
e. All of the above

A

e. All of the above

37
Q
  1. Characteristics of posterior leaf spring AFO, except:

a. It promotes maximum support and stability in all planes by preventing both dorsiflexion and plantarflexion
b. Its purpose is to hold the ankle and foot in a desired position yet allow some flexibility of the ankle
c. Indicated for isolated ankle dorsiflexor weakness
d. It does not control subtalar eversion, midtarsal pronation, and forefoot abduction

A

a. It promotes maximum support and stability in all planes by preventing both dorsiflexion and plantarflexion

Could only restrict PF, not DF

38
Q
  1. Indications for a limited motion-articulated ankle plantarflexion stop with free dorsiflexion include the following:

I. Dorsiflexor weakness (drop foot)
II. Knee hyperextension in early stance
III. Ankle instability: medial or lateral
IV. Weakness of quadriceps

a. I and III
b. II and IV
c. I, II and III
d. I, II, III and IV

A

c. I, II and III

IV: KAFO na

39
Q
  1. The portion of the shoe over the dorsum of the foot is the upper. It consists of a posterior compartment known as the:

a. Vamp
b. Quarter
c. Pitch
d. Counter

A

b. Quarter

40
Q
  1. A medial heel wedge, by applying medially directed force, can aid in realigning:

a. Flexible pes valgus
b. Flexible pes varus
c. Rigid pes valgus
d. B and C

A

a. Flexible pes valgus

MedieVAL

41
Q
  1. What is the key design for Scott-Craig orthosis?

a. 20 degrees DF
b. 10 degrees DF
c. 15 degrees PF
d. 10 degrees PF

A

b. 10 degrees DF

42
Q
  1. Recently, a 10-year-old patient has begun walking with supination of her foot. With her shoe off, the therapist finds a new callus on the lateral side of the metatarsal head of the 5th toe. The BEST choice for orthotic prescription is:

a. Viscoelastic shoe inserts with forefoot medial wedge
b. Scaphoid pad
c. Thomas heel
d. Viscoelastic shoe inserts with forefoot lateral wedge

A

d. Viscoelastic shoe inserts with forefoot lateral wedge

To position the foot medially

43
Q
  1. A brace prescribed for an abnormally tracking patella would be which of the following?

a. Lerman multi-ligamentous knee orthosis
b. Palumbo
c. Lenox Hill
d. Typical knee orthosis

A

b. Palumbo

44
Q
  1. Common throat style used for orthopaedic shoes?

a. Balmoral
b. Lace-to-toe
c. Blucher
d. None of the above

A

c. Blucher

45
Q
  1. A therapist performs gait training activities with an eight-year-old child who utilizes a reciprocating gait orthosis. Which medical diagnosis is MOST often associated with the use of this type of orthotic device?

a. Cerebral palsy
b. Down syndrome
c. Legg-Calve-Perthes disease
d. Spina bifida

A

d. Spina bifida

reciprocating gait orthosis

46
Q
  1. An orthotic device for children that allows standing without crutch support; it also allows for ease in sitting with the addition of hip and knee joints that can be unlocked and it is used in children with myelodysplasia?

a. Parapodium
b. RGO
c. Standing frame
d. All of the above

A

a. Parapodium

standing without crutch support

used in children with myelodysplasia

47
Q
  1. It is a low profile, molded plastic orthosis for scoliosis; more cosmetic, can be worn under clothing; used for mid-thoracic or lower scoliosis curves of 40 degrees or less?

a. Milwaukee orthosis
b. Boston orthosis
c. Miami orthosis
d. Knight orthosis

A

b. Boston orthosis

more cosmetic
mid-thoracic or lower scoliosis

48
Q
  1. Which of the following are included in orthotic training?

a. Instruct the patient in procedures for orthotic maintenance: routine skin inspection and care.
b. Teach proper application (donning-doffing) of the orthosis.
c. Teach proper use of the orthosis: Balance training, gait training, and functional activities training.
d. All of the above

A

d. All of the above

49
Q
  1. Which of the following spinal orthotic devices below is used for scoliosis with apex above T6?

a. Miami
b. Milwaukee
c. Boston
d. Cruciform

A

b. Milwaukee

Code: Wa Ia

50
Q
  1. The most important exercise for those wearing spinal braces is .

a. Quadriceps setting
b. Gluteal setting
c. Abdominal setting
d. Deep breathing exercises

A

d. Deep breathing exercises

Baka kasi masikip yung orthosis

51
Q
  1. Which of the following spinal orthotic devices below is used for scoliosis with apex below T8?

a. Miami
b. Milwaukee
c. Yamamoto
d. Cruciform

A

c. Yamamoto

Code: BuWaYa

52
Q
  1. A hose insert used for the 3rd metatarsal head
    a. Scaphoid pad
    b. U-shaped pad
    c. Metatarsal pad
    d. Cushion heel
A

b. U-shaped pad

53
Q
  1. An extension of the lateral portion of the breast anteriorly which helps in supporting the medial longitudinal arch?

a. Thomas heel
b. Heel wedge
c. Reverse Thomas heel
d. Heel flare
e. A and C

A

c. Reverse Thomas heel

54
Q
  1. A therapist evaluates a patient during gait. The patient demonstrates excessive supination of the right heel at heel strike. Which of the following orthotic interventions is most appropriate to address the problem?

a. Forefoot medial posting
b. Rearfoot valgus posting
c. Forefoot lateral posting
d. Rearfoot varus posting

A

b. Rearfoot valgus posting

Problem: excessive supination
Go: to pronation (MedieVAL PEA)
Heel: Rearfoot

55
Q
  1. A medial buckled insert attached to an ankle-foot orthosis is used to correct:

a. Ankle valgus deformity
b. Ankle varus deformity
c. Medial longitudinal arch depression
d. Forefoot varus deformity

A

a. Ankle valgus deformity

Code: MedieVAL

56
Q
  1. A type of knee lock for Knee-Ankle-Foot orthosis, designed to control the amount of knee flexion:

a. Offset knee joint
b. Pawl lock
c. Drop ring lock
d. Serrated adjustable lock

A

c. Drop ring lock

57
Q
  1. The most commonly used type of knee axis for Knee Orthoses?

a. Single
b. Double
c. Polycentric
d. NOTA

A

c. Polycentric

58
Q
  1. Components of a knee-ankle-foot orthosis?

I. Ankle-foot orthosis
II. Knee joint
III. 2 thigh uprights
IV. 2 thigh bands

a. I, II, and III
b. I, II, and IV
c. II, III, and IV
d. I, II, III, and IV

A

d. I, II, III, and IV

Code: ATTK

59
Q
  1. It is the inclination from the vertical of the posterior aspect of the shoe?

a. Quarter
b. Breast
c. Vamp
d. Pitch

A

d. Pitch

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