PME ORTHO Flashcards

1
Q
  1. You are instructing a patient that is PWB on the (L) lower extremity to descend stairs using axillary crutches. Your first instruction should be:

a. Place your left leg down first
b. Place you left leg & crutches down first
c. Place your right leg on the first step
d. Place your right leg & the left crutch on the first step

A
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2
Q
  1. Cane can transmit how many percent of the patient’s body weight?

a. 30 %
b. 50 %
c. 80%
d. 85%

A
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3
Q
  1. A PT prepares a patient recovering from a THR for discharge from the hospital. The patient is 65 years old & resides alone. Assuming an uncomplicated recovery, which of the following pieces of adaptive equipment would not be necessary for home use

a. Long handled shoehorn
b. Raised toilet seat
c. Sliding board
d. Tub bench

A
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4
Q
  1. A PT works on transfer training with a patient & her family in preparation for discharge. The patient can occasionally complete a wheelchair to bed transfer independently, however often requires assistance to initiate the transfer. The most appropriate classification of the patient’s transfer status is:

a. Contact guard assistance
b. Minimal assistance
c. Moderate assistance
d. Maximal assistance

A
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5
Q
  1. Electric wheelchair is indicated for SCI levels:

a. C4
b. C6
c. C7
d. C8

A
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6
Q
  1. A 6-year-old child with spastic diplegia is walking in the parallel bars. The child walks with increased trunk & hip flexion. Which is the MOST appropriate assistive device for this patient?

a. Standard walker
b. Posterior rolling walker
c. Forearm crutches
d. Bilateral quad canes

A
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7
Q
  1. This refers to excessive dryness of skin with shedding of epithelium which might indicate deficiency of thyroid function & also diabetes?
    a. Hyperhidrosis
    b. Cirrhosis
    c. Xeroderma
    d. Pigmentation
A
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8
Q
  1. A physical therapist measures a patient for wheelchair. Assuming a full-grown adult of average size and build, which of the following dimensions would be the most appropriate?

a. Seat height 18 in, seat depth 16 in, seat width 20 in
b. Seat height 20 in, seat depth 16 in, seat width18 in
c. Seat height 22 in, seat depth 16 in, seat width 18 in
d. Seat height 18 in, seat depth 18 in , seat width 20 in

A
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9
Q
  1. A patient has a weakened tibialis posterior muscles. What kind of foot orthotic should be placed in his shoe to prevent his ankle from rolling?
    a. Medial wedge
    b. Lateral wedge
    c. Heel cushion
    d. Rocker bar
A
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10
Q
  1. This disorder affects bone formation and is transmitted as an autosomal dominant factor. The result is the long bones of the limbs remain short. What is the medical name for this condition?
    a. Osteogenesis imperfecta
    b. Bone tumor
    c. Achondroplasia
    d. Fibrous dysplasia
A
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11
Q
  1. You are treating a patient who has had a left side CVA approximately 6 weeks ago. The patient requires assistance in plantar flexion of the ankle during the push off phase of gait. Which of the following braces would be most appropriate in planning this patient’s treatment program?
    a. Dorsi-plantar flexion assist
    b. Dorsiflexion assist
    c. Dorsiflexion stop
    d. Free motion ankle joint
A
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12
Q
  1. A child with burn on the anterior trunk & leg, has what percentage of burn according to the rule of nines?
    a. 26
    b. 25
    c. 32
    d. 36
A
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13
Q
  1. This device holds the arm in abduction to help prevent contractures after an axillary burn or ensure healing after a shoulder fusion:
    a. Airplane splint
    b. Shoulder sling
    c. Jewett brace
    d. Balanced forearm orthosis
A
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14
Q
  1. Signs of maturation of a burn scar, EXCEPT:
    a. Complete fading of erythema
    b. Softening and thinning out of the scars
    c. Increase in wrinkling & flexibility of the scars
    d. Will blanch to touch
A
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15
Q
  1. Common site of HO in burn?
    a. Shoulder
    b. Posterior elbow
    c. Hip
    d. Knee
A
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16
Q
  1. On examination of a female obese patient with knee pain, she complains of years of knee stiffness and pain for about 30 minutes every morning when she wakes up, and has recurrent knee aches towards the end of the day. What is this condition?
    a. Chondromalacia patella
    b. Patellar bursitis
    c. Patellar tendonitis
    d. Knee OA
A
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17
Q
  1. The energy expenditure of double below knee amputation:
    a. 65% above normal
    b. 75% above normal
    c. 110% above normal
    d. 41% above normal
A
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18
Q
  1. What is the name given to the type of skin graft that uses patients own skin?
    a. Xenograft
    b. Autograft
    c. Allograft
    d. Homograft
A
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19
Q
  1. A patient who uses transfemoral prosthesis is observed to have a circumducted gait deviation during swing phase on the involved side. The Most likely cause is:
    a. The prosthesis is too short
    b. Excessive friction of the prosthetic knee
    c. Tightness of the involved gluteus medius muscle
    d. Lateral rotation of the socket on the residual limb
A
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20
Q
  1. A physician and PT discuss the plan of care for a patient with full thickness wound on the sacrum. During the course of the conversation the physician discusses the benefit of using an occlusive dressing on the wound. What type of dressing would BEST meet this criteria?
    a. Alginates
    b. Hydrocolloids
    c. Impregnated gauze
    d. Semipermeable foam
A
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21
Q
  1. A patient who sustained a burn three days ago after coming in contact with hot liquid is referred to physical therapy. Presently, the burn is dry, leathery and blanches with direct pressure. The patient reports mild pain and reduced sensation around the affected area. The MOST likely burn classification is:
    a. Superficial burn
    b. Full thickness burn
    c. Superficial partial thickness burn
    d. Deep partial thickness burn
A
22
Q
  1. A patient rehabilitating from a deep partial thickness burns to their right upper extremity is evaluated for a pressure garment. How long should the patient expect to wear the device?
    a. 1 month
    b. 3months
    c. 6 months
    d. 12 months
A
23
Q
  1. A PT performs gait training with a patient rehabilitating from a traumatic amputation of the 1st MTP joint. The primary objective finding associated with this type of injury would be:
    a. Excessive hip hiking
    b. Decreased stride length
    c. Excessive trunk extension
    d. Decreased push off with the involved extremity
A
24
Q
  1. A PT treats a 21 year old male that sustained a burn to his entire right upper extremity. The anticipated deformity at the elbow would be:
    a. Flexion and supination
    b. Flexion and pronation
    c. Extension and supination
    d. Extension and pronation
A
25
Q
  1. A PT describes the goal for managing a patient’s wound as “protect the wound and maintain a moist environment”. Which wound description is MOST consistent with the stated goal?
    a. Black thick eschar
    b. Moist yellow slough
    c. Pink granulation tissue
    d. Painless indolent ulcer
A
26
Q
  1. If your patient cannot support weight on one leg but has good muscular strength and coordination, which crutch walking gait would you choose?
    a. Three-point gait ( non- weight bearing )
    b. Two point gait
    c. Three point one gait ( partial weight bearing )
    d. Swing through three point gait
A
27
Q
  1. Which of the following is not part of the CREST syndrome?
    a. Telangiectasia
    b. Scleroderma
    c. Raynaud’s phenomenon
    d. Calcinosis
A
28
Q
  1. A patient is referred to physical therapy. While you are recording her treatment, she talks to you about her condition. The patient reports that she is in a serious stage of her condition, as the disease has affected her organs. The patient reports that her condition originally started as thickening of the skin in the subcutaneous tissue, which then eventually affected the organs. The patient is currently in physical therapy for a home exercise program designed for range of motion and to prevent contractures as much as possible. Which of the following would most likely be the condition of this patient?
    a. Dermatomyositis
    b. Scleroderma
    c. Fibroid necrosis
    d. Granulomatosis
A
29
Q
  1. The patient comes to the clinic and provides the following description of brace which she left at home: The brace has three points of pressure, over the lumbar spine, sternum and symphysis pubis. The patient has a minor fracture in the dorsal spine. Of these listed below which brace does the patient have at home?
    a. Taylor brace
    b. Jewett brace
    c. Knight Taylor brace
    d. Lumbar corset
A
30
Q
  1. The patient has a spinal fracture at L1-L2 as a result of a motor vehicle accident three days ago. The physician would like your opinion of which brace to order for this patient. Which of the braces listed below would you recommend given the above information?
    a. Philadelphia collar
    b. Lumbar corset
    c. Knight- taylor spinal brace
    d. Jewett hyperextension brace
A
31
Q
  1. You are recommending an adjustment to a patient’s prosthesis in order to increase knee flexion. How would you position the foot component in relation to the socket to accomplish this?
    a. Anterior
    b. Posterior
    c. Medial
    d. Lateral
A
32
Q
  1. What orthosis should be used if the patient needs to have a total elimination of weight bearing of whole lower limb?
    a. Ischial weight bearing orthosis
    b. Patellar tendon bearing orthosis
    c. Patten - bottom orthosis
    d. None of the choices
A
33
Q
  1. This is prescribed for patient with leg length discrepancy of less than one inch:
    a. Shoe elevation
    b. Medial heel wedge
    c. Heel elevation
    d. Lateral heel wedge
A
34
Q
  1. An external shoe modification that would be appropriate for a patient exhibiting flexible subtalar valgus deformity is:
    a. Cushion heel
    b. Lateral heel wedge
    c. Medial sole wedge
    d. Medial heel wedge
A
35
Q
  1. All of the following are pressure tolerant areas for a below knee amputation prosthetic except:
    a. Pretibial muscles
    b. Lateral tibial flare
    c. Patellar tendon
    d. Anterior crest of tibia
A
36
Q
  1. What is the ideal shape for transfemoral residual limb?
    a. Rectangular
    b. Conical
    c. Pyramidal
    d. Cylindrical
A
37
Q
  1. Patient is a 4y/o child who fell off his swing set at home. He has a fracture described as incomplete fracture. What is the typical name for this fracture which usually occurs in children?
    a. Open
    b. Close
    c. Comminuted
    d. Greenstick
A
38
Q
  1. Irregularly shaped lesion that is elevated, solid, changes shape, and is transient.It appears on skin or mucous membrane and is due to cutaneous edema.
    a. Plaque
    b. Tumor
    c. Wheal
    d. Pustule
A
39
Q
  1. A flat, circumscribed, discolored lesion of skin or mucous membrane greater than 1cm in its longest diameter.
    a. Macule
    b. Patch
    c. Papule
    d. Wheal
A
40
Q
  1. A lesion of varying size, containing pus, and consists of a bulla or vesicle.
    a. Tumor
    b. Pustule
    c. Plaque
    d. Wheal
A
41
Q
  1. An elevated lesion of skin or mucous membrane, solid, and less than 1cm in diameter.
    a. Patch
    b. Plaque
    c. Macule
    d. Tumor
A
42
Q
  1. An elevated lesion of skin or mucous membrane, solid, has added dimensions of depth into underlying tissues, and greater than 1cm in diameter.
    a. Tumor
    b. Patch
    c. Macule
    d. Pustule
A
43
Q
  1. A PT receives an order to utilize a hydrocolloid dressing on a patient with a full thickness wound. What is the MOST significant potential limitation with this type of dressing?
    a. Larger dressings are difficult to apply
    b. Requires use of a secondary dressing
    c. Traumatize periwound skin upon removal
    d. Limited use with highly exudating wounds
A
44
Q
  1. A PT completes a home assessment for a 39 year old male who uses a wheelchair for household and community mobility. In order for the patient to enter his home, the doorway width should be a minimum of:
    a. 24 inches
    b. 28 inches
    c. 32 inches
    d. 36 inches
A
45
Q
  1. A PT observes a patient with a transtibial amputation who is donning his prosthesis. After the patient completes this task you notice that his residual limb is not fully in the socket and he complains of pain on the tibial tubercle. To resolve this problem the physical therapist should:
    a. Add one ply of residual limb sock
    b. Initiate a desensitization program
    c. Remove one ply of residual limb sock
    d. Call the prosthetist and ask him to alter the socket
A
46
Q
  1. A PT performs an examination on a patient with a pressure ulcer on the heel. The patient’s wound is relatively round, approximately 1/2 cm in size, and is covered with black necrotic tissue. In order to determine the stage of the pressure ulcer the physical therapy must:
    a. First debride the wound of the necrotic tissue
    b. Gather information pertaining to the cause of the wound
    c. Make precise measurements of the surface area of the wound
    d. Estimate the depth of the ulcer based on the thickness of tissue typically present on the heel
A
47
Q
  1. A PT works with a 52 year old female with a wound. The wound is clean, measures 1/2 cm deep, and granulation tissue is just beginning to form. Over a three week period the therapist treats that patient with a wet to dry dressing with acetic acid that is changed twice daily. Which of the following is MOST likely to occur as a result of this treatment regimen?
    a. Wound healing
    b. Wound infection
    c. Hypetrophic or keloid scarring
    d. Hypogranulation with little to no epithelialization
A
48
Q
  1. A PT completes a system review on a patient immediately after completing a detailed patient history. Which of the following would NOT typically be included as part of the integumentary component systems review?
    a. Assessment of edema
    b. Assessment of skin color
    c. Assessment of skin integrity
    d. Presence of scar formation
A
49
Q
  1. A PT guards a patient that is descending a flight of stairs with handrails. The patient has left lower extremity weakness due to a tibial plateau fracture eight weeks ago. Assuming the patient descends the stairs according to the normal flow of traffic, the MOST appropriate therapist position when guarding the patient is:
    a. Beside the patient on the involved side .,
    b. Beside the patient on the uninvolved side
    c. In front of the patient on the involved side
    d. In front of the patient on the uninvolved side
A
50
Q
A